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Microbiology Semester 3 > Part 2 Clinical Bacteriology (Staph) > Flashcards

Part 2 Clinical Bacteriology (Staph) Flashcards

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1
Q

acid-fast rods are

A

Mycobacterium species

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2
Q

Mycoplasma species do not have

A

cell wall
don’t stain with Gram stain

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3
Q

which are spirochetes too thin to be seen when stained with
Gram stain

A

Treponema
Leptospira

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4
Q

What are intracellular bacteria and are difficult to visualise within the cytoplasm of the cell

A

Chlamydia
Rickettsia

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5
Q

What are intracellular bacteria and are difficult to visualise within the cytoplasm of the cell

A

Chlamydia
Rickettsia

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6
Q

Gram-positive cocci are

A

staphylococcus,
Streptococcus,
Enterococcus

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7
Q

Major Gram-negative cocci genus

A

Neisseria

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8
Q

Major Gram-positive rods genus

A

Corynebacterium,
Listeria,
Bacillus,
Clostridium,
Actinomyces,
Nocardia

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9
Q

Gram-negative rods in the Enteric tract That are pathogenic inside and outside tract

A

Escherichia,
Salmonella

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10
Q

Gram-negative rods in the Enteric tract that are Pathogenic primarily inside tract

A

Shigella,
Vibrio,
Campylobacter,
Helicobacter

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11
Q

Gram-negative rods that are Enteric tract organisms which are Pathogenic outside tract

A

Klebsiella–Enterobacter–Serratia group,

Pseudomonas,

Proteus–Providencia–Morganella
group,

Bacteroides
  

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12
Q

Gram-negative rods that are Respiratory tract organisms

A

Haemophilus,
Legionella,
Bordetella

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13
Q

Gram-negative rods that are Organisms from animal sources

A

Brucella,
Francisella,
Pasteurella,
Yersinia

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14
Q

Not readily Gram stained
Not obligate intracellular bacteria examples

A

Mycobacterium,
Mycoplasma,
Treponema,
Leptospira

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15
Q

Not readily Gram stained and are Obligate intracellular bacteria

A

Chlamydia,
Rickettsia

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16
Q

Which obligate aerobes grows best
in the 20% oxygen of room air and not at all under anaerobic conditions

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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17
Q

Facultative anaerobes such as - can
grow well under aerobic and anaerobic conditions because

A

Escherichia coli
(Switches to fermentation in no air)

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18
Q

Aerotolerant organisms such as - can grow to some extent in air but multiply much more rapidly in a lower oxygen concentration.

A

Clostridium histolyticum

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19
Q

Microaerophilic organisms such as - require a reduced oxygen concentration (approximately 5%) to grow optimally

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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20
Q

obligate anaerobes such as - require an almost total absence of oxygen

A

Bacteroides fragilis
Clostridium perfringens

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21
Q

Many anaerobes use what rather than
oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor.

A

Nitrogen

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22
Q

main reason why the growth of anaerobes is inhibited by oxygen is the reduced amount (or absence) of

A

catalase
superoxide dismutase (SOD)

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23
Q

Catalase and SOD eliminate which toxic compounds formed during production of energy by the organism

A

hydrogen peroxide
superoxide

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24
Q

Give an example of a Microaerophile

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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25
Q

Anaerobic Spore-forming gram positive rod example

A

Clostridium

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26
Q

Anaerobic Non–spore-forming gram positive rod examples

A

Actinomyces,
Bifidobacterium,
Eubacterium,
Lactobacillus,
Propionibacterium

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27
Q

Anaerobic Non–spore-forming gram negative rod examples

A

Bacteroides,
Fusobacterium

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28
Q

Anaerobic Non–spore-forming gram positive cocci

A

Peptococcus,
Peptostreptococcus,
Streptococcus

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29
Q

Anaerobic Non–spore-forming gram negative cocci example

A

Veillonella

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30
Q

Examples of soil organisms

A

Clostridiumbotulinum

Clostridium tetani

Clostridiumperfringens

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31
Q

Diseases caused by members of the anaerobic normal flora are characterized by

A

abscesses

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32
Q

anaerobic normal flora
are characterized by abscesses, which are most frequently located in

A

brain,
lungs,
female genital tract,
biliary tract,
intra-abdominal sites.

