Part 61 - Pilot Licences and Ratings Flashcards

Question

61.25 - Flight training and testing general requirements

Answer 1

(a) An applicant for a pilot licence or rating issued in accordance with this Part must provide— (1) an appropriate aircraft for the purpose of undertaking the required flight test; and (2) adequate and private facilities for briefing before and after the flight test. (b) Any flight test or dual flight instruction required under this Part must be carried out in an aircraft equipped with— (1) fully functioning dual flight controls; and (2) those instruments that are essential to the manoeuvres planned to be demonstrated during the flight and visible to both pilots without excessive parallax error; and (3) a shoulder harness or a lap and single diagonal shoulder belt for each flight crew seat; and (4) intercommunication equipment of an approved type. (c) A pilot may not accumulate instrument flight experience in VMC towards the required instrument flight time for the issue or recent experience requirements of an instrument rating unless— (1) fully functioning dual flight controls are installed in the aircraft; and (2) an acceptable means of simulating instrument flight is used by the pilot who is gaining instrument flight experience; and (3) a safety pilot, who holds all of the following qualifications, occupies a pilot control seat from which the safety pilot can clearly see ahead and to both sides of the aircraft: (i) a current pilot licence: (ii) an aircraft type rating for the aircraft type: (iii) if the aircraft is flying at night, a current instrument rating. (d) A pilot may not accumulate instrument flight experience in IMC towards the required instrument flight time for the issue or recent experience requirements of an instrument rating, unless— (1) the aircraft is approved for IFR flight; and (2) fully functioning dual flight controls are installed in the aircraft when 2 pilots are required to be carried; and (3) the pilot is— (i) the holder of a current instrument rating for the appropriate category of aircraft; or (ii) undergoing instrument flight instruction under the supervision of a pilot-in-command who holds an appropriate current flight instructor rating and a current instrument rating for the appropriate category of aircraft.

Answer 2

A flight examiner must be pilot-in-command of an aircraft under the following circumstances: (1) during a flight test for the initial issue of an instrument rating: (2) when the flight examiner considers this is necessary in the interests of safety.

Answer 3

(a) A student pilot and the holder of a pilot licence issued in accordance with this Part must maintain an accurate and up-to-date logbook containing— (1) the pilot’s name, details of aircraft type ratings, and certifications, authorisations and ratings held; and (2) a record (including the details specified in paragraph (b)) for— (i) every flight during which the pilot acted as a flight crew member of an aircraft; and (ii) every simulated flight performed for the purpose of crediting time or completing currency requirements for a pilot licence or rating specified in this Part; and (3) a record of each flight test, flight review, competency demonstration and flight crew competency check, including— (i) the purpose of the flight; and (ii) the date of the flight; and (iii) the expiry date of the flight test, flight review, competency demonstration or check; and (iv) the name, client number, and signature of the person conducting the flight test, flight review, competency demonstration, or check. (b) The following flight and instrument flight details must be recorded in the pilot’s logbook: (1) the date of the flight: (2) for flight in an aircraft,— (i) the aircraft category, type, and registration mark of the aircraft; and (ii) the flight time; and (iii) the simulated and actual instrument flight time; and (iv) any type of training, including dual instruction and command practice; and (v) if appropriate, the name of the flight instructor or safety pilot: (3) for flight in a synthetic flight trainer,⎯ (i) the details of the synthetic flight trainer; and (ii) the instrument ground time; and (iii) any other ground time: (4) the function of the pilot as any of the following: (i) pilot-in-command (PIC): (ii) pilot-in-command under supervision (PIC/US) but only to meet the requirements of rule 135.505: (iii) co-pilot: (iv) student: (5) the purpose of the flight, including the place of departure, any intermediate landing, and the place of arrival: (6) whether the flight was conducted during the day or night: (7) for a flight under IFR, the number and type of instrument approach procedures flown: (8) for a training flight, details of the training exercise: (9) for a flight in a glider, the method of launch for the flight: (10) for a flight in a balloon, the method or type of inflation used for the flight. (c) The logbook required in paragraph (a) must— (1) be an approved bound book with the details entered in indelible ink; and (2) list each flight record⎯ (i) as a separate entry; or (ii) on a computer generated flight record inserted permanently into the logbook; or (iii) for a series of flights on the same day, as a separate entry summarising the total fight time for the series of flights if the purpose of the flights, including the place of departure, any intermediate landing, and the place of arrival are the same; and (3) be certified at the bottom of each page by the pilot to the effect that every entry is correct; and (4) be retained permanently by the pilot licence holder, unless the pilot licence is revoked in accordance with the Act, in which case the log book must be retained for a period of at least 12 months from the date of revocation. (d) If a computer-generated report is inserted into a logbook under paragraph (c)(2)(ii), the pilot must make a written logbook entry summarising the total flight time of the flights listed in the report in respect of each function under paragraph (b). (e) An incorrect entry in a logbook may be altered only by putting a line through the entry and by adding the correct information either beside the entry or on a new line. (f) Before a pilot submits his or her logbook to the Director for any reason, the pilot must— (1) on each page, total each column of entries; and (2) in the spaces provided, enter his or her total flight experience; and (3) below the last entry, sign to certify the correctness of the entries. (g) Every entry in a pilot’s logbook must be made within 7 days after the completion of the flight to be recorded except in the case of flight on an international air transport operation, the entry must be made within 14 days of the flight. If a pilot is engaged in an operation away from the base where the logbook is normally kept, the entry in the logbook must be made within 48 hours after return to base.

Answer 4

(a) The holder of a current pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot in an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, is entitled to be credited with not more than 50% of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time experience required for an airline transport pilot licence. (b) The holder of a commercial pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot on an air transport operation in an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, is entitled to be credited with command practice flight time experience for the flight time during which the co-pilot performs the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command under the supervision of a pilot-in-command designated for the purpose by the operator, but only if— (1) the co-pilot is responsible for checking the accuracy of the proposed flight plan and the load manifest for the flight, including the computation of fuel; and (2) the co-pilot ensures that each crew member has carried out all the applicable checks during the following phases of the flight, and in accordance with the check system established by the operator in the operations manual or other relevant documents: (i) before take-off: (ii) on take-off: (iii) in flight: (iv) on landing: (v) in any emergency; and (3) during the flight the co-pilot carries out all the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command so far as is practical from the co-pilot flight station, except that for a flight of more than 6 hours the co-pilot does not need to carry out all the functions for the full duration of the flight; and (4) in the case of operations conducted by automatic means, the co-pilot makes all decisions relating to the use of the flight and ground systems involved; and (5) the co-pilot ensures that all problems arising from meteorological conditions, communications and air traffic control procedures are resolved; and (6) the pilot-in-command designated to supervise the co-pilot has certified an appropriate entry in the co-pilot's logbook, or a permanent record of the flight has been made by the operator. (c) A pilot who manipulates the flight controls of an aircraft under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions solely by reference to instruments and without external reference points is entitled to be credited with the instrument flight time acquired in this way towards the total instrument flight time experience required for— (1) a higher grade of pilot licence; or (2) an instrument rating; or (3) the recent experience requirement of an instrument rating already held. (d) A pilot-in-command, when supervising a co-pilot manipulating the flight controls of a multi-pilot aircraft under actual instrument meteorological conditions, is entitled to be credited with the instrument flight time. (e) A flight instructor, when supervising a pilot manipulating the flight controls of an aircraft under actual instrument meteorological conditions, is entitled to be credited with the instrument flight time. (f) A flight examiner is entitled to be credited with pilot-in-command flight time while carrying out a flight test. (g) A Category A or B flight instructor is entitled to be credited with pilot-in-command flight time while carrying out a commercial pilot licence cross country flight test. (h) A pilot may not credit instrument, cross country or night flight time, or any combination simultaneously for the purposes of meeting the experience requirement for a higher licence type or rating. (i) A pilot may not credit flight time recorded as pilot-in-command under supervision (PIC/US) towards the flight time experience requirements for an airline transport pilot licence. (j) A pilot who is designated as pilot-in-command for the purpose of rule 135.505(b)(3) to supervise a pilot undergoing consolidation of operating experience may not credit the pilot-in-command flight time towards the flight time experience requirements for an airline transport pilot licence if the supervision is carried out in a single-pilot aircraft under rule 135.505(c)(2).

