Pass medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Loss of taste to the anterior 1/3 of the tongue may indicate a lesion to which cranial nerve?

A

CN IX

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2
Q

What actions are directly caused by angiotensin II?

A

Stimulates thirst

Increased proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity

Vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle

Stimulates ADH release

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3
Q

What is an action caused by oestrogen?

A

Proliferation of endometrium

Causes LH surge

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4
Q

What is an action caused by progesterone?

A

Responsibly for spiral artery formation

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5
Q

What is an action caused by renin?

A

Angiotensin I to angiotensin II

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6
Q

Genitalia dermatome

A

S2, S3

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7
Q

Loss of gag reflex may indicate a lesion to which CN?

A

CN X

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8
Q

A dilated fixed pupil may indicate a lesion to which of the cranial nerves?

A

CN III

  • Dilated fixed pupil
  • Down and out eye
  • Ptosis
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9
Q

Ptosis may indicate a lesion to which nerve?

A

CN III

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10
Q

Defective eye abduction and diplopia may indicated a lesion to which of the following cranial nerves?

A

CN VI

  • Defective eye abduction and horizontal diplopia
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11
Q

CN IV lesion?

A

Defective downwards gaze and vertical diplopia

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12
Q

Actions causes by oxytocin?

A

Uterine contraction

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13
Q

Actions causes by antidiuretic hormone?

A

Promotes water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys and by the insertion of the aquaporin 2 channels

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14
Q

What increases Na+ reabsorption in the renal distal tubule?

A

Aldosterone

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15
Q

Weakness in turning head to the contralateral side would be caused by?

A

CN XI accessory nerve

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16
Q

What hormone increases the renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol?

A

Parathyroid hormone

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17
Q

Hyperkalaemia is most likely to stimulate the release of renin or aldosterone?

A

Aldosterone

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18
Q

What increases Na+ reabsorption in the renal distal tubule?

A

Aldosterone

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19
Q

What promotes water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys by insertion of the aquaporin 2 channels?

A

ADH

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20
Q

Loss of corneal reflex may indicate a lesion of which cranial nerve?

A

CN VII Facial

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21
Q

Loss of taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue may be caused by a lesion to?

A

CN VII Facial

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22
Q

Lesion to CN IX may cause what?

A

GlossoPharyngeal nerve lesion may cause:

  • Loss of gag reflex
  • Loss of taste to Posterior 1/3 of the tongue
  • Flaccid paralysis to upper and lower face
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23
Q

What hormone increases gluconeogenesis?

A

Cortisol

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24
Q

Lesion to which cranial nerve may cause a nystagmus?

A

CN VIII

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25
Q

Lesion to which cranial nerve may cause a loss of corneal reflex?

A

CN V

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26
Q

What would a lesion to CN V cause?

A
  • Loss of facial sensation
  • Deviation of the jaw towards the side of the lesion
  • Loss of corneal reflex
  • Paralysis of muscles of mastication
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27
Q

Loss of facial sensation may include a lesion of which cranial nerve?

A

CN V

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28
Q

Is the pancreas intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal?

A

Retroperitoneal

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29
Q

What hormones increase lipolysis?

A
  • Cortisol
  • Growth hormone
  • Glucagon
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30
Q

What hormones decrease gastric emptying?

A
  • CCK

- Somatostatin

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31
Q

Tongue deviated to one side may indicate a lesion of which nerve?

A

CN XII

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32
Q

True or false? Does cortisol inhibit inflammatory response

A

True

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33
Q

Afferent limb of the pupillary light reflex?

A

CN II

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34
Q

A patient complains of pins and needles and pains around the thumb and index finger, worse at night.

This is a steriotypical injury to which nerve?

A

Median nerve

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35
Q

Stereotypical radial nerve injury?

A

A patient is notes to have a wrist drop following humerus injury

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36
Q

What hormones increase osteoclastic activity?

A
  • Cortisol
  • Parathyroid hormone
  • 1,25 dihydroxylcholcaciferol
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37
Q

Big toe dermatome?

A

L5

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38
Q

Inguinal ligament dermatome?

A

L1

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39
Q

What hormone helps maintain endometrium and pregnancy?