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33
Q

Anaerobes are characterized by their ability to grow only in

A

an atmosphere containing less than 20% oxygen

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34
Q

important findings on physical examination that arouse suspicion of an anaerobic infection are

A

foul-smelling discharge,
gas in the tissue,
necrotic tissue.

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35
Q

infections that frequently involve anaerobes are

A

pulmonary aspiration,
bowel surgery,
abortion,
cancer,
human and animal bites

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36
Q

What specimens are appropriate that does not contain members of the normal flora to confuse the interpretation

A

blood,
pleural fluid,
pus,
transtrachealaspirates

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37
Q

Drugs commonly used to treat anaerobic infections are

A

penicillin G,
cefoxitin,
chloramphenicol,
clindamycin, metronidazole.

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38
Q

many isolates of the important pathogen B. fragilis produce β-lactamase and are thus

A

resistant to penicillin

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39
Q

aminoglycosides such as gentamicin are not effective against anaerobes because

A

they require an oxygen-dependent process for uptake into the bacterial cell

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40
Q

Microscopically, staphylococci appear in

A

grapelike clusters,

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41
Q

Microscopically streptococci appear

A

in chains

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42
Q

Biochemically, staphylococci produce

A

produce catalase (they degrade hydrogen peroxide),

whereas streptococci do not.

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43
Q

Staphylococcus aureus causes

A

abscesses
various pyogenic infections
endocarditis,
septic arthritis,
osteomyelitis
food poisoning,
scalded skin syndrome
toxic shock syndrome

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44
Q

most common causes of
hospital-acquired pneumonia,
septicemia,
surgical-wound infections is

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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45
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is an important cause of skin and soft tissue infections, such as

A

folliculitis,
cellulitis,
impetigo

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46
Q

most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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47
Q

Methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) is the most common cause of

A

skin abscesses

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48
Q

What is important cause of pneumonia, necrotizing fasciitis, and sepsis in immunocompetent patients

A

Methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)

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49
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis causes

A

prosthetic valve endocarditis and

prosthetic joint infections

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50
Q

What is the the most common
cause of central nervous system shunt infections and an important cause of sepsis in newborns

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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51
Q

What causes urinary tract infections, especially cystitis

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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52
Q

What syndrome is a disease of unknown etiology that may be caused
by certain strains of S. aureus.

A

Kawasaki syndrome

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53
Q

spherical gram-positive cocci arranged in
irregular grapelike clusters are

A

Staphylococci

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54
Q

All staphylococci produce …

A

catalase

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55
Q

no streptococci

A

produce catalase

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56
Q

What does catalase do

A

degrades H2O2 into O2 and H2O

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57
Q

Catalase is

A

an important virulence factor

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58
Q

Bacteria that make catalase can survive

A

the killing effect of H2O2 within neutrophils.

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59
Q

Scalded skin syndrome. Note widespread areas of “rolled up” desquamated skin in infant, Caused by

A

exotoxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus

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60
Q

Impetigo. Lesions of impetigo are crops of
vesicles with a “honey-colored” crust Impetigo is caused by

A

either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes

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61
Q

Folliculitis. Note the multiple, small pustules on the chin and neck

A

Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of folliculitis

62
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

A

Positive coagulase production

Beta hemolysis

Protein A surface

Abscess, food poisoning, toxic shock syndrome

63
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis

A

No Coagulase Production

No Hemolysis

Sensitive to novobiocin

Infection of prosthetic heart valves and hips;

common member of skin flora

64
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A

No Coagulase Production

No Hemolysis

Resistant to novobiocin

Affects Urinary tract

65
Q

Thrombin catalyzes

A

activation of fibrinogen

to form the fibrin clot

66
Q

Staphylococcus aureus produces a carotenoid pigment called — , which imparts a golden color to its colonies

A

staphyloxanthin

67
Q

staphyloxanthin enhances the pathogenicity of the organism by

A

inactivating the microbicidal effect of superoxides and other reactive oxygen species within neutrophils

68
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis produces

A

white colonies

69
Q

The virulence of Staphylococcus epidermidis is

A

significantly less than that of S. aureus.

