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Year 3 > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What is transferrin?

A

= carrier protein which helps transport iron around in the blood

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2
Q

What is total iron binding capacity (TIBC)?

(in terms of transferrin)

A

= this refers to total space on the transferrin molecule for iron to bind

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3
Q

What is ferritin?

A

= form that iron takes when it is deposited + stored in cells

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4
Q

What would you expect the ferritin, total iron binding capacity (TIBC) + transferrin levels to be in a patient with iron-deficiency anaemia?

A

Ferritin - low
TIBC - high
Transferrin - high

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5
Q

2 things that could cause an increase in serum ferritin, serum iron, giving the impression of iron over-load? (2)

A
  • supplementation with iron
  • acute liver damage (there is a lot of iron stored in the liver)
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6
Q

3 methods of treating iron-deficiency anaemia

A
  • oral iron e.g., Ferrous sulfate
  • iron infusion e.g., ‘Cosmofer’
  • blood transfusion
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7
Q

In what form is iron given orally?

A

= Ferrous sulfate, 200mg 3x daily

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8
Q

Why should iron infusion be avoided in sepsis?

A

= iron ‘feeds’ the bacteria

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9
Q

What is pernicious anaemia?

A

= autoimmune condition where antibodies form against the parietal cells or intrinsic factor, which prevents the absorption of vitamin B12 - and patient becomes deficient

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10
Q

B12 deficiency symptoms

A

Neurological symptoms:
- peripheral neuropathy with numbness or paraesthesia (pins + needles)
- loss of vibration sense or proprioception
- visual changes
- mood or cognitive changes

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11
Q

Test used to diagnose pernicious anaemia

A

= intrinsic factor antibody test

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12
Q

Pernicious anaemia treatment

A

= 1mg IM Hydroxocobalamin 3x weekly for 2 weeks, then every 3 months

(more intense regimes where there are neurological symptoms)

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13
Q

If patient appears to have both folate and B12 deficiency, what is important when treating this?

A

= important to treat B12 deficiency first

Treating patients with folic acid when they have B12 deficiency can cause subacute combined degeneration of the cord

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14
Q

Haemolytic anaemia is usually:

  • microcytic
  • normocytic
  • macrocytic
A
  • normocytic
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15
Q

Which haematological condition may be triggered by eating fava beans (broad beans)?

A

= G6PD deficiency

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16
Q

G6PD is…

  • X-linked recessive
  • X-lined dominant
  • Y-linked
A
  • X-linked recessive
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17
Q

What are the 2 types of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA)?

A

Warm type

Cold type

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18
Q

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia: Is warm-type or cold-type more common?

A

= warm-type

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19
Q

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia: Is warm-type or cold-type more often secondary to other conditions such as lymphoma or leukaemia?

A

= cold-type

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20
Q

What is thalassaemia?

A

= genetic defect in the protein chains that make-up haemoglobin

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21
Q

2 types of thalassaemia

A
  • alpha-thalassaemia
  • beta-thalassaemia
22
Q

Patient presents with severe microcytic anaemia, splenomegaly + bone deformities. What is this suggestive of?

A

= thalassaemia

23
Q

What type of anaemia do people with thalassaemia suffer from?

A

= microcytic anaemia

24
Q

Why do patients with thalassaemia suffer from iron overload?

A

= because of faulty creation of RBCs, recurrent transfusions are indicated. There is an increased absorption of iron in response to the chronic anaemia, leading to > iron overload

25
Q

Curative management in thalassaemia

A

= bone marrow transplant

26
Q

3 types of beta-thalassaemia

A
  • thalassaemia
27
Q

Sickle cell anaemia results in an abnormal gene for which of the following:

  • alpha-globin
  • beta-globin
A
  • beta-globin
28
Q

How is sickle-cell disease diagnosed?

A

= tested for on the new-born screening heel prick test at 5 days of age

29
Q

What drug is used in the long-term management of sickle-cell anaemia? and what does it do?

A

= hydroxyurea (AKA hydroxcarbamide) - used to simulated production of foetal haemoglobin (HbF)

30
Q

What complication is usually triggered by infection with parvovirus B19 in patients with sickle-cell anaemia?

A

= aplastic crisis

31
Q

Most common virus that causes an aplastic crisis in patients with sickle-cell disease?

A

= parvovirus B19

32
Q

Which type of leukaemia is the most common in children?

  • acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
  • chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
  • acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
  • chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CCL)
A
  • acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
33
Q

Which type of leukaemia is associated with downs syndrome?

  • acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
  • chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
  • acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
  • chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CCL)
A
  • acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
34
Q

Which type of leukaemia can cause warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

  • acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
  • chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
  • acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
  • chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CCL)
A
  • chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CCL)
35
Q

Which type of leukaemia can transform into high-grade lymphoma, (which is known as ‘richter’s transformation’)?

  • acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
  • chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
  • acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
  • chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CCL)
A
  • chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CCL)
36
Q

Which type of leukaemia is associated with ‘smear’ or, ‘smudge’ cells on blood film?

  • acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
  • chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
  • acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
  • chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CCL)
A
  • chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CCL)
37
Q

Which type of leukaemia is known to have 3 phases?

  • acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
  • chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
  • acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
  • chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CCL)
A
  • chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
38
Q

What are the 3 phases of chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)?

A
  • chronic phase
  • accelerated phase
  • blast phase
39
Q

Which type of leukaemia is associated with Philadelphia chromosome?

  • acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
  • chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
  • acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
  • chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CCL)
A
  • chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
40
Q

Which type of leukaemia can be the result of a transformation from a myeloproliferative disorder?

  • acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
  • chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
  • acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
  • chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CCL)
A
  • acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
41
Q

Which type of leukaemia is associated with ‘auer rods’ on blood film?

  • acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
  • chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
  • acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
  • chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CCL)
A
  • acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
42
Q

Most common type of leukaemia in adults overall?

  • acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
  • chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
  • acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
  • chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CCL)
A
  • chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CCL)
43
Q

Leukaemia is primary treated with which 2 things?

A
  • chemotherapy
  • steroids
44
Q

What is tumour lysis syndrome caused by?

A

= caused by release of uric acid from cells that are being destroyed by chemotherapy

45
Q

Main presenting symptom of lymphoma?

A

= lymphadenopathy

46
Q

Which type of lymphoma is more common:

  • Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  • Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
A
  • Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
47
Q

What are the ‘B symptoms’? And what are they associated with?

A
  • fever
  • weight loss
  • night sweats

= associated with lymphoma

48
Q

Key treatments in Hodgkin’s lymphoma (2)

A
  • chemotherapy AND,
  • radiotherapy
49
Q

Reed-Sternberg cell are suggestive of…?

A

= Hodgkin’s lymphoma

50
Q

Ann Arbor Staging is used to stage what?

A

= lymphoma (Hodgkin’s + Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma)

Year 3 (10 decks)

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