Part A: Patient assessment, monitoring, and management Flashcards
1
Q
- Which of the following may cause a patient to experience a syncopal episode?
.1- Anxiety
.2- Hunger
.3- Hypertensions
a- 1 only
b- 3 only
c- 1 and 2 only
d- 2 and 3 only
A
c- 1 and 2 only
2
Q
- All claustrophobic patients who are scheduled for MRI examinations should be:
a- Sedated
b- Forced to overcome their fear to complete the examination
c- Rescheduled for another day
d- Handled delicately so as to not compound their anxiety
A
d- Handled delicately so as to not compound their anxiety
2
Q
- Patients who should be monitored (with pulse oximetry) during MRI procedures are:
.1- Unresponsive and uncommunicative patients
.2- Sedated, psychiatric and pediatric patients
.3- Patients who have weak voices and/ or impaired hearing
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
A
d. 1, 2 and 3
3
Q
- Patients who have been sedated with diazepam should be monitored with:
a- Pulse oximetry
b- ECG gating
c- Peripheral gating
d- Verbal communication
A
a- Pulse oximetry
4
Q
- It is good practice for all patients who undergo MRI to be monitored.
a. Visually and/ or verbally
b. By ECG
c. By respiratory monitors
d. Not at all
A
a. Visually and/ or verbally
5
Q
- BEFORE the publication of the ‘contrast media update’ by the ACR in 2010, contraindications for using gadolinium included:
.1. Sickel cell crisis and hypertension
.2. Pregnancy and breast-feeding
.3. High BUN and creatine
.4. Low GFR
.5. Renal insufficiency and/ or acute renal injury
.6. None known
a. 6 only
b. 1, 2, and 3 only
c. 4 and 5 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
A
a. 6 only
6
Q
- AFTER the publication of the ‘contrast media update’ by the ACR in 2010, contraindications for using gadolinium included:
.1. Sickel cell crisis and hypertension
.2. Pregnancy and breast-feeding
.3. High BUN and creatine
.4. Low GFR
.5. Renal insufficiency and/ or acute renal injury
.6. None known
a. 6 only
b. 1, 2, and 3 only
c. 4 and 5 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
A
c. 4 and 5 only
7
Q
- Precautions for the use of gadolinium include:
.1. Sickle cell crisis and hypertension
.2. Pregnancy
.3. Low GFR
.4. Hemolytic anomalies and lactating mothers
.5. Prior contrast reactions and patients with a history of asthma or allergies
a. 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
A
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
8
Q
- The approved gadolinium contrast agents are currently indicated for:
.1. Intravenous injection for pediatric imaging
.2. Intravenous injection for abdominal imaging
.3. Intravenous injection for central nervous system (CNS) imaging
.4. Intra-articular injection for musculoskeletal imaging
a. 3 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
9
Q
- The patient who has too much insulin in their body is experiencing:
a. Diabetic coma
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Hypovolemia
A
c. Hypoglycemia
10
Q
- What is the correct order of administering basic life support?
a. Airway, breathing, circulation
b. Circulation, breathing, airway
c. Breathing, circulation, airway
d. Airway, circulation, breathing
A
a. Airway, breathing, circulation
11
Q
- If a patient, while recumbent on the MR couch, says that they feel ‘faint’, what action should the technologist take?
a. Sit the patient upright slowly
b. Contact the referring physician
c. Place the patient in the Fowler’s position
d. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position
A
d. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position
12
Q
- The proper method of treating contrast media extravasation is to:
a. Place a warm compress over the site and complete the contrast administration
b. Remove the needle, place a bandage over the injection site to stop bleeding, and choose another location to complete the contrast administration
c. Remove the needle, hold pressure on the vein until bleeding stops, then apply ice.
d. Stop the injection and wait for the fluid collection to disperse, then resume contrast administration.
A
c. Remove the needle, hold pressure on the vein until bleeding stops, then apply ice.
