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FAA - Instrument rating > Pass Your Instrument Pilot Checkride > Flashcards

Pass Your Instrument Pilot Checkride Flashcards

1
Q

What do you need to have done to apply for an Instrument check ride?

A
  1. At least a Private Certificate.
  2. 50 hours of Cross Country.
  3. 40 Hours Instrument training, 15 with a CFII. 20 Hrs can be in a Sim.
  4. Logged ground time and passed the written test.
  5. 3 hours of training in the last 2 months.
  6. 250 NM Cross country.
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2
Q

When is a Flight Plan required and how long before a flight it be filed?

A

A Flight Plan is required to fly in Controlled Airspace under IFR. It should be filed at least 30 minutes before departure.

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3
Q

Can a Flight Plan be cancelled?

A

Yes, if it’s VFR and you’re outside Class A. Cancel in flight by saying “Cancel my IFR Fight Plan”.

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4
Q

Can a Flight Plan have IFR and VFR portions?

A

Yes, it’s called a Composite Flight plan. If you do this, ensure the IFR part is closed when you arrive at your destination.

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5
Q

The Destination airport doesn’t have an Instrument procedure, but 1hr before and after ETA the weather is forecast to have a ceiling of at least 2,000 ft and 3 SM. Is an Alternate required?

A

Yes. It conforms to the 1-2-3 rule but it’s not got an IAP so an Alternate is required.

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6
Q

When can an Airport be used as an Alternate?

A

If it has an Instrument procedure conforming to 2 SM visibility and 600 ft ceiling for a precision approach or 800 ft ceiling for a non-precision approach. Or if the airport doesn’t have an IAP, if it forecast to be VFR it can be used.

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7
Q

Where are preferred routes found?

A

In the Chart Supplement. They’ve been established to improve efficiency and flow of traffic.

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8
Q

What is a low enroute chart and how long are they valid?

A

IR chart used for flights up to18,000 ft. Valid for 56 days.

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9
Q

What’s a NOTAM

A

A notice to airman is information that is either received too late for it to be added into a chart or official publication such as the Chart supplement or it’s of a temporary nature.

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10
Q

What type of information is commonly included in NOTAMs?

A
  1. Closure of runways, taxiways etc.
  2. Nav aid availability
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11
Q

What are the 3 types of NOTAMS

A
  1. D NOTAMS - critical information such as airport closures.
  2. L NOTAMS - closure of runways, failure of airport beacons etc.
  3. FDC NOTAMS - regulation information such as Instrument procedure amendments.
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12
Q

What are the errors associated with Compasses?

A

Turning error - on North/South turns, over steer South, understeer North (UNOS)
Acceleration error - due to DIP error, heading East/West, Acceleration indicates a turn to North, Deceleration indicates a turn to South (ANDS). The only time it can be considered accurate is when flying straight and level with a constant airspeed.

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13
Q

Where can you find out about NOTAMs

A
  1. National NOTAM system
  2. Call FSS
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14
Q

What is True altitude?

A

Altitude relative to sea level.

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15
Q

What is Density altitude?

A

Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature. It’s the altitude that the aircraft “feels” it’s at.

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16
Q

What’s absolute altidude?

A

It’s the same as QFE.

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17
Q

What is Slip and Skid?

A

Slip is too much bank and/or insufficient rudder. Skid is too little bank and/or too much rudder.

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18
Q

When should the heading indicator be set at the beginning of a flight?

A

After 5 minutes, align it to the Compass heading. And check after taxi and turns prior to take-off.

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19
Q

How do you check for VOR error over FAA VOR checkpoints?

A
  1. Center the CDI needle
  2. When over the check point there will be an indication of error is any exist.
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20
Q

How do you check the accuracy of the VOR using a VOT on the ground?

A
  1. Tune into the correct Frequency
  2. Turn on the OBS
  3. Center the CDI needle
  4. 360 degrees will give a From, 180 degrees will give a To flag.
  5. Any error will be indicated as the OBS error.
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21
Q

How often must a VOR check be made and what must be recorded?