A

Progesterone

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40
Q

What hormone upregulates oestrogen, progesterone and LH receptors?

A

Oestrogen

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41
Q

What is one of the effects of glucagon?

A

Increases glycogenolysis

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42
Q

What hormone increases gastric motility?

A

Gastrin

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43
Q

What hormones inhibit growth hormone secretion

A
  • Glucagon

- Somatostatin

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44
Q

Efferent limb of the jaw jerk?

A

CN V3

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45
Q

Through which foramina of the skull does the opthalamic nerve pass?

A

Superior orbital fissure

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46
Q

What effect does ACE inhibitor therapy have of on common renal measurements?

A

Decreased GFR
Increased renal plasma flow
Decrease in filtration fraction

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47
Q

The following glomerular dynamics would be typical of what?

Increased GFR
Increased renal plasma flow
No change in filtration fraction

A

Vasodilation of afferent arterioles

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48
Q

Oesophagus perforates the diaphragm at which spinal level?

A

T10

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49
Q

The thoracic duct perforates the diaphragm at which spinal level?

A

T12

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50
Q

What happens at the T12 spinal level?

A

Aorta perforates the diaphragm

Thoracic duct perforates the diaphragm

Azygous vein perforates the diaphragm

Coeliac trunk leaves the aorta

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51
Q

What level does the inferior vena cava perforate the diaphragm?

A

T8

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52
Q

What is the dermatome for the big toe?

A

L5

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53
Q

What is the dermatome for the lateral foot and little toe?

A

S1

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54
Q

Lesion of CN IV may result in?

A

Defective downwards gaze and vertical diplopia

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55
Q

What hormone increases proximal tubule Na+/N+ activity?

A

Angiotensin II

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56
Q

True or false? Cortisol decreases osteoclastic activity?

A

FALSE cortisol INCREASES osteoclastic activity

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57
Q

Deviated uvula from the side of the lesion may indicate al lesion to which cranial nerve?

A

CN X

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58
Q

What is more likely to stimulate the release of aldosterone:

Decreased renal perfusion

Hyperkalaemia

A

Hyperkalaemia

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59
Q

What are the layers of the adrenal cortex and what do they produce?

A

GFR - ACR

Zona Glomerulosa = aldosterone

Zona Fasciculata = Cortisol

Zona Reticularis = Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)

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60
Q

What stimulates ADH release?

A

Angiotensin II

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61
Q

Would lesion of CN V causes a deviation of the jaw towards or away from the side of the lesion?

A

Towards

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62
Q

What hormone increases Na+ reabsorption in the renal distal tubule?

A

Aldosterone

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63
Q

What controls the corneal reflex?

A

CN VII Facial nerve

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64
Q

What hormone increases body temperature?

A

Progesterone

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65
Q

What hormone causes proliferation of the endometrium?

A

Oestrogen

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66
Q

What hormone causes an LH surge?

A

Oestrogen

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67
Q

Does uvula deviate towards or away from the side of the CN X lesion?

A

Away

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68
Q

Defective eye abduction and horizontal diplopia may indicate what lesion?

A

CN VI

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69
Q

What cells in the nervous system are responsible for physical repair?

A

Astrocytes

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70
Q

What are ependymal cells responsible for?

A

Providing the inner lining of the ventricles

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71
Q

What are astrocytes responsible for?

A
  • Provides physical support
  • Involved in physical repair
  • Help form the blood pain barrier
  • Removes excess potassium ions
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72
Q

What layer of the GI tract contains Meissners plexus?

A

Submucosa

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73
Q

What effect does angiotensin II have on common renal measurements?

A

Increases GFR

Decreased renal plasma flow

Increase in filtration fraction

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74
Q

What effect does NSAID therapy have on common renal measurements?

A

Decreased GFR

Decreased renal plasma flow

No change in filtration fraction

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75
Q

Which ligaments connects the uterine fundus to the labia majora?

A

Round ligament

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76
Q

What connects the uterus, fallopian tubes and ovaries to the pelvic wall?

A

Broad ligament

Contains ovaries, fallopian tubes and the round ligament

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77
Q

What connects the cervix to the pelvic wall?

A

Cardinal ligament

Contains uterine vessels

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78
Q

What ligament connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall?