70
Q

S. aureus usually ferments mannitol and

A

hemolyzes red blood cells,

whereas S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus do not.

71
Q

source of iron required for growth of S. aureus

A

Hemolysis of red cells by hemolysins

72
Q

The iron in hemoglobin is recovered by S. aureus

A

utilized in the synthesis of cytochrome enzymes used to produce energy

73
Q

More than 90% of S. aureus strains contain plasmids that encode β-lactamase, the enzyme that

A

degrades many, but not all, penicillins

74
Q

Some strains of S. aureus are resistant to the β-lactamase–resistant penicillins, such as

A

methicillin
nafcillin,

Due to changes in the penicillin-binding proteins (PBP) in their cell membrane

75
Q

Genes on the bacterial chromosome called mecA genes encode

A

altered penicillin-binding proteins

76
Q

methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) causes

A

healthcare-acquired (HCA-MRSA) and

community-acquired (CA-MRSA) infections

77
Q

Almost all strains of CA-MRSA produce

A

P-V leukocidin

78
Q

Strains of S. aureus resistant to vancomycin

A

intermediate resistance to vancomycin (VISA)

full resistance to vancomycin (VRSA)

79
Q

genes that encodes vancomycin resistance in S. aureus is the same as the genes that
provides vancomycin resistance in enterococci, what do they do

A

genes are located in a transposon on a plasmid

encode the enzymes that substitute
d-lactate for d-alanine in the peptidoglycan

80
Q

(Staphylococcus aureus)

Protein A is an important virulence factor because

A

binds to the Fc portion of IgG at the complement-binding site,

preventing the activation of complement

81
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

Protein A leads to

A

no C3b is produced,

the opsonization and phagocytosis of the organisms are greatly reduced

82
Q

Why is Protein A is used in certain tests in the clinical laboratory

A

binds to IgG and forms a “coaggluti-
nate” with antigen–antibody complexes.

The coagulase-negative
staphylococci do not produce protein A.

83
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

What do Teichoic acids do

A

mediate adherence of the staphylococci to mucosal cells

84
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

Lipoteichoic acids play a role in the induction of septic shock by

A

cytokines such as interleukin-1 (IL-1)

and tumor necrosis factor (TNF) from macrophages

85
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

Polysaccharide capsule is also an important virulence factor

A

capsule is poorly immunogenic,

which has made producing an effective
vaccine difficult.

86
Q

peptidoglycan of S. aureus has endotoxin-like properties, for instance

A

stimulate macrophages to produce cytokines

can activate the complement and coagulation cascades

explains the ability of S. aureus to cause the clinical findings of septic shock yet not possess endotoxin

87
Q

main site of colonization of S. aureus

A

nose

88
Q

common site of S. aureus colonization especially in hospitals

A

Skin of hospital personnel and patients

Hand contact is an important mode of transmission, and handwashing decreases
transmission.

89
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is also found in the vagina of approximately 5% of women

A

which predisposes them to toxic shock syndrome

90
Q

Additional sources of staphylococcal infection are

A

shedding from human lesions and
fomites such as towels and
clothing contaminated by these lesions

91
Q

What can predisposition to infections by S. aureus

A

Diabetes and

intravenous drug

92
Q

What disease can cause patients to be prone to to S. aureus infections characterized by a defect in the ability of neutrophils to kill bacteria

A

Patients with chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)

93
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis is found primarily

A

human skin and can enter the bloodstream at the site of intravenous catheters that penetrate through the skin

94
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus is found primarily on

A

mucosa of the genital tract in young women and from that site can ascend into the urinary bladder to cause urinary tract infections

95
Q

Staphylococcus aureus causes disease both

A

producing toxins

and by inducing pyogenic inflammation

96
Q

The typical lesion of S. aureus infection is

A

an abscess

97
Q

Foreign bodies, such as —- are important predisposing factors to infection by S. aureus

A

sutures and intravenous catheters

98
Q

Several important toxins and enzymes are produced by S. aureus, The three clinically important exotoxins are

A

enterotoxin,
toxic shock syndrome toxin,
and exfoliatin.