13
Q
- Which of the following may cause a loss of patency in an IV line?
a. Using the incorrect IV solution
b. Improper height of the IV solution
c. Poor circulation
d. Improper needle selection
A
b. Improper height of the IV solution
14
Q
- Deep veins are not used in venipuncture because:
a. They are too difficult to locate
b. Their tunica intima is much thicker
c. They are close to major arteries and nerves
d. There would be possible interference with the lymphatic system
A
c. They are close to major arteries and nerves
15
Q
- Which of the following can be used for multiple doses of the same drug?
a. Ampule
b. Vial
A
b. Vial
16
Q
- Reducing viscosity of contrast media can be accomplished by:
a. Warming the contrast media prior to administration
b. Cooling the contrast prior to administration
c. Shaking the container vigorously prior to administration
d. Storing the container in an area of low humidity
A
a. Warming the contrast media prior to administration
17
Q
- The stated gauge of the IV needle or catheter refers to its:
a. Length
b. Bevel angle
c. Diameter
d. Circumference
A
c. Diameter
18
Q
- Which blood test for renal function is sued in the calculation of eGFR (estimated glomerular filtration rate)?
a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
b. Hematocrit
c. Partial thromboplastin time
d. Serum creatinine
A
d. Serum creatinine
19
Q
- Which of the following blood tests would NOT be used to assess the patient’s risk of hemorrhaging during an invasive procedure (such as a biopsy)?
a. Prothrombin time (PT)
b. Hematocrit
c. International normalised ratio (INR)
d. Platelet count
A
b. Hematocrit
20
Q
- Which blood vessel has thickest tunica media?
a. Artery
b. Vein
c. Capillary
d. Lymphatic
A
a. Artery
21
Q
- A normal serum creatinine range is:
a. 0.2- 1.0mg/dL
b. 0.6 -1,5 mg/dL
c. 0.8 - 2.5 mg/dL
d. 1.2- 3.0 mg/dL
A
b. 0.6 -1,5 mg/dL
22
Q
- An eGFR of below 15 is indicative of:
a. Normal kidney function
b. A kidney infection
c. Polycystic kidney
d. A patient in need of dialysis
A
d. A patient in need of dialysis
23
Q
- Although ALL patients must be evaluated on a case by case basis, the ACR recommends that gadolinium should not be administered in patients with an eGFR of:
a. 50 and above
b. 30 and above
c. 30 and below
d. There is no relationship between eGFR and the administration of gadolinium contrast media
A
c. 30 and below
24
Q
- Which type of circulation is responsible for reoxygenation of the blood?
a. Pulmonary
b. Systemic
c. Nonsystemic
d. Portal
A
a. Pulmonary
25
Q
- Which of the layers of a blood vessel is made of fibrous, connective tissue?
a. Tunica adventitia
b. Tunica media
c. Tunica intima
d. Capillaries
A
a. Tunica adventitia
26
Q
- A normal range for blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is:
a. 0.6- 1.5 mg/ 100dL
b. 2.0 - 15.0 mg/ 100dL
c. 8.0- 20.0 mg/ 100dL
d. 25.0- 50.0 mg/ 100dL
A
c. 8.0- 20.0 mg/ 100dL
27
Q
- Which type of blood cell caries oxygenated hemoglobin?
a. Platelet
b. Erythrocyte
c. Thrombocyte
d. Leukocyte
A
b. Erythrocyte
28
Q
- Which of the following lab tests can be used as an indicator of dehydration?
a. BUN
b. PTT (partial thromboplastin time)
c. Serum potassium
d. Hematocrit
A
d. Hematocrit
29
Q
- A ______________ can be used to administer nutrition of long-term chemotherapy.
a. Peg tube
b. Chest tube
c. Venous catheter
d. J-tube
A
c. Venous catheter
30
Q
- The administration of IV (intravenous) injection gadolinium (Gd) contrast media is indicated for MRI during:
a. Pediatric imagig
b. Abdominal imaging
c. Brian and spine imaging
d. a, b and c
A
d. a, b and c
31
Q
- The percent (%) of patients who have ben ‘reported’ to have had reactions to contrast agents (gadolinium) in MRI is:
a. Less than 2%
b. 5%
c. 15%
d. 20%
A
a. Less than 2%
32
Q
- Patients who are at the ‘increased risk’ of reactions to gadolinium include:
.1. A history of asthma and/ or allergies
.2. Prior contrast reactions
.3. Hemolytic anomalies
.4. All patients
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A
b. 1 and 2 only
33
Q
- Patients who ‘have been reported’ to have had reactions to gadolinium include:
.1. A history of asthma and/ or allergies
.2. Prior contrast reactions
.3. Hemolytic anomalies
.4. All patients
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
34
Q
- Contrast agent reactions, such as flushing, hives, and nausea are called:
a. Psychosomatic
b. Cardiovascular
c. Anaphylactic
d. Nonsystemic
A
d. Nonsystemic
35
Q
- If you are determine that an adult patient needs CPR, what should be your first response?
