Generics Midterm Topics (textbook) Flashcards

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1
Q

unstable and dynamic nature of the mutations, which are due to

A

expansion, within the transcribed region of the affected gene of repeated sequences

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2
Q

expansion of trinucleotides in noncoding regions of RNAs example

A

CGG in fragile X

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3
Q

affected gene is passed from generation to generation, what occurs

A

number of repeats may expand to a degree that is pathogenic,

interfering with normal gene expression and function

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4
Q

intergenerational expansion of the repeats accounts for the phenomenon

A

Anticipation

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5
Q

Anticipation is

A

appearance of the disease at an earlier age as it is transmitted through a family.

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6
Q

biochemical mechanism most commonly proposed to underlie the expansion of unstable repeat sequences is

A

slipped mispairing

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7
Q

repeat expansions appear to occur both in

A

proliferating -sperm
Somatic-neuron

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8
Q

expansion can occur during both

A

DNA replication

genome maintenance

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9
Q

Class 1: diseases

A

expansion of noncoding repeats that cause a loss of protein expression

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10
Q

Class 2: disorders

A

expansions of non- coding repeats that confer novel properties on the RNA

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11
Q

Class 3: diseases

A

repeat expansion of a codon such as CAG (for glutamine) that confers novel prop- erties on the affected protein

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12
Q

Give example of a Disease that due to the Expansion of Noncoding Repeats That Cause a Loss of Protein Expression

A

Fragile X syndrome

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13
Q

How is fragile x passed on

A

X linked

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14
Q

What codon is expanded in fragile x

A

CGG

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15
Q

On what gene is the expansion of the CGG repeat in the 5′ untranslated region (UTR) in fragile x

A

FMR1

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16
Q

excessive methylation of cytosines in the promoter, an epigenetic modification of the DNA that silences transcription of the gene is seen in which case

A

Fragile x

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17
Q

What causes intellectual disability and learning deficits and the non-neurological features of the clinical phenotype in fragile x

A

loss of the fragile X mental retardation protein (FMRP)

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18
Q

non-neurological features of the clinical phenotype of fragile x are

A

macroorchidism

connective tissue dysplasia

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19
Q

What is an RNA-binding protein that associates with polyribo- somes to suppress the translation of proteins from its RNA targets

A

Fmrp

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20
Q

FMRP appears to regulate

A

translation of proteins required for the formation of synapses

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21
Q

What’s different about Fragile X Tremor/Ataxia Syndrome.

A

males with full mutations and virtually complete loss of function of the FMR1 gene never develop FXTAS

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22
Q

FXTAS results from

A

twofold to fivefold increased levels of the FMR1 mRNA present in these patients

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23
Q

pathogenic RNA in FXTAS leads to

A

formation of intra- nuclear neuronal inclusions, the cellular signature of the disease

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24
Q

Example of Disorders Resulting from Expansions of Noncoding Repeats That Confer Novel Properties on the RNA

A

Myotonic dystrophy

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25
Q

How is myotonic dystrophy inherited

A

autosomal dominant

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26
Q

What is myotonic dystrophy characterised by

A

muscle weakness and wasting,
cardiac conduction defects,
testicular atrophy,
insulin resistance,
cataracts;
there is also a congenital form with intellectual disability

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27
Q

What codon is expanded in myotonic dystrophy

A

CTG

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28
Q

What gene does CTG expansion in the 3′ UTR for myotonic dystrophy take place

A

DMPK gene

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29
Q

DMPK gene encodes a

A

Protein kinase

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30
Q

What is different about myotonic dystrophy 2

A

No associated congenital presentation

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31
Q

CTG trinucleotide expansion is thought to

A

underlie an RNA-mediated pathogenesis

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32
Q

MD pathogesesis appears to result from

A

binding of the CUG repeats to RNA-binding proteins

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33
Q

MD

Many of the RNA-binding proteins seques- tered by the excessive number of CUG repeats are regulators of

A

Splicing

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34
Q

pre-mRNAs have been shown to have splicing alterations in patients with DM1 such as

A

cardiac troponin T

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35
Q

How is huntingtons inherited

A

autosomal dominant

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36
Q

Huntington Disease is a neurodegenerative disorder associated with

A

chorea, (involuntary, irregular or unpredictable muscle movements)

athetosis loss of cognition,

psychiatric abnormalities

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37
Q

What causes huntingtons

A

Expansion of codon CAG

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38
Q

In huntingtons, on what gene does expansion to more than 40 repeats of the codon CAG occur

A

CAG

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39
Q

Huntingtons

repeats of the codon CAG in the HD gene results in

A

long polyglutamine tracts in the mutant protein,
huntingtin

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40
Q

striking cellular hallmark of Huntingtons

A

insoluble aggregates of the mutant protein
clustered in nuclear inclusions in neurons

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41
Q

cellular processes disrupted by mutant huntingtin

A

transcription,
vesicular transport,
mitochondrial fission,
synaptic transmission and plasticity.