99
Q

Enterotoxin causes

A

food poisoning characterized by
prominent vomiting and

watery, nonbloody diarrhea

100
Q

Enterotoxin acts as a superantigen within the gastrointestinal tract to stimulate

A

release of large amounts of IL-1 and IL-2 from macrophages and

helper T cells

101
Q

Enterotoxin causes vomiting caused by

A

prominent vomiting appears to
be caused by cytokines released from the lymphoid cells,

which stimulate the enteric nervous system to activate the vomiting
center in the brain

102
Q

Enterotoxin is hard to bypass because

A

heat-resistant, usually not inactivated by brief cooking.

It is resistant to stomach acid and to enzymes in the stomach and jejunum.

103
Q

Toxic shock syndrome toxin can be seen in

A

tampon-using menstruating women

individuals with wound infections

nasal packing used to stop bleeding from the nose

104
Q

TSST is a superantigen and causes toxic shock by stimulating the release of

A

large amounts of IL-1,
IL-2,
and TNF

105
Q

Toxic shock occurs in people who

A

do not have antibody against TSST.

106
Q

Toxic shock occurs in people who

A

do not have antibody against TSST.

107
Q

Exfoliatin causes

A

scalded skin” syndrome in young children.

108
Q

Exfoliatin is epidermolytic

A

acts as a protease that cleaves
desmoglein in desmosomes

leading to the separation of the
epidermis at the granular cell layer

109
Q

Complement is

A

a system of plasma proteins that interacts with pathogens to mark them for destruction by phagocytes

110
Q

leukocidins kill leukocytes, causing

A

necrosis of tissues

111
Q

Alpha toxin causes

A

marked necrosis of the skin

and hemolysis.

112
Q

cytotoxic effect of alpha toxin is attributed to

A

formation of holes in the cell
membrane

and loss of low-molecular-weight substances from the damaged cell.

113
Q

P-V leukocidin is

A

a pore-forming toxin that kills cells,
especially white blood cells,
by damaging cell membranes

114
Q

P-V leukocidin is an important virulence factor for

A

CA-MRSA

plays a role in the severe skin and soft tissue infection caused by this organism

115
Q

A severe necrotizing pneumonia is caused by

A

strains of S. aureus that produce P-V leukocidin

116
Q

Pathogenesis Of Staphylococcus aureus The enzymes include
coagulase,
fibrinolysin,
hyaluronidase,
proteases,
nucleases,
and lipases
How does coagulase work?

A

by clotting plasma, serves to wall off the infected site, thereby retarding the migration of neutrophils into the site

117
Q

Staphylokinase is a fibrinolysin that can

A

lyse thrombi

118
Q

Local Pyogenic infections caused by S. aureus are

A

Skin infection

(e.g., impetigo,
surgical-wound infections)

119
Q

Disseminated Pyogenic infection caused by S. aureus lead to

A

Sepsis,
endocarditis
osteomyelitis,
arthritis

120
Q

Staphylococcus aureus: Pyogenic Diseases
Causes skin and soft tissue infections such as

A

abscess,
impetigo
furuncles,
carbuncles
paronychia,
cellulitis,
folliculitis
necrotising fasciitis
hidradenitis suppurativa,
conjunctivitis,
eyelid infections- blepharitis, hordeolum
postpartum breast infections-mastitis

121
Q

Lymphangitis can occur from s aureus, what is it

A

an infection and inflammation of the lymph vessels

person may notice red or dark streaks extending from the site of an injury, along with swelling, pain, and warmth

122
Q

Severe necrotizing skin and soft tissue infections are caused by

A

MRSA strains that produce P-V leukocidin.