A

Every 30 days. Date and place of the check, bearing error (if any) who made the check (signature).

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22
Q

At 30 NM and 60 NM how far off track is a DOT of displacement?

A

1 NM at 30 NM, 2 NM at 60 NM

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23
Q

When can a GPS be used for IFR navigation?

A
  1. If it’s approved by FAA
  2. Databases must be up to date.
  3. If there is an alternative (non GPS) form of navigation appropriate to the route of flight.
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24
Q

What causes weather?

A

Temperature imbalances over the surface of the earth.

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25
Q

What are Isobars?

A

Areas of equal pressure.

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25
Q

What are the 3 forces influencing winds?

A

Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, Surface friction.

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26
Q

What is an Airmass?

A

A body of air with uniform temperature, and pressure.

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27
Q

What is a Front?

A

The transition area between 2 airmasses, with different Temperature, Humidity and Wind.

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28
Q

What are the 4 types of Front?

A

Warm, Cold, Occluded Cold fronts move faster and catch up Warm fronts), and Stationary.

29
Q

What change in conditions will you experience when you fly across a Front?

A
  1. Change in Wind and Temperature.
  2. With the passage of a Front (Warm or Cold) an airport may experience some windshear.
30
Q

What negative side effects are associated with Fronts?

A

Cold fronts - frontal waves, tornadoes, squall lines.

31
Q

Why is the lapse rate a useful tool for predicting weather?

A

It tells us about the stability of the air.

32
Q

What contributes to the growth rate of precipitation?

A

Upward movement of air and moisture. As the altitude increases the temperature decreases, condenses and falls as precipitation.

33
Q

Name the scenarios when an Instrument rating is mandatory for a flight.

A
  1. Below VFR minimums.
  2. In Class A.
  3. PiC on an Instrument flight plan.
  4. SVFR at night.
34
Q

When can we go below minimums on final?

A
  1. One of the visual references is insight.
  2. Stabilized approach using normal maneuvers and descent is possible.
  3. Visibility is at or above approach plate requirement.
35
Q

What are Microbursts and where do they come from?

A

intense downdraft (or downburst) of air that can produce powerful (up to 100 mph), concentrated winds on or near the ground. These winds spread out in all directions when they hit the surface, creating severe wind shear – a sudden change in wind speed or direction over a short distance. They come from rain drops falling through thunderstorms. The rain evaporates, cooling surrounding air making it denser and sink rapidly.

36
Q

What are the 3 stages of a thunder storm?

A
  1. Cumulus
  2. Mature - updrafts and downdrafts
  3. Dissipating - the rain, rains itself out. Advil forms in this stage.
37
Q

What’s a squall line?

A

A line of thunderstorms.

38
Q

When does fog form?

A

When the temperature - dew point spread is 3 degrees or less.

39
Q

Name 5 types of fog?

A

Advection, Radiation, Upslope, precipitation induced fog, ice fog.

40
Q

What’s HIWAS?

A

Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service. It was a continuous, automated broadcast of hazardous weather information provided to pilots over certain VHF navigation aids (VORs).
* AIRMETs (Airmen’s Meteorological Information)
* SIGMETs (Significant Meteorological Information)
* Convective SIGMETs (thunderstorm-related warnings)
* Center Weather Advisories (CWAs)
* Pilot Reports (PIREPs)

41
Q

How long are METARs valid and when are they issued?

A

Valid for an hour and issued at 55 minutes past the hour

42
Q

What is ASOS?

A

A network of automated weather stations in the United States that provide real-time weather observations. ASOS stations are a joint effort by the National Weather Service (NWS), the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), and the Department of Defense (DoD), and they are located at airports and other key locations across the country.

43
Q

How often are TAFs issued

A

4 times per day. (same as a Prognostic chart)

44
Q

What weather elements are reported in a Convective SIGMET?

A

Extreme turbulence, severe icing, LLWS. Issued 55 mins past the hour.

45
Q

What actual weather will prompt a Convective SIGMET?

A

Embedded TS, Line of Thunderstorms, Level 4 TS’s, 50 knots, surface hail > 1/4” diameter.