Answer 5

(a) An applicant for the issue of a pilot licence or rating or renewal of a rating is entitled to be credited with the time during which the applicant is under the supervision of an appropriately qualified instructor in an approved synthetic flight trainer, but only if the instructor certifies the time in the pilot's logbook. (b) If the time in paragraph (a) is instrument time, it must be logged as instrument ground time.

Answer 6

(a) A person who holds a pilot licence must not exercise the privileges of the licence unless— (1) the person— (i) in the case of a private pilot licence, holds at least a current class 2 medical certificate issued under the Act; or (ia) in the case of a private pilot licence, holds a current medical certificate issued in accordance with section 44(1) of the Land Transport (Driver Licensing) Rule 1999 that is applicable for a class 2, 3, 4 or 5 driver licence with passenger endorsement which – (A) was issued within the previous 5 years; or (B) if the person is 40 years of age or older, was issued within the previous 2 years; or (ii) in the case of a commercial pilot licence and an airline transport pilot licence, holds a current class 1 medical certificate issued under the Act; and (iii) is complying with all the conditions, restrictions and endorsements on the medical certificate; or (2) if the person has been issued a private pilot licence by the Director in accordance with rule 61.153(b) on the basis of a foreign pilot licence, the person— (i) holds a medical certificate applying to the foreign pilot licence that the Director relied on to issue the private pilot licence and the medical certificate applying to that foreign pilot licence has not expired; and (ii) is complying with all the conditions, restrictions, and endorsements on the medical certificate. (b) Revoked (c) A person who holds a validation permit for a foreign pilot licence must not exercise the privileges of that permit unless the person— (1) holds a current medical certificate that is associated with the foreign pilot licence for which the validation permit is issued; and (2) is complying with all the conditions, restrictions and endorsements on the medical certificate. (d) A person who is required to hold a medical certificate referred to in paragraph (a)(1)(ia) must provide the Director with a copy of the medical certificate within 7 days of the renewal of the certificate.

Answer 7

If a holder of a private pilot licence referred to in rule 61.35(a)(1)(ia) is aware of, or has reasonable grounds to suspect, any change in his or her medical condition or the existence of any previously undetected medical condition that may interfere with the safe exercise of the privileges of the licence, the licence holder must not exercise the privileges of the licence unless a medical practitioner confirms the licence holder is fit to hold a medical certificate referred to in rule 61.35(a)(1)(ia).

Answer 8

(a) Airline transport pilot: A person who holds an airline transport pilot licence must not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft on an air operation that requires the pilot-in-command to hold an airline transport pilot licence unless, within the 90 days immediately preceding the flight— (1) the person has— (i) carried out (as pilot-in-command of an aircraft or an approved synthetic flight trainer of the same type) not less than 3 take-offs and 3 landings; or (ii) satisfactorily demonstrated to an appropriately authorised flight examiner continued competency in an aircraft of the same type; or (iii) satisfactorily demonstrated to an appropriately qualified flight instructor competence in take-off and landing manoeuvres during the day in an aircraft of the same type; but (2) one of the landings may be a monitored landing using the automatic landing facility of the autopilot. (b) Commercial pilot (aeroplane or helicopter) or private pilot – day flight: A holder of a commercial pilot licence must not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft on an air operation during the day, and a person who holds a commercial pilot licence or a private pilot licence must not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying a passenger during the day unless, within the 90 days immediately preceding the flight the person has— (1) carried out (as pilot-in-command of an aircraft or an approved synthetic flight trainer of the same type) not less than 3 take-offs and 3 landings during the day; or (2) satisfactorily demonstrated to an appropriately qualified Category A or B flight instructor competence in take-off and landing manoeuvres during the day in an aircraft of the same type; or (3) satisfactorily demonstrated competence for the issue of the appropriate pilot licence under the Act and this Part, in an aircraft of the same type. (c) Commercial pilot or private pilot – night flight: A holder of a commercial pilot licence must not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft on an air operation at night, and a person who holds a commercial pilot licence or a private pilot licence must not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying a passenger at night unless, within the 90 days immediately preceding the flight the person has— (1) carried out (as pilot-in-command of an aircraft or an approved synthetic flight trainer of the same type) not less than 3 take-offs and 3 landings during the night; or (2) satisfactorily demonstrated to an appropriately qualified Category A or B flight instructor competence in take-off and landing manoeuvres during the night in an aircraft of the same type. (ca) Commercial pilot (balloon): A holder of a commercial pilot licence (balloon) must not act as pilot-in-command of a balloon carrying a passenger unless, within the 90 days immediately preceding the flight the person has— (1) carried out, as pilot-in-command, not less than 3 take-offs and 3 landings during the day, each time ascending to a height of at least 500 feet; or (2) satisfactorily demonstrated to an appropriately qualified person acceptable to the Director, competence in take-off and landing manoeuvres in a balloon of the same type; or (3) satisfactorily demonstrated competence for the issue of the commercial pilot licence under the Act and this Part, in a balloon of the same type. (d) To comply with paragraphs (a)(1), (b)(1), or (c)(1), a helicopter pilot must fly transition circuits between the required take-offs and landings. (e) Revoked (f) To comply with paragraph (b)(1), a glider pilot must perform 3 launches of the appropriate type. (g) For the purposes of accumulating the 3 take-offs and 3 landings required in paragraphs (b)(1) and (c)(1), the holder of a current Category A flight instructor rating may count take-offs and landings whether during the day or night. (h) A flight instructor must meet the recent flight experience requirements during the day or night, as appropriate, before giving flight instruction. (i) If the holder of a pilot licence issued under the Act and this Part has not met the requirements of rule 61.39 for a period of 5 years or more, the privileges of that pilot licence may not be exercised again unless,— (1) the holder of the pilot licence passes an approved air law examination and meets the appropriate currency requirements of the licence (except if the holder has a current pilot licence for a different category of aircraft and meets the requirements of rule 61.39(a) for that category); or (2) in the case of an airline transport pilot licence, the holder of the pilot licence completes the appropriate operational competency checks required in Parts 121, 125, or 135 whichever is applicable.