a. Call for help
b. Begin cardiac compressions
c. Begin mouth to mouth
d. Begin the Heimlich maneuver
A
a. Call for help
36
Q
- When performing one-rescuer CPR on an adult, the rate of compressions to ventilations should be:
a. 5:2
b. 15:2
c. 15:1
d. 30:2
A
d. 30:2
37
Q
- What is the most severe from of convulsive seizures?
a. Grand mal
b. Petit mal
c. Epilpetic
d. Partial
A
a. Grand mal
38
Q
- If CPR is not started within ______ of cardiac arrest, there will be brain damage due to lack of oxygen.
a. 1-3 minutes
b. 4-6 minutes
c. 7-10 minutes
d. 15 minutes
A
a. 1-3 minutes
39
Q
- Which type of shock is caused by failure of the heart to pump enough blood to the vital organs?
a. Hypovolemic shock
b. Septic shock
c. Anaphylactic shock
d. Cardiogenic shock
A
d. Cardiogenic shock
40
Q
- When lifting a patient, what must on remember?
- Keep your back straight
- Keep your arms straight
- Keep your knees slightly bent
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
A
c. 1 and 3 only
41
Q
- Log rolling is a method of moving patients with a suspected:
a. Head injury
b. Vertebral column injury
c. Extremity fracture
d. Bowel obstruction
A
b. Vertebral column injury
42
Q
- The most common site(s) injured by technologists while caring for patients is (are) the:
a. Head
b. Arms and shoulder’s
c. Lumbosacral spine
d. Lower leg
A
c. Lumbosacral spine
43
Q
- During the movement and transfer of patents,. urinary catheter bags should be placed:
a. Below the level of the MR couch
b. At the foot and of the MR couch
c. Below the level of the urinary bladder
d. On the stretcher on the sheet with the patient
A
c. Below the level of the urinary bladder
44
Q
- When venipuncture is performed:
a. The technologists is not responsible for obtaining patient history because the exam was ordered by a physician.
b. The contrast agent should NEVER be flushed through the syringe, any tubing used, and the needle before injection
c. The contrast agent must be cooled to make it easier to inject
d. The contrast agent must ALWAYS be flushed through the syringe, any tubing used, and needle before injection to void the administration of air into the vein.
A
d. The contrast agent must ALWAYS be flushed through the syringe, any tubing used, and needle before injection to void the administration of air into the vein.
45
Q
- Which of the following may cause a patient to experience a syncopal episode?
.1. Hypertension
.2. Anxiety
.3. Infection
.4. Hunger
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 2 and 4 only
A
d. 2 and 4 only
46
Q
- The diabetic patient who has excessive insulin in their body is said to have:
a. Hypotension
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Hyperkalemia
A
c. Hypoglycemia
47
Q
- If a patient has a cardiac arrest during MR imaging, the technologist should:
a. Call a code and direct them to the scan room
b. Quench the magnet
c. Begin CPR while the patient remains within the MR scan room
d. Begin CPR while transferring the patient out of the scan room
A
d. Begin CPR while transferring the patient out of the scan room
48
Q
- During any emergency that occurs during MR imaging, the technologist should:
a. Call a code and direct the team to the scan room
b. Quench the magnet
c. Continue imaging and call the radiologist
d. Remove the patient from the MR scan room
A
d. Remove the patient from the MR scan room
49
Q
- A patient experiencing tachycardia will have a:
a. Slow respiratory rate
b. Rapid pulse rate
c. Low oxygen saturation reading
d. High blood pressure reading
A
b. Rapid pulse rate
50
Q
- What is the average pulse rate for an infant?