123
Q

MRSA strains that produce P-V leukocidin that typically cause Severe necrotizing skin and soft tissue infections are usually acquired from

A

community-acquired rather than hospital-
acquired

124
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

Osteomyelitis and septic arthritis may arise either by

A

hematogenous spread from a distant infected focus or

be introduced locally at a wound site

125
Q

most common cause of post surgical wound infections

A

Staphylococcus aureus

126
Q

S. aureus and S. epidermidis are the most common causes of infections at the site where

A

cardiac pacemakers are installed.

127
Q

Staphylococcal pneumonia often leads to

A

-empyema (collection of pus in the pleural cavity, gram-positive, or culture from the pleural fluid)

-lung abscess

(A lung abscess involves the lung parenchyma, whereas an empyema involves the pleural space)

128
Q

CA-MRSA causes (pneumonia)

A

a severe necrotising pneumonia.

129
Q

Conjunctivitis typically presents with

A

unilateral burning eye pain,
hyperaemia of the conjunctiva,
pus discharge

(hyperaemia - excess of blood in the vessels supplying an organ)

130
Q

S. pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae causing conjunctivitis are more common in

A

Children

131
Q

Toxic shock syndrome is characterized by

A

fever;
hypotension;
a diffuse, macular, sunburn-like rash that goes on to desquamate;

and involvement of three or more of the following organs: liver,
kidney,
gastrointestinal tract,
central nervous system,
muscle,
blood.

132
Q

syndrome occurs most often in young children, Scalded skin syndrome is characterized by

A

fever,
large bullae,
an erythematous macular rash.

Large areas of skin slough, serous fluid exudes, and electrolyte imbalance can occur

Hair and nails can be lost

133
Q

Kawasaki disease (KD) features resemble

A

toxic shock syndrome caused by the superantigens of S. aureus

134
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis infections are almost always

A

hospital-acquired

135
Q

S. saprophyticus infections are almost always

A

community-acquired.

136
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis is part of the normal human flora on the skin and mucous membranes but can enter the
bloodstream (bacteremia) and cause ?

A

metastatic infections, especially at the site of implants

137
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis commonly infects

A

intravenous catheters

prosthetic implants (heart-[endocarditis])

vascular grafts

prosthetic joints [arthritis or osteomyelitis])

138
Q

Strains of S. epidermidis that produce a glycocalyx are more likely to

A

adhere to prosthetic implant materials and are more likely to infect these implants

139
Q

Staphylococcus lugdunensis is a relatively uncommon coagulase -negative staphylococcus that causes

A

prosthetic valve endocarditis and skin infections.

140
Q

commonly used screening device for
S. aureus

A

Mannitol-salt agar

141
Q

Staphylococcus aureus ferments mannitol, which

A

lowers the pH, causing the agar to turn yellow,

142
Q

Cultures of coagulase-negative staphylococci typically yield

A

white colonies that are nonhemolytic

143
Q

The two coagulase-negative staphylococci are distinguished by their reaction to

A

antibiotic novobiocin

144
Q

90% or more of S. aureus strains are resistant to penicillin G, Most of these strains produce β-lactamase, how are they treated

A

β-lactamase–resistant penicillins
nafcillin or cloxacillin,

some cephalosporins, or vancomycin.

Treatment with a combination of a β-lactamase–sensitive penicillin: amoxicillin

and β-lactamase inhibitor: clavulanic acid

145
Q

β-lactam drug useful for the treatment of MRSA infections.

A

Ceftaroline fosamil

146
Q

The treatment of toxic shock syndrome involves

A

fluids,
pressor drugs,
inotropic drugs
administration of a β-lactamase–resistant penicillin such as nafcillin
Pooled serum globulins

147
Q

effective as a topical antibiotic in skin infections caused by S. aureus

A

Mupirocin

148
Q

What can be added to mupirocin in skin
infections caused by S. aureus

A

A topical skin antiseptic, such as chlorhexidine

149
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis is highly antibiotic resistant, Most strains produce β-lactamase but are sensitive to

A

β-lactamase–resistant drugs such as nafcillin

150
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus urinary tract infections can be treated with

A

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole or

A quinolone, such as ciprofloxacin.

Microbiology Semester 3 (7 decks)

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