Answer 9

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), the holder of a pilot licence issued by the Director under the Act and this Part must not exercise the privileges of the pilot licence for longer than 24 months from the date of the issue flight test for the pilot licence unless the holder— (1) has successfully completed a biennial flight review under paragraph (c) within the previous 24 months; or (2) for a glider pilot licence, has successfully completed a biennial flight review conducted by a gliding organisation within the previous 24 months. (b) The holder of a pilot licence issued by the Director under the Act and this Part is not required to complete a biennial flight review required by paragraph (a) if the holder— (1) meets the flight crew competency check requirements prescribed in Part 115, or Parts 119 and 121, 125 or 135 that are applicable to the holder’s pilot licence; or (2) meets the agricultural currency requirements prescribed in rule 61.707; or (3) holds a current Category A, B, or C flight instructor rating. (c) A biennial flight review must— (1) be conducted by an appropriately qualified flight instructor; and (2) consist of flight instruction to review those manoeuvres and procedures applicable to the pilot licence privileges the holder wishes to exercise; and (3) be in accordance with standards acceptable to the Director. (d) A flight instructor conducting a biennial flight review must— (1) enter an appropriate record in the pilot’s logbook immediately after the flight review has been satisfactorily completed and include the following information: (i) the pilot licence type to which the flight review relates: (ii) the date on which the flight review was completed: (iii) the date on which the flight review ceases to be effective: (iv) the name, flight instructor category, and CAA client number of the person conducting the flight review; and (2) complete the appropriate CAA Biennial Flight Review Form and submit a copy of the completed form to the Director and to the pilot. (e) A pilot who successfully completes the biennial flight review required by paragraph (a) within 60 days before the date on which it is required is deemed to have completed the biennial flight review on the required date.

Answer 10

(a) The holder of an airline transport pilot licence or a commercial pilot licence issued under the Act and this Part who does not hold a current class 1 medical certificate issued under the Act but who holds a current class 2 medical certificate issued under the Act, may exercise the privileges and is subject to the limitations of, a private pilot licence if the pilot meets the currency requirements for the private pilot licence type. (aa) The holder of an airline transport pilot licence, a commercial pilot licence, or a private pilot licence issued under the Act and this Part who does not hold a current class 1 or class 2 medical certificate issued under the Act, but holds a current medical certificate referred to in rule 61.35(a)(1)(ia), may exercise the privileges and is subject to the limitations of, a private pilot licence referred to in rule 61.155, if the pilot meets the currency requirements for the private pilot licence. (b) The holder of a pilot licence issued under the Act and this Part who does not meet the currency requirements of rule 61.207 or rule 61.257 for the pilot licence type, but who meets the currency requirements for a lower pilot licence, may exercise the privileges of the lower pilot licence.

Answer 11

(a) The Director may, by notice in writing, require the holder of a pilot licence or a rating that is issued in accordance with this Part to undertake an examination or test if the Director believes on reasonable grounds that the privileges of the licence or rating the holder is exercising are being carried out in an incompetent manner. (b) Any examination or test that the Director may require under paragraph (a) may consist of such part or parts of the examinations or tests that are required under this Part, for the particular pilot licence or rating that the holder is exercising. (c) A holder of a pilot licence or rating that is issued in accordance with this Part must— (1) undertake the examination or test that the Director may require under paragraph (a); and (2) undertake the examination or test within the period set by the Director for completing the examination or test.

Answer 12

(a) To be eligible for an aircraft type rating, a person must— 61.53 (1) hold a current pilot licence for the appropriate category of aircraft; and 61.53 (2) have conversion instruction flight experience acceptable to the Director; and 61.53 (3) in the case of a turbine powered aircraft, have passed an approved basic turbine knowledge examination; and 61.53 (4) demonstrate to an appropriately qualified flight instructor a satisfactory technical knowledge of the aircraft type for which the rating is required; and 61.53 (5) demonstrate to an appropriately qualified flight instructor in a type competency demonstration the ability to perform competently all normal, abnormal, and emergency manoeuvres appropriate to the aircraft type for which the rating is required; and 61.53 (6) if applying for an aircraft type rating for an aircraft exceeding 5700 kg MCTOW or for a multi-engine helicopter,— (i) have completed an approved course of technical training on the aircraft for which the aircraft type rating is required; and (ii) have passed an approved written examination in the normal, abnormal and emergency procedures for the operation of the aircraft's systems and in the aircraft's performance, weight and balance; and 61.53 (7) if applying for an aircraft type rating for a single-engine helicopter not exceeding 5700 kg MCTOW, have passed an approved written examination in the normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures for the operation of the helicopter's systems and in the helicopter's performance, weight and balance. However, in the case of a helicopter of not greater than 1500 kg MCTOW, an oral examination is acceptable.

Answer 13

(a) To be eligible for an aircraft type rating, a person must— 61.53 (1) hold a current pilot licence for the appropriate category of aircraft; and 61.53 (2) have conversion instruction flight experience acceptable to the Director; and 61.53 (3) in the case of a turbine powered aircraft, have passed an approved basic turbine knowledge examination; and 61.53 (4) demonstrate to an appropriately qualified flight instructor a satisfactory technical knowledge of the aircraft type for which the rating is required; and 61.53 (5) demonstrate to an appropriately qualified flight instructor in a type competency demonstration the ability to perform competently all normal, abnormal, and emergency manoeuvres appropriate to the aircraft type for which the rating is required; and 61.53 (6) if applying for an aircraft type rating for an aircraft exceeding 5700 kg MCTOW or for a multi-engine helicopter,— (i) have completed an approved course of technical training on the aircraft for which the aircraft type rating is required; and (ii) have passed an approved written examination in the normal, abnormal and emergency procedures for the operation of the aircraft's systems and in the aircraft's performance, weight and balance; and 61.53 (7) if applying for an aircraft type rating for a single-engine helicopter not exceeding 5700 kg MCTOW, have passed an approved written examination in the normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures for the operation of the helicopter's systems and in the helicopter's performance, weight and balance. However, in the case of a helicopter of not greater than 1500 kg MCTOW, an oral examination is acceptable.

Answer 14

The Director may authorise a holder of a current flight instructor rating issued in accordance with this Part to act as a pilot or pilot-in-command of an aircraft for which the instructor does not hold an aircraft type rating. The Director may impose conditions on the authorisation as the Director considers necessary in the interests of aviation safety.