A

Suspensory ligament of the ovaries

Contains ovarian vessels

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79
Q

What ligament connects the ovaries to the uterus?

A

Ovarian ligament

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80
Q

What ligament connects the cervix and posterior vaginal dome to the sacrum?

A

Uterosacral ligament

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81
Q

Dermatome of knee caps?

A

L4

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82
Q

Dermatome of umbilicus?

A

T10

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83
Q

What hormone promotes development of genitalia?

A

Oestrogen

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84
Q

What are the sources of oestrogen?

A

Ovaries (oestradiol)
Placenta (estriol)
Blood (via aromatase)

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85
Q

What are the sources of progesterone?

A

Corpus luteum
Placenta
Adrenal cortex

86
Q

Name all the functions of oestrogen? (8)

A
  1. Proliferation of endometrium
  2. Promotes development of genitalia
  3. Promotes growth of follicle
  4. Causes LH surge
  5. Responsible for female fat distribution
  6. Increases hepatic synthesis of transport proteins
  7. Upregulates oestrogen, progesterone and LH receptors
  8. Increases TBG levels §§
87
Q

Name all of the functions of progesterone?

A
  1. Maintenance of endometrium and pregnancy
  2. Thickens cervical mucous
  3. Decreases myometrial excitability
  4. Increases body temperature
  5. Responsible for spiral artey development
88
Q

What cells produce myelin in the CNS?

A

Oligodendroglia

Produce myelin in the CNS and are affected in MS

89
Q

What cells produce myelin in the PNS?

A

Schwann cells

Produce myelin in the CNs, are the cell type of acoustic neuromas, and affected in Guillain barre syndrome

90
Q

What nerve affected in vertigo?

A

CN VIII

91
Q

Efferent limb of the pupillary light reflex?

A

CN III

92
Q

What is the predominant finding in the final repolarisation of cardiac action potential?

A

Efflux of potassium

93
Q

What are the 5 phases of the cardiac action potential and their mechanisms?

A

0 Rapid depolarisation:
- Rapid Na+ influx

1 Early repolarisation:
- Efflux of potassium

2 Plateau:
- Slow influx of calcium

3 Final repolarisation:
- Efflux of potassium

4 Restoration of Na+/K+ ATPase

94
Q

How long is a cardiac action potential?

A

200ms

95
Q

Claw hand and hyperextended wrist after falling and catching themself with hand?

A

Lower trunk of the brachial plexus C8, T1

96
Q

What nerve supplies extensor pollicis longus nerve?

A

Radial nerve

97
Q

What action is directly caused by somatostatin?

A

Inhibits glucagon secretion

98
Q

Claw hand following medial epicondyle fracture?

A

Ulnar nerve

99
Q

What neural cells provide physical support?

A

Astrocytes

100
Q

Foot drop following fibular neck fracture?

A

Common peroneal nerve

101
Q

What hormone increases growth hormone secretion?

A

Ghrelin

102
Q

What controls corneal reflex

A

CN V and CN VII

103
Q

Describe aldosterone?

A

Released by the zona glomerulosa in response to raised angiotensin II, potassium and ACTH levels

Causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule

104
Q

Where is the majority of norepinephrine secreted from?

A

Adrenal medulla

105
Q

Afferent and efferent limbs of the gag reflex?

A
Afferent = CN IX 
Efferent = CN X
106
Q

Abducting arm following humeral neck fracture?

A

Axillary nerve

107
Q

What stimulates breast development? (Both initially and further hyperplasia during pregnancy)

A

Prolactin

108
Q

What does the ovarian ligament contain?

A

Nothing

109
Q

Hyperacucis?

A

Lesion of CN VII

110
Q

What foramina does maxillary nerve pass through?

A

Foramen rotundum

111
Q

Which nerve supplied adductor pollicis?

A

Ulnar nerve

112
Q

What does the ulnar nerve supply?

A

Adductor pollicis

Flexor carpi ulnaris

Intrinstic muscles of the hand except loaf

Medial 1 and 1/2 fingers

113
Q

What does radial nerve supply?

A

Extensors

Small areas between the dorsal aspect of 1st and 2nd metacarpals

114
Q

What does median nerve supply?