a. 40-60 beats per minute
b. 70-80 beats per minute
c. 80-100 beats per minute
d. 115-130 beats per minute
A
d. 115-130 beats per minute
51
Q
- A normal blood pressure for an adult is:
a. 80/ 120 mmHg
b. 120/ 80 mmHg
c. 250/ 120 mmHg
d. 120/ 250 mmHg
A
b. 120/ 80 mmHg
52
Q
- Which of the following blood pressure readings would indicate shock?
a. Diastolic pressure of 40 mmHg
b. Diastolic pressure of 90 mmHg
c. Systolic pressure of 100 mmHg
d. Systolic pressure of 160 mmHg
A
a. Diagnostic pressure of 40 mmHg
53
Q
- A patient receiving oxygen should NOT have temperature measured via the ____ route.
a. Axillary
b. Rectal
c. Oral
d. Tympanic
A
c. Oral
54
Q
- A patient with epistaxis has a(n):
a. Nose bleed
b. Ear infection
c. Slow pulse rate
d. Abscess
A
a. Nose bleed
55
Q
- Shock resulting from large loss of body fluid or blood is called:
a. Cardiogenic
b. Septic
c. Hypovolemic
d. Neurogenic
A
c. Hypovolemic
56
Q
- For and unconscious patient who has sustained a head injury, the main concern is:
a. Preventing additional hemorrhage
b. Keeping a patent airway
c. Maintaining a normal pulse rate
d. Maintaining adequate oxygenation
A
b. Keeping a patent airway
57
Q
- Geriatric patients likely exhibit all EXCEPT which of the following?
a. Changes in anatomic landmarks
b. Fragile skin
c. Decrease in intelligence
d. Difficulty with balance
A
c. Decrease in intelligence
58
Q
- A technologist may administer oxygen in an emergency situation. The most frequent rate used is:
a. 2L/min
b. 5L/min
c. 10L/min
d. 15L/min
A
a. 2L/min
59
Q
- The artery is typically used to check an adult’s pulse rate is the:
a. Apical
b. Carotid
c. Femoral
d. Radial
A
d. Radial
60
Q
- The pulse used to check for circulation during CPR in an adult is the:
a. Apical
b. Carotid
c. Femoral
d. Radial
A
b. Carotid
61
Q
- Which of the following conditions is common in a patient with COPD?
a. Bradycardia
b. Orthopnea
c. Dysphagia
d. Epistaxis
A
b. Orthopnea
62
Q
- In order to reduce the possibility of orthostatic hypotension, the technologist should:
a. Sit the patient up slowly from the recumbent position and allow sufficient time sitting before proceeding to standing up.
b. Provide the patient with something sweet to eat or drink to counteract excess insulin in the system.
c. Elevate the patient’s legs 60 degrees above the heart
d. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position and call for help
A
a. Sit the patient up slowly from the recumbent position and allow sufficient time sitting before proceeding to standing up.
63
Q
- Where would a ‘central line’ catheter be located?
a. Subclavian bein
b. Brachiocephalic artery
c. Median cubital vein
d. Superior vena cava
A
a. Subclavian bein
64
Q
- A patient with apraxia will have difficulty with:
a. Speaking
b. Balance
c. Dressing
d. Swallowing
A
c. Dressing
65
Q
- A patient with aphasia will have difficulty with all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Speaking
b. Reading
c. Dressing
d. Swallowing
A
c. Dressing
66
Q
- Severe hypoxia has a pulse oximetry reading of:
a. 95-100%
b. 91-94%
c. 86-90%
d. 85% and below
A
d. 85% and below
67
Q
- An adverse reaction or event caused by treatment by a healthcare professional is called:
a. Idiopathic
b. Nonsocomial
c. Iatrogenic
d. Anaphylactic
A
c. Iatrogenic
68
Q
- A normal pulse rate range for an adult is:
a. 40-60 bpm
b. 60-90 bpm
c. 80-100 bpm
d. 100-130 bpm
A
b. 60-90 bpm
69
Q
- Another term used for ‘fever’ is:
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Hypothermia
c. Febrile
d. Dyspnea
A
c. Febrile
70
Q
- A patient recovering from a seizure should be:
a. Placed in the recovery position (Sim’s)
b. Instructed to lie on their back
c. Administered emergency oxygen
d. Helped to move to a more comfortable area
A
a. Placed in the recovery position (Sim’s)