Answer 15

This Subpart prescribes the requirements and limitations for a person who acts as a pilot of an aircraft (other than a microlight aircraft, hang glider, glider, powered glider or balloon) while the person does not hold a current pilot licence issued under this Part.

Answer 16

(a) A person who does not hold a current pilot licence issued or validated in accordance with this Part must not manipulate the controls of an aircraft unless the person is— (1) receiving dual flight instruction from an appropriately qualified flight instructor who occupies a pilot seat; or (2) acting as a pilot in command in accordance with rule 61.105. (b) A person receiving dual flight instruction under paragraph (a)(1) may log those hours as dual flight time.

Answer 17

(a) A person who does not hold a current pilot licence issued or validated under this Part must not fly an aircraft solo unless— (1) the person is at least 16 years of age; and (2) the person holds— (i) at least a current class 2 medical certificate issued by the Director under the Act; or (ii) a medical certificate, issued under rule 44(1) of the Land Transport (Driver Licensing) Rule 1999, that is applicable for a Class 2, 3, 4 or 5 driver licence with passenger endorsement which— (A) was issued within the previous 5 years; or (B) if the person is 40 years of age or older, was issued within the previous 24 months; and (3) the person is complying with all the conditions, restrictions and endorsements on the medical certificate; and (4) the person has sufficient ability in reading, speaking, understanding and communicating in the English language to enable them to adequately carry out the responsibilities of a pilot-in-command of an aircraft; and (5) the flight is authorised by the holder of a current Category A, B, or C flight instructor rating, except for a first solo flight by day or by night which must be authorised by the holder of a Category A or B flight instructor rating; and (6) except as provided in paragraph (c), the holder of a current Category A or B flight instructor rating has certified in the person's pilot’s logbook that they have received instruction and demonstrated competence in the following: (i) preparation for flight; (ii) starting and run-up procedures; (iii) taxiing; (iv) straight and level flight; (v) climbing and descending; (vi) level, climbing and descending turns; (vii) take-off, circuit and landing in that type of aircraft; (viii) practical flight radiotelephony; (ix) go around procedures; (x) in the case of an aeroplane, stall recognition and recovery in that aeroplane type; (xi) in the case of an aeroplane, emergency procedures in the event of engine failure during and after take-off; (xii) in the case of a helicopter, hovering upwind, downwind, and crosswind; (xiii) in the case of a helicopter, emergency procedures, (including autorotative approach and landing) in that type of helicopter; and (7) the person has received dual instruction within the last 5 hours of flight experience unless otherwise authorised by the holder of a current Category A or B flight instructor rating; and (8) the person has had piloting experience in appropriate aircraft within the immediately preceding 30 days; and (9) if the flight is a solo cross country flight— (i) the flight is authorised by the holder of a current Category A or B flight instructor rating; and (ii) the person holds a valid written examination credit for a private pilot licence; and (10) if applicable, that the person has complied with all the requirements of a notice issued under Subpart I. (b) The flight instructor who authorises the solo flight specified in paragraph (a)(5) must monitor the actions of the pilot during the solo flight. (c) In the case of a first solo flight by day, the certification in the person’s pilot’s logbook required under paragraph (a)(5) may be made after the completion of the first solo flight if the flight instructor is satisfied that all the requirements in paragraph (a)(6) have been met.

Answer 18

(a) A person who does not hold a current pilot licence issued in accordance with this Part must not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft— 61.107 (1) for remuneration; or 61.107 (2) if the aircraft is being operated for hire or reward; or 61.107 (3) on an international flight; or 61.107 (4) if any other person is being carried on the aircraft other than a flight examiner or flight instructor. (b) In addition to paragraph (a), a person who holds a medical certificate under rule 61.105(a)(2)(ii) must not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft operating— (1) at night; or (2) into or out of a controlled aerodrome unless the licence holder has provided the Director with evidence of a successful colour vision screening test that is acceptable to the Director; or (3) over a congested area of a city or town, except for the purpose of take-off and landing.

Answer 19

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c), to be eligible for the issue of a private pilot licence a person must— (1) be at least 17 years of age; and (2) hold — (i) at least a current class 2 medical certificate issued under the Act; or (ii) a current medical certificate referred to in rule 61.35(a)(1)(ia); and (3) have the minimum of— (i) 50 hours flight time experience as a pilot in the appropriate category of aircraft comprising solo flight time, dual flight time, instrument time, and cross-country flight time acceptable to the Director; or (ii) if the person is not seeking to exercise private pilot privileges on a cross-country flight, 40 hours flight time experience as a pilot in the appropriate category of aircraft comprising solo flight time, instrument time, and dual flight time acceptable to the Director; and (4) if the person seeks to exercise private pilot privileges during the night, have night flight experience acceptable to the Director and hold the medical certificate referred to in paragraph (2)(i); and (5) if the person seeks to exercise private pilot (helicopter) privileges in the carriage of sling loads, have flight training on the carriage of sling loads acceptable to the Director; and (6) have a valid written examination credit, or approved equivalent, that covers the following private pilot licence subject areas: (i) air law; (ii) air navigation and flight planning; (iii) meteorology; (iv) aircraft technical knowledge (Aeroplane or Helicopter), as appropriate; (v) human factors; (vi) flight radiotelephony; and (7) have successfully demonstrated the following to a flight examiner in a flight test: (i) knowledge in the ground examination subjects specified in paragraph (6), including those detailed in the examination knowledge deficiency reports; (ii) knowledge of the privileges and limitations of a private pilot licence; (iii) technical and operational knowledge relevant to the aircraft type to be used in the flight test; (iv) competence to operate the aircraft within its performance capabilities and limitations in accordance with the aircraft flight manual in all normal, abnormal, and emergency conditions and procedures while exercising appropriate levels of judgement and command; (v) competence in radiotelephony (RTF) procedures and phraseology; (vi) control of the aircraft at all times in a manner that ensures the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never in doubt; and (8) if applicable, comply with all the requirements of a notice issued under Subpart I. (b) Under section 9 of the Act, a person who holds a current pilot licence and associated medical certificate issued by an ICAO Contracting State may have the licence and medical certificate recognised by the Director for the purpose of the Director issuing a private pilot licence to the person, for the same category of aircraft. (c) A person who holds a current glider pilot certificate issued by a gliding organisation under delegated authority from the Director is eligible for the issue of a private pilot licence (Glider) if the person— (1) is at least 17 years of age; and (2) holds a flight radiotelephony examination credit; and (3) holds at least a current class 2 medical certificate issued under the Act. (d) Qualifications held by a member of the New Zealand Defence Force who is in current flying practice as a first or second pilot may be accepted by the Director as meeting the requirements in— (1) paragraph (a)(6), if the person has passed the appropriate air law examination in the 5 years before applying for the issue of the private pilot licence; and (2) paragraph (a)(7).