A

LOAF Muscles

Palmar aspect of lateral 3/12 fingers

115
Q

What are the LOAF muscles?

A

Lateral two lumbricals

Opponens pollicis

Abductor pollicis brevis

Flexor pollicis brevis

116
Q

What does somatostatin do to insulin?

A

Somatostatin increases insulin

117
Q

What contains the muscularis mucosae?

A

Mucosa

118
Q

Which part(s) of the duodenum are intraperitoneal?

A

The cap

119
Q

Dermatome of the middle finger and the palm of the hand?

A

C7

120
Q

What would be released in response to reduced renal perfusion?

A

Renin

121
Q

Patient cannot abduct thigh in response to anterior hip dislocation?

A

Obturator nerve

122
Q

Dermatome for xiphoid process?

A

T6

123
Q

What peritoneal ligament contains the tail of the pancreas?

A

Splenorenal ligament

124
Q

What does the hepatoduodenal ligament contain?

A

Portal triad
Hepatic artery
Hepatic portal vein
Common bile duct

125
Q

What does the hepatogastric ligament contain?

A

Right and left gastric arteries

126
Q

What does the mandibular nerve pass through?

A

Foramen ovale

127
Q

What inhibits insulin secretion?

A

Somatostain

128
Q

What stimulates aldosterone release?

A

Angiotensin II

129
Q

What re the branches of the aorta?

A
T12 - Coeliac trunk
L1 - Left renal artery 
L2 - Testicular or ovarian arteries 
L3 - Inferior mesenteric artery 
L4 - Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
130
Q

Which nerve supplies flexor carpi ulnaris?

A

Ulnar nerve

131
Q

Trendelenburg sign?

A

Inferior gluteal nerve

132
Q

What supplies:

Abductor pollicis brevis

Adductor pollicis

A

Abductor pollicis brevis - median nerve

Adductor pollicis - ulnar nerve

133
Q

What connects the ovaries to the uterus?

A

Ovarian ligament

134
Q

What connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall?

A

Suspensory ligament of the ovaries

135
Q

What ligament are the ovaries contained in?

A

The broad ligament

136
Q

What foramina does accessory nerve pass through?

A

Jugular foramen

137
Q

Dermatome for thumb and index finger?

A

C5, C6

138
Q

Loss of ability to plantar flex and invert foot?

A

Lesion of tibial nerve

139
Q

What level is bifurcation of the abdominal aorta?

A

L4

140
Q

Posterior half of the skull dermatome?

A

C2

141
Q

What nerve supplies biceps brachii?

A

Musculocutaneous nerve

142
Q

Inframammary fold?

A

T5

143
Q

Describe club cells?

A

Non cilliated dome shaped cells found in the bronchioles

144
Q

Dermatome of ring and little finger?

A

C8

145
Q

What is filtration fraction?

A

Glomerular filtration rate/renal plasma flow

146
Q

What spinal level does the inferior mesenteric artery leave the aorta?

A

L3

147
Q

What structure is formed from the umbilical vein?

A

Ligamentum teres

148
Q

What forms ligamentum venousum?

A

Ductus venosus

149
Q

Precursor of aldosterone?

A

Corticosterone

150
Q

What does the suspensory ligament of the ovaries contain?

A

The ovarian vessels

151
Q

Low collar shirt dermatome?

A

C4

152
Q

Effect of uretic stone causing obstruction?

A

Decreased GFR

No change in renal plasma flow

Decrease in filtration fraction

153
Q

What does increased GFR, no change renal plasma flow and increase in filtration fraction suggest?

A

Decreased plasma protein concentration

154
Q

What level does the azygous vein perforate the diaphragm?

A

T12

155
Q

Efferent limb of the lacrimaltion reflex?

A

CN VII

156
Q

Dermatome of inguinal ligament

A

L1

157
Q

What does the medial geniculate nucleus relay?

A

Auditory signals

158
Q

What does the lateral geniculate nucleus relay?

A

Visual signals

159
Q

What removes excess K+ in the CNS?

A

Astrocytes

160
Q

What does the cardinal ligament contain?

A

The uterine vessels

161
Q

What ligaments don’t contain anything?