46
Q

What is a SIGMET (not Convective type)?

A

Dangerous weather for aviation: icing, clear air turbulence not associated with TS, low visibility (e.g. duststorms)

47
Q

What’s an AIRMET?

A

Less severe than SIGMETS e.g. icing and turbulence upto moderate, surface winds > 30 kts, reduced visibility < 3 miles.

48
Q

Types of AIRMETS?

A

Tango - turb and windy
Sierra - IFR conditions
Zulu - freezing

49
Q

With a Commercial certificate but no Instrument rating, what limitations are placed on the pilot?

A

Flying passengers at night is prohibited, and during the day they’re limited to 50nm from the airport of departure.

50
Q

What needs to be logged if you’re flying in simulated instrument conditions?

A

Place, approach(es) flown and name of safety pilot.

51
Q

List the pre-flight responsibilities of the PiC?

A
  1. NOTAMS
  2. Weather
  3. Known potential delays
  4. Runway lengths of intended landing
  5. Alternates
  6. Fuel requirements
  7. Take off distances and performance data
52
Q

Instruments that must be working for an IFR flight?

A

Generator or Alternator
Rate of Turn Indicator
Altimeter
Ball (turn coordinator)
Clock (panel powered)
AI
Radio
DG

53
Q

Define Class C airspace?

A

5nm radius around the core and 10nm around the shelf. The core is from surface to 4000ft. It has a Control tower and associated approach control.

54
Q

What is restricted area?

A

Airspace that has hazards and requires vectors or clearance to fly in it.

55
Q

What is a warning area

A

Like a restricted area but goes from the coast outward. No clearance is needed.

56
Q

What are Alert areas?

A

High pilot activity. e.g. training areas.

57
Q

What’s a Departure procedure

A

A procedure defined by text and graphics to simplify the delivery of clearance information for departures. They’re found in the Terminal procedures publication.

58
Q

What does a black triangle with a T inside it indicate on a Departure chart?

A

No standard departure minimums.

58
Q

Where can take off minimums be found for an airport?

A

In Terminal procedures publication

58
Q

Define the MRA (minimum reception altitude)

A

lowest altitude for identifying an intersection from an off-route navaid.

58
Q

What’s the MOCA

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude, is the altitude indicated with an asterisk, and provides the same qualities as an MEA but in addition guarantees navigational reception of nav facilities (for that section of the airway) up to 22 nm from the facility.

58
Q

What’s the MEA

A

Provides obstacle clearance and a strong signal for Nav and usually enough altitude for comms but it’s not guaranteed.

59
Q

What’s an MCA?

A

The higher altitude to be flown upon crossing the fix, NOT initiated at the fix. It informs the pilot that a higher MEA is approaching.

59
Q

At what altitude must flight crew use oxygen?

A

14,000 ft

59
Q

How long can flight crew fly at 12,500 ft to 14,000 ft without Oxygen?

A

30 mins

60
Q

What’s a OROCA?

A

Same as grid minimum altitude but for IFR. It is the off-route obstruction clearance altitude. If the route being flown is not along an airway then use the OROCA.

61
Q

When utilizing a VFR on top flight, name the responsibilities of the pilot.

A
  1. Fly at VFR altitude
  2. Adhere to VFR visibility and distances from clouds
  3. Follow IFR rules e.g. make position reports
  4. Advise ATC prior to altitude changes (unless they have a block)
62
Q

When told “resume own navigation” what does it mean

A

You’re responsible for nav and no need to make poistion reports but you will still be surveilled.

63
Q

Name the scenarios where a report to ATC is mandatory

A
  1. Leaving an altitude being flown
  2. Unable to maintain a climb or descent rate of 500ft/min
  3. Going missed
  4. TAS changes by 5% or 10 knots of flight plan filed speed.
  5. Reached Holding point (time and altitude)
  6. Leaving an assigned holding fix
  7. Lost navaids in controlled airspace
  8. Any info’ relating to the safety of the flight.
  9. Encountering weather not forecasted.
64
Q
A
65
Q
A

FAA - Instrument rating (11 decks)

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