Answer 20

a) Subject to paragraphs (b) and (bb), the holder of a current private pilot licence may— (1) act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft of the category for which the pilot licence is granted and for which the pilot holds an aircraft type rating, and may carry passengers in the aircraft; and (2) act as a co-pilot of an aircraft of the category for which the pilot licence is granted and for which the pilot holds an aircraft type rating, and which is required to be operated with a co-pilot. (b) The holder of a private pilot licence must not act as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot of an aircraft— (1) for remuneration; or (2) if the aircraft is being operated for hire or reward; or (3) if the aircraft is— (i) being operated at night; or (ii) being operated on a cross country flight; or (iii) a helicopter carrying a sling load— unless an appropriately qualified flight instructor has certified in the holder's logbook that the holder has satisfactorily completed the flight training required to perform that activity; or (4) if applicable, unless the holder has complied with all the requirements of a notice issued under Subpart I. (bb) The holder of a private pilot licence who only holds a current medical certificate referred to in rule 61.35(a)(1)(ia) must not act as pilot-in-command or co-pilot – (1) of any aircraft with a MCTOW exceeding 2, 730 kg: (2) of any pressurised aircraft exceeding 25, 000 feet AMSL: (3) of an aircraft – (i) operating outside of New Zealand, unless a foreign country permits the holder of the private pilot licence to operate in that country: (ii) operating under IFR: (iii) operating into or out of a controlled aerodrome unless the holder maintains radio contact with the appropriate ATS unit at all times: (iv) performing an agricultural aircraft operation: (v) performing a banner tow operation below 500 feet AGL: (vi) performing a drogue tow operation below 500 feet AGL: (vii) performing a parachute drop operation exceeding 10, 000 feet AMSL: (viii) while exercising the privileges of an aerobatics rating: (ix) despite paragraph (a)(1), carrying more than 5 passengers; (x) that is being operated at night exceeding 25 nm of a lit aerodrome. (bd) Despite paragraph (bb)(3)(iii), the holder of a private pilot licence who only holds a current medical certificate referred to in rule 61.35(a)(1)(ia) is not required to have radio contact with the appropriate ATS unit at all times if the person has already successfully passed a colour deficiency screening test that is acceptable to the Director, and the flight has been approved by the ATS Unit. (bf) Despite paragraphs (a)(1) and (bb)(3)(ix), the holder of a private pilot licence who only holds a medical certificate referred to in rule 61.35(a)(1)(ia) must not carry a passenger while performing an aerobatic manoeuvre. (c) Despite paragraph (b)(2), the holder of a current private pilot licence may act, but not for remuneration, as pilot-in-command or as a co-pilot of an aircraft that is operated for hire or reward to tow a glider in flight, but only if the operation is under the direct control of a gliding organisation, or under the authority of an adventure aviation operator certificate issued by the Director under the Act and Part 115.

Answer 21

A holder of a private pilot licence is required to comply with the requirements of rules 61.35 (Medical requirements), 61.37 (Recent flight experience) and 61.39 (Biennial flight review) before exercising the privileges of the holder’s private pilot licence.

Answer 22

(a) A holder of a valid recreational pilot licence for an aeroplane or a helicopter that was issued under the Act and this Part immediately before 5 April 2021– (1) is deemed to have been issued a private pilot licence referred to in rule 61.35(a)(1)(ia); and (2) is deemed to hold a medical certificate referred to in rule 61.35(a)(1)(ia). (b) The holder of a deemed private pilot licence— (1) may exercise the privileges prescribed for the private pilot licence; and (2) must comply with the limitations and meet the currency requirements for the private pilot licence.

Answer 23

(a) After complying with rule 61.367, the Director may issue a notice under this Subpart in relation to the operation and use of an aircraft for the following— (1) the training required before a person can manipulate the controls or fly an aircraft solo in a particular aircraft type: (2) a person performing a particular operation or aviation activity in an aircraft: (3) the nature of training specified in paragraph (1) including minimum training, training syllabi and flight hours: (4) the requirements for dual instruction, including the nature of dual instruction: (5) the requirements for recording the required training in the pilot logbook: (6) the person who provides training specified in paragraph (1): (7) the eligibility and other requirements for flight instructors to conduct the training specified in paragraph (1): (8) the eligibility and other requirements for flight examiners to assess the training specified in paragraph (1). (b) If a pilot with an existing type rating for an aircraft is required to undergo further instruction, training or assessment in relation to the type rating, the pilot cannot exercise the privileges of that type rating until the pilot has complied with the requirements specified in the notice. (c) Any person specified in a notice referred to in paragraph (a) as having to comply with a requirement in the notice must comply with that requirement.

Answer 24

Before issuing or amending a notice referred to in rule 61.365, the Director must— (1) conduct a safety review to assess the risk to aviation safety of the operation of an aircraft giving rise to particular safety concerns by taking into account— (i) relevant safety information concerning the operation of a particular aircraft type or the operation of aircraft in particular conditions; and (ii) information about how ICAO or other ICAO Contracting States are responding to the risk; and (iii) any other information that the Director considers may be relevant; and (2) consult publicly by publishing the initial or amended notice on the CAA website; and (3) consider— (i) if the aircraft manufacturer or other party can mitigate or eliminate any identified risk to aviation safety; and (ii) whether, if the actions identified under paragraph (i) are taken, the risks to aviation safety will be managed to a level the Director considers appropriate; and (4) determine, after conducting the safety review, if requirements in a notice should be issued because— (i) there is a significant risk to aviation safety regarding the make and model of the aircraft, including the operation of the aircraft in particular conditions; and (ii) the risk may be managed by the pilot of the aircraft undergoing instruction, training or assessment additional to those required under this Part before a student pilot is authorised to manipulate the controls of the aircraft or make a solo flight, or a pilot licence is endorsed with a type rating, or a pilot with an existing licence or type rating can fly the aircraft.

Answer 25

The Director must, as soon as practicable after issuing or amending or revoking a notice referred to in rule 61.365, publish on the CAA website— (1) the notice; and (2) the reasons for the notice.

Answer 26

(a) A notice made under rule 61.365 comes into force on the date specified by the Director. (b) In determining the date of a notice, the Director must provide reasonable time for affected parties to be made aware of the notice before it comes into force.

Answer 27

(a) The Director may amend a notice made under rule 61.365 at any time. (b) Rules 61.367, 61.369 and 61.371, with the necessary modifications, apply to any amendment. (c) Despite paragraphs (a), and (b), rules 61.367 and 61.371(b) do not apply to any amendment or correction that is minor and non-controversial.

Answer 28

The Director may revoke a notice made under rule 61.365 at any time if the Director is satisfied that rule 61.367 is no longer necessary after having consulted publicly.

Answer 29

(a) The Robinson safety awareness training conditions first issued under section 21 of the Act on 29 October 2015 and last amended on 28 June 2017 are deemed to be requirements made under rule 61.365(a) and to have met the requirements of rule 61.367. (b) The requirements referred to in paragraph (a) continue in force despite the expiry of the warrant under section 21 of the Act, until amended, or revoked and replaced under this Subpart.