A

Round, ovarian, uterosacral

162
Q

Examples of perfusion limited exchange?

A

Oxygen (normal conditions)
Nitrous oxide
Carbon dioxide

163
Q

Examples of diffusion limited exchange?

A

Oxygen (during strenuous exercise)
Oxygen (lung fibrosis)
Oxygen (emphysema)

164
Q

High turtle neck shirt dermatome?

A

C3

165
Q

Which nerve supplies extensor carpi radialis longus?

A

Radial nerve

166
Q

What spinal level does the coeliac trunk leave the aorta?

A

T12

167
Q

What cells secrete renin?

A

Juxtaglomerular cells

168
Q

What is the bulbis cordis the origin of?

A

Right ventricle and smooth parts of the left ventricle

169
Q

What is the zone of thick filaments that is not super imposed by thin filaments?

A

H Zone

170
Q

What is the A band?

A

The entire length of a single thick filament

171
Q

Filtration fraction is…..?

A

Typically around 20%

172
Q

What binds to the thin filament?

A

Myosin (thick filament)

173
Q

What does tropomyosin do?

A

Cover the myosin binding sites on the actin

174
Q

What structures are derived form the left horn of the sinus venousus?

A

Coronary artery

175
Q

What strucutures are derived from the telencephalon?

A

Basal ganglia

176
Q

What is the thalamus derived from?

A

Diencephalon

177
Q

With respect to phosphorylation, what enzyme is induced by insulin?

A

Glucokinase

178
Q

What structure is derived from the right sinus venous?

A

Smooth part of RA

179
Q

Lesion to which of the hypothalamic nuclei may result in hypothermia?

A

Posterior nucleus

180
Q

Lesion to which hypothalamic nucleus may result in hyperphagia?

A

Ventromedial nucleus

181
Q

What forms the cerebral aquaduct?

A

Mesencephalon

182
Q

What forms the inferior part of the fourth ventricle?

A

Mylencephalon

183
Q

What does glucokinase do?

A

When glucose levels are excessively high it helps to store glucose in the liver

184
Q

What is the origin of ductus arteriosus?

A

Ligamentum arteriosus

185
Q

What is excretion rate?

A

Urine flow rate X urine concentration

186
Q

What can creatine clearance be used to estimate?

A

GFR

187
Q

Direct precursor of oestrodiol?

A

Testosterone

188
Q

Structure derived from umbilical artery?

A

Medial umbilical ligaments

189
Q

Middle of the sarcomere cross linking myosin?

A

M line

190
Q

Lesion of which nucleus may result in anorexia?

A

Lateral nucleus

191
Q

Dermatome of nipples?

A

T4

192
Q

Where is majority of cortisol secreted from?

A

Zona fasciculata

193
Q

Zone of thin filaments not suprerimposed by thick filaments?

A

I band

194
Q

Filtered load?

A

GFR x Plasma concetration

195
Q

What indicates mitral stenosus?

A

Low volume pulse

196
Q

What indicates aortic stenosis?

A

Narrow pulse pressure

197
Q

Pain in the right illiac fossa may indicate?

A

Appendicitis

198
Q

What cells act as antigen presenting cells?

A
  • B cells
  • Macrophages
  • Dendritic cells
199
Q

Most common type of white blood cell?

A

Neutrophils

200
Q

What provides localised protection on mucous membranes?

A

IgA

201
Q

Origin of ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk?

A

Truncus arteriosus

202
Q

Renal blood flow?

A

Renal plasma flow / (1-haemocrit)

203
Q

What hypothalamic nuclei is associated with loss of normal sleep patterns?

A

Suprachiasmic nucleus

204
Q

Space between two adjacent Z lines?

A

Sarcomere

205
Q

What structures are derived from the primitive ventricle?

A

Left venticle

206
Q

What is derived from the alar plate?

A

Sensory neurones

207
Q

Sexual desire nucleus?

A

Septal nucleus

208
Q

Lesion to which nucleus may cause diabetes insipidus?

A

Supraoptic nucleus

209
Q

Origin of urachus?

A

Allantois

210
Q

What are motor neurones derived from?

A

Basal plate

211
Q

What is the primative atria the origin of?

A

Trabeculated parts of left and right atria