Answer 30

(a) To be eligible for an aerobatic flight rating a pilot must— (1) have successfully completed an aerobatics ground course conducted under the authority of— (i) an aviation training organisation certificate issued under the Act and Part 141 if the certificate authorises the holder to conduct the course; or (ii) an aviation recreation organisation certificate issued under the Act and Part 149 if the certificate authorises the holder to conduct the course; and (2) have successfully completed an aerobatics flight training course conducted under the authority of— (i) a certificate referred to in paragraph (1)(i) if the certificate authorises the holder to conduct the course; or (ii) a certificate referred to in paragraph (1)(ii) if the certificate authorises the holder to conduct the course; and (3) have successfully demonstrated competency in aerobatics and spinning to— (i) an appropriately qualified flight instructor who operates under the authority of a certificate referred to in paragraph (1)(i) if the certificate authorises the holder to conduct the assessment; or (ii) a person who operates under the authority of a certificate referred to in paragraph (1)(ii) if the certificate authorises the holder to conduct the assessment; and (4) hold a current class 1 or class 2 medical certificate issued under the Act. (b) A holder of the following is deemed to have met the eligibility requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2)— (1) a current aerobatic rating issued by an ICAO Contracting State; or (2) a New Zealand Defence Force pilot qualification. (c) A pilot who holds a current pilot licence and has passed a New Zealand Defence Force aerobatic assessment in the 2 years before applying for an aerobatic flight rating is deemed to have met all the eligibility requirements of paragraph (a).

Answer 31

(a) If the flight instructor or authorised person who conducted the competency demonstration required by rule 61.551 is satisfied that the pilot complies with rule 61.551, the flight instructor or authorised person may issue the aerobatic rating by entering the following statement in the pilot’s logbook: I certify that on (date of assessment) (name of pilot and client number) satisfied the requirements of Part 61 of the Civil Aviation Rules for the issue of an aerobatic rating.(enter the date, full name, signature, and licence number of the flight instructor or authorised person issuing the rating). (b) The holder of an aerobatic flight rating issued under paragraph (a) or a pilot meeting the requirements of rule 61.551(c) may apply to the Director to have the rating endorsed on the holder’s pilot licence. (c) On receipt of an application under paragraph (b) and payment of the applicable fee, the Director may endorse the pilot licence with the aerobatic flight rating. (d) To avoid doubt, a statement of endorsement made in a pilot’s logbook prior to 15 April 2016 is deemed to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a) of rule 61.551.

Answer 32

(a) Subject to the privileges and limitations of the pilot licence or certificate held, a current aerobatic flight rating authorises the holder to conduct aerobatic manoeuvres within the following limitations: (1) at a height not less than 3000 feet above the surface while carrying a passenger: (2) at a height not less than 1500 feet above the surface while not carrying a passenger: (3) at a height less than 1500 feet above the surface while not carrying a passenger when authorised by the holder of an aviation recreation organisation certificate issued in accordance with Part 149, if the certificate authorises the holder to organise aviation events.

Answer 33

(a) A holder of an aerobatic flight rating must not exercise the privileges of the rating unless,— (1) within the previous 2 years, the holder has successfully demonstrated competency as required by rule 61.551(a)(3); (2) the flight instructor or authorised person who conducts the competency demonstration certifies the successful completion of the check in the pilot’s logbook as required by rule 61.29; and (3) holds a current class 1 or class 2 medical certificate issued under the Act. (b) A pilot who successfully completes the competency demonstration within 60 days before the date on which it is required is deemed to have completed the demonstration on the required date.

Answer 34

(a) To be eligible for a glider tow rating a pilot must— (1) have a minimum of 100 hours as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane; and (2) have successfully completed a course in towing gliders conducted by a gliding organisation if the organisation’s Part 149 certificate authorises the holder to conduct the course; and (3) have successfully demonstrated competence in the towing of gliders to an appropriately authorised person within a gliding organisation if the organisation’s Part 149 certificate authorises the holder to conduct the assessment. (b) The holder of a current glider tow rating issued by an ICAO Contracting State is deemed to have met the requirements of paragraph (a)(2).

Answer 35

(a) If the authorised person who conducted the competency demonstration required by rule 61.601 is satisfied that the pilot complies with rule 61.601, the authorised person may issue the glider tow rating by entering the following statement in the pilot’s logbook: I certify that on (date of assessment) (name of pilot and client number) satisfied the requirements of Part 61 of the Civil Aviation Rules for the issue of a glider tow rating.(enter the date, full name, signature, and licence number of the flight instructor issuing the rating). (b) The holder of a glider tow rating issued under paragraph (a) may apply to the Director to have the rating endorsed on the holder’s pilot licence. (c) On receipt of an application under paragraph (b) and payment of the applicable fee, the Director may endorse the pilot licence with the glider tow rating. (d) To avoid doubt, a statement of endorsement made in a pilot’s logbook prior to 15 April 2016 is deemed to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a) of rule 61.601.

Answer 36

A current glider tow rating authorises the holder to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft on glider tow operations subject to the privileges and limitations of their pilot licence.

Answer 37

(a) A holder of a glider tow rating must not exercise the privileges of the rating unless,— (1) within the previous 12 months, the holder has performed at least 6 glider tows; or (2) within the previous 12 months, the holder has demonstrated competency in accordance with the requirements of rule 61.601(a)(3); and (3) the authorised person who conducts the competency demonstration certifies the successful completion of the check in the holder’s logbook in accordance with rule 61.29. (b) A pilot who completes the competency demonstration within 60 days before the date on which it is required is deemed to have completed the demonstration on the required date.

Answer 38

(a) To be eligible for a parachute drop rating, a pilot must— (1) be the holder of at least a current private pilot licence; and (2) have at least 200 hours flight time as a pilot, including at least 100 hours as pilot-in-command of the category of aircraft being used for the parachute drop operation; and (3) have satisfactorily completed a course in dropping parachutists conducted by a parachute organisation if the organisation’s Part 149 certificate authorises the holder to conduct the course; and (4) have demonstrated competence in the dropping of parachutists to an appropriately authorised person within a parachute organisation if the organisation’s Part 149 certificate authorises the holder to conduct the assessment. (b) A pilot who holds a current parachute drop rating issued by an ICAO Contracting State is deemed to have met the requirements of paragraph (a)(3).

Answer 39

(a) If the authorised person who conducted the competency demonstration required by rule 61.651(a) is satisfied that the pilot complies with rule 61.651, the authorised person may issue the parachute drop rating by entering the following statement in the pilot’s logbook: I certify that on (date of assessment) (name of pilot and client number) satisfied the requirements of Part 61 of the Civil Aviation Rules for the issue of a parachute drop rating for (aeroplanes)* (helicopters)*.(enter the date, full name, signature, and licence number of the flight instructor issuing the rating). (b) The holder of a parachute drop rating issued under paragraph (a) may apply to the Director to have the rating endorsed on the holder’s pilot licence. (c) On receipt of an application under paragraph (b) and payment of the applicable fee, the Director may endorse the pilot licence with the parachute drop rating. (d) To avoid doubt, a statement of endorsement made in a pilot’s logbook prior to 15 April 2016 is deemed to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (a) of rule 61.651.

Answer 40

A current parachute drop rating authorises the holder to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft on parachute drop operations subject to the privileges and limitations of the holder’s pilot licence.

Answer 41

(a) A holder of a parachute drop rating must not exercise the privileges of the rating unless,— (1) within the previous 12 months, the holder has performed at least 6 parachute drop flights; or (2) within the previous 12 months, the holder has successfully demonstrated their continued competency in accordance with the requirements of rule 61.651(a)(4); and (3) the authorised person who conducted the competency demonstration certifies the successful completion of the check in the pilot’s logbook in accordance with rule 61.29. (b) A pilot who successfully completes the competency demonstration within 60 days before the date on which it is required is deemed to have completed the demonstration on the required date.

Answer 42

(a) To be eligible for the issue of a Grade 2 agricultural rating (Aeroplane or Helicopter) a person must— (1) hold at least a current class 2 medical certificate issued under the Act and a private pilot licence for the appropriate category of aircraft; and (2) have a minimum of 200 hours flight time experience as a pilot, including a minimum of 100 hours as pilot-in-command in the appropriate category of aircraft, before commencing training for an agricultural rating; and (3) successfully complete a course of agricultural ground and flight training; and (4) (Revoked) (5) (Revoked) (6) hold a pilot chemical rating; and (7) successfully complete a training course in one or more of the following ratings: (i) aerial topdressing rating: (ii) aerial spraying rating: (iii) aerial VTA rating; and (8) successfully demonstrate competency in agricultural aircraft operations to a flight examiner holding an appropriate current agricultural flight examiner rating. (b) To be eligible for the issue of a Grade 1 agricultural rating (Aeroplane or Helicopter), a person must— (1) hold at least a current commercial pilot licence for the appropriate category of aircraft; and (2) have a minimum of 1000 hours productive flight time experience dispensing agricultural chemical or other substance directly affecting agriculture, horticulture or forest preservation, including a minimum of 200 hours as pilot-in-command of the appropriate category of aircraft; and (3) successfully demonstrate competency in agricultural aircraft operations to a flight examiner holding an appropriate current agricultural flight examiner rating. (c) The training required by paragraph (a)(3), and the demonstration of competency required by paragraphs (a)(8) and (b)(3) must be conducted under the authority of— (1) an agricultural aircraft operator certificate issued under the Act and Part 137 that authorises the operator to conduct the training or competency assessment; or (2) an aviation training organisation certificate issued under the Act and Part 141 that authorises the organisation to conduct the training or competency; or (3) an organisation that employs, contracts or engages a person who holds a delegation from the Director to conduct the competency assessment.

Answer 43

(a) If the flight examiner who conducted the competency demonstration required by rule 61.701(a)(8) or (b)(3) is satisfied that the person is competent to perform agricultural aircraft operations, the flight examiner must— (1) submit a copy of the flight test report to the Director; and (2) enter the following statement in the pilot’s logbook: I certify that on (date of assessment) (name of pilot and licence number) demonstrated competency in agricultural aircraft operations in accordance with rule (61.701(a)(8)* (61.701(b)(3)*) of the Civil Aviation Rules for the issue of a (Grade 2)* (Grade 1)* agricultural rating (aeroplane)* (helicopter)* with an (aerial topdressing rating)* (aerial spraying rating)* (aerial VTA rating)*. (date of entry, full name, signature and licence number of flight examiner). * delete as applicable (b) (Revoked) (c) A person who has a logbook entry made in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) must apply to the Director under rule 61.11(a) for the issue of the agricultural rating before exercising the privileges of the rating. (d) On receipt of an application under paragraph (c) and payment of the applicable fee, the Director may endorse the pilot licence with the agricultural rating. (e) (Revoked) (f) (Revoked) (g) (Revoked)

Answer 44

(a) Subject to paragraph (b), Part 137, and the privileges and limitations of the holder’s pilot licence, a holder of a current agricultural rating may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft performing an agricultural aircraft operation. (b) A holder of a Grade 2 agricultural rating must not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft performing an agricultural aircraft operation if, under Part 137, there is a third party risk.

Answer 45

(a) Subject to paragraph (d), a holder of an agricultural rating must not exercise the privileges of the rating unless— (1) within the preceding 12 months the holder has – (i) successfully demonstrated, to a holder of a category E flight instructor rating or a holder of an agricultural flight examiner rating, competency to perform an agricultural aircraft operation in an appropriate aircraft category and applicable to the agricultural ratings being exercised; and (ii) holds a current class 1 or class 2 medical certificate issued under the Act; and (2) the flight instructor or flight examiner who conducted the competency demonstration has entered the following statement in the pilot’s logbook: I certify that on (date of assessment) (name of pilot and licence number) demonstrated competency in agricultural aircraft operations in accordance with rule 61.707(a)(1) of the Civil Aviation Rules for continued currency of a (Grade 2)* (Grade 1)* agricultural rating (aeroplane)* (helicopter)* performing (aerial topdressing)* (aerial spraying)* (aerial VTA)*. Next competency demonstration due on (enter date 12 months from date of assessment or 12 months from due date in accordance with paragraph (c) whichever is later). (enter date of log book entry, and full name, signature and licence number of flight instructor or flight examiner). * delete as applicable (b) A pilot who successfully completes the competency demonstration within 60 days before the date on which the demonstration is required is deemed to have completed the demonstration on the required date. (ba) The flight instructor or flight examiner who conducted the competency demonstration must complete the appropriate CAA form and submit a copy of the completed form to the Director and to the pilot. (c) A holder of a Grade 1 agricultural rating must not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft performing an agricultural aircraft operation if, under Part 137, there is a third party risk unless— (1) the holder has at least 25 hours flight time experience as a pilot-in-command on the type of aircraft being used; and (2) 10 of the required hours have been accumulated within the immediately preceding 12 months. (d) Despite paragraph (a), a holder of an agricultural rating must not dispense an agricultural chemical from an aircraft on an agricultural aircraft operation unless they hold a current pilot chemical rating.

Answer 46

A person who holds a current validation permit for a foreign pilot licence equivalent to a pilot licence required by rule 61.701(a) or (b) and who holds a qualification that the Director accepts as equivalent to an agricultural rating under rule 61.701 may apply to the Director under rule 61.11(a) to have the equivalent agricultural rating endorsed on the validation permit.

Answer 47

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c), to be eligible for an instrument rating (Aeroplane or Helicopter), a person must— (1) hold a current class 1 or class 2 medical certificate issued under the Act and a pilot licence, which includes the night flying privileges for the pilot licence, for the appropriate category of aircraft; and (2) have flight time experience acceptable to the Director; and (3) successfully complete a ground training course, in the following subject areas: (i) air law: rules and regulations relevant to flight under IFR; related air traffic service practices and procedures; pre-flight preparations and checks appropriate to flight under IFR; operational flight planning; preparation and filing of flight plans under IFR; altimeter setting procedures; interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP, NOTAM, aeronautical codes and abbreviations, and instrument procedure charts for departure, en-route, descent and approach; precautionary and emergency procedures; safety practices associated with flight under IFR; radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as applied to aircraft operations under IFR; action to be taken in case of communication failure: (ii) flight navigation - IFR: practical air navigation using radio navigation aids; use, accuracy and reliability of navigation systems used in departure, en-route, approach and landing phases of flight; identification of radio navigation aids: (iii) meteorology: interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports, charts and forecasts; use of, and procedures for obtaining, meteorological information, pre-flight and in-flight; altimetry; aeronautical meteorology; climatology of relevant areas in respect of the elements having an effect upon aviation; the movement of pressure systems, the structure of fronts, and the origin and characteristics of significant weather phenomena which affect take-off, en-route, and landing conditions; hazardous weather avoidance: (iv) instruments and navigation aids: use, limitation and serviceability of avionics and instruments necessary for the control and navigation of aircraft under IFR and in instrument meteorological conditions; use and limitations of autopilot; compasses, turning and acceleration errors; gyroscopic instruments, operational limits and precession effects; practices and procedures in the event of malfunctions of various flight instruments: (v) human factors: human performance and limitations; and (4) successfully complete a flight training course conducted by an appropriately qualified flight instructor comprising a minimum 10 hours of dual instruction in the appropriate category of aircraft in the following subject areas: (i) pre-flight procedures, including the use of the flight manual or equivalent document, and appropriate air traffic service documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan: (ii) pre-flight inspection, use of checklists, taxiing and pre-take-off checks: (iii) procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal, and emergency conditions covering at least: transition to instrument flight on take-off; standard instrument departures and arrivals; en-route IFR procedures; holding procedures; instrument approaches to specified minima; missed approach procedures; and landings from instrument approaches: (iv) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics: (v) for multi-engine aircraft, the operation of the aircraft solely by reference to instruments with 1 engine inoperative or simulated inoperative; and (5) have a valid written examination credit, or approved equivalent, that covers approved written examinations in the subject areas described in paragraph (a)(3); and (6) successfully demonstrate to the Director (by undertaking a flight test in an appropriate aircraft or in an approved synthetic flight trainer) the ability to competently perform the procedures, manoeuvres, and operations described in paragraph (a)(4) that are applicable to the navigation systems on which the applicant is being tested, and the ability to— (i) operate the aircraft within its limitations; and (ii) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy; and (iii) exercise good judgement and airmanship; and (iv) apply aeronautical knowledge; and (v) control the aircraft at all times in a manner that ensures the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never in doubt. (b) To be eligible for an instrument rating, a holder of an unrestricted equivalent rating issued by an ICAO Contracting State must— (1) have a valid written examination credit in the subject of air law described under paragraph (a)(3)(i); and (2) pass the flight test required by paragraph (a)(6). (c) A person who holds a New Zealand Defence Force instrument rating and has passed a New Zealand Defence Force instrument flight assessment in the 60 days before applying for an instrument rating meets the eligibility requirements of paragraphs (a)(2) to (a)(6).

Answer 48

(a) If the Director is satisfied that an applicant for an instrument rating has met the requirements of rule 61.801, the Director may issue the rating as an endorsement on the applicant’s pilot licence. (b) A holder of an instrument rating may apply to the Director to have any additional approach aid or system endorsed on the holder’s pilot licence. (c) On receipt of an application under paragraph (b) and payment of the applicable fee, the Director may endorse the additional approach aid or system on the holder’s pilot licence.

Answer 49

(a) Subject to paragraph (b), a current instrument rating authorises the holder to act as a pilot-in-command or co-pilot of an appropriate aircraft operating under IFR. (b) To exercise the privileges of an instrument rating,— (1) the holder must, in the case of a single-pilot aircraft, have passed the flight test required by rule 61.801(a)(6) or rule 61.801(c) to the single-pilot standard; and (2) the holder must, in the case of a non-centreline-thrust multi-engine aeroplane, have passed the flight test required by rule 61.801(a)(6) or rule 61.801(c) on a non-centreline-thrust multi-engine aeroplane; and (3) if the holder is carrying out an instrument approach procedure under IFR, a flight examiner must certify in the holder’s logbook that the holder has satisfactorily demonstrated competency on that approach aid or system; and (4) if the holder holds only a class 2 medical certificate, the holder must meet the class 1 hearing standards prescribed in Part 67 and this must be endorsed on their class 2 medical certificate.

Answer 50

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), the holder of an instrument rating must not exercise the privileges of the rating unless the holder has,— (1) within the immediately preceding 12 months,— (i) successfully demonstrated to a flight examiner competency as required by rule 61.801(a)(6) for the appropriate category of aircraft; and (ii) the person who conducts the competency demonstration certifies the successful completion of the check in the pilot’s logbook as required by rule 61.29; and (2) within the immediately preceding 90 days,— (i) either met the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) or completed at least 3 hours instrument time (which must have included at least 1 hour instrument flight time); and (ii) carried out at least 3 published instrument approach procedures (1 of which may be performed in an approved synthetic flight trainer); and (3) if acting as a pilot of a non-centreline-thrust multi-engine aircraft under IFR, demonstrated the competency required in paragraph (a)(1) in a non-centreline-thrust multi-engine aircraft; and (4) if carrying out an instrument approach procedure under IFR, within the immediately preceding 90 days, performed in flight or in an approved synthetic flight trainer a published instrument approach procedure using a similar type of navigation system; or (5) if conducting an IFR operation under the authority of an air operator certificate issued under the Act and Part 119, satisfied the IFR competency requirements in Part 121, 125 or 135 as appropriate; and (6) holds a current class 1 or class 2 medical certificate issued under the Act. (b) The holder of an instrument rating who does not comply with paragraph (a)(2) may act as support pilot of an aircraft on an IFR flight if the aircraft is not performing an air operation. (c) A pilot who successfully completes the demonstration required by paragraph (a)(1) within 60 days before the date on which it is required is deemed to have completed the demonstration on the required date.

Answer 51

A pilot-in-command who had been certified competent in the use of GPS receiver under rule 19.205, immediately before 1 December 2021 – (1) is deemed to have met the requirements of rule 61.805(b)(3); (2) may carry out an instrument approach procedure under IFR using the GPS receiver; and; (3) must comply with the limitations referred to in rule 61.805; and (4) must meet the currency requirements referred to in rule 61.807.