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42
Q

mitochondrial abnormalities play important roles in

A

Huntingtons

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43
Q

increased risk of Alzheimer’s in relatives of affected individuals due to

A

genetic contribution involving one or more incompletely penetrant genes that act independently, from multiple interacting genes,

Or from some combination of genetic and environmental factors

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44
Q

monogenic Alzheimer’s highly penetrant form of AD that is inherited in

A

Autosomal dominant

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45
Q

Alzheimer’s

Mutations in three genes encoding which protein

A

β-amyloid precursor protein

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46
Q

What lead to autosomal dominant AD

A

β-amyloid precursor protein

presenilin 1,

presenilin 2

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47
Q

What is apolipoprotein E (apo E)

A

protein component of several plasma lipo- proteins

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48
Q

ε4 allele of APOE modestly increases susceptibility to

A

nonfamilial AD and influences the age at onset of at least some of the monogenic forms

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49
Q

important pathological abnormalities of AD are

A

deposition of

-β-amyloid peptide (Aβ)
-tau protein

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50
Q

The Aβ peptide is generated from

A

βAPP protein

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51
Q

β-amyloid peptide is found in

A

extracellular amyloid/ senile plaques in the extracellular space of AD brains

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52
Q

Amyloid plaques contain

A

Aβ peptide

apoE

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53
Q

one of the causes of the neuronal degen- eration in AD

A

tau neurofibrillary tangles

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54
Q

What is tau

A

microtubule-associated protein expressed abundantly in neurons

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55
Q

Hyperphosphorylated forms of tau compose the neurofibrillary tangles where

A

within AD neurons

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56
Q

mutations in the tau gene are associated with

A

Dementia

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57
Q

βAPP is a single- pass intracellular transmembrane protein found in

A

endosomes,
lysosomes,
ER
Golgi apparatus

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58
Q

βAPP subject to three distinct proteolytic fates, depending on the relative activity of three different proteases

A

α-secretase and β-secretase (cell surface)

γ-secretase-cleaves membrane proteins within their transmem- brane domains

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59
Q

monogenic AD due to

A

missense substitutions in the gene encoding βAPP

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60
Q

Aβ42 peptide is thought to be neurotoxic because

A

more prone to aggregation than Aβ40

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61
Q

What gene encodes βAPP

A

APP

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62
Q

mutations in the AD genes presenilin 1 and presenilin 2 lead to

A

increased production of Aβ42

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63
Q

allele is significantly overrepresented in patients with AD and is associated with an early onset of AD

A

ε4

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64
Q

Several moder- ately rare missense coding variants in this gene are asso- ciated with a fivefold increase in risk for late-onset AD

A

TREM2

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65
Q

Mutations in mtDNA can be inherited

A

maternally

or acquired as somatic mutations

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66
Q

Replicative segregation refers to

A

multiple copies of mtDNA in each mitochondrion replicate and sort randomly among newly synthesized mitochondria,

are then distributed randomly between the daughter cells

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67
Q

Homoplasmy is

A

cell contains a pure population of normal mtDNA or of mutant mtDNA

(Vice versa for hetro)

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68
Q

mitochondrial disorders are generally char- acterized by

A

reduced penetrance,
variable expression,
pleiotropy

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69
Q

maternal inheritance of mtDNA reflects

A

mtDNA is almost always inherited entirely from the mother

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70
Q

three types of mutations have been identified in mtDNA

A

rearrangements cause deletions or duplications of the mtDNA molecule;

point mutations in tRNA or rRNA genes impair mitochondrial protein synthesis;

missense mutations in the coding regions of genes, alter activity of an oxidative phosphorylation protein

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71
Q

Kearns- Sayre syndrome caused by

A

mtDNA deletions

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72
Q

an example of gonadal mosaicism is Kearns Sayre syndrome because it’s inherited from

A

unaffected mother, who carries the deletion in her oocytes but generally not elsewhere

73
Q

three types of mutations in mtDNA

A

rearrangements make deletions or duplications of the mtDNA molecule;

point mutations in tRNA or rRNA genes impair mitochondrial protein synthesis

missense mutations in the coding regions of genes alter activity of an oxidative phosphorylation protein.

74
Q

somatic mtDNA deletions are common in dopami- nergic neurons of the substantia nigra in normal patients and more so patients with

A

Parkinson disease

75
Q

The tRNA mutations include 18 substitutions in the tRNAleu(UUR) gene cause a phenotype referred to as MELAS

A

mitochondrial encephalomyopathy with lactic acidosis and strokelike episodes

76
Q

12S rRNA mutation is a homoplasmic substitution that causes

A

sensorineural prelingual deafness

after exposure to aminoglycoside antibiotics

77
Q

there is a phenotypic threshold effect associated with

A

mtDNA heteroplasmy

78
Q

neuromuscular system is the one most commonly affected by mutations in mtDNA; consequences can include

A

encephalopathy,
myopathy,
ataxia,
retinal degeneration,
loss of function of the external ocular muscles

79
Q

Mitochondrial myopathy is characterized by

A

ragged-red muscle fibers

80
Q

Muscle fibres are affected in mitochondrial myopathy because

A

proliferation of structurally and biochemically abnormal mitochondria in muscle fibers

81
Q

mitochondrial genetic bottleneck is

A

restriction and subsequent amplification of mtDNA during oogenesis

HETEROPLASMY AND MITOCHONDRIAL DISEASE

82
Q

most common mtDNA mutation

A

3243A>G substitution in the tRNAleu(UUR) gene

MELAS

83
Q

3243A>G substitution in the tRNAleu(UUR) gene just mentioned in the context of the MELAS phenotype leads to

A

diabetes
deafness
chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia

84
Q

Leber hereditary optic neuropathy

A

painless bilateral loss of central vision due to optic nerve atrophy in young adults

85
Q

α1-Antitrypsin deficiency

A

autosomal recessive

86
Q

α1-Antitrypsin (α1AT) deficiency associated with a substantial risk for

A

chronic obstructive lung disease (emphysema)

and cirrhosis of the liver

87
Q

α1AT protein belongs to protease inhibitor family

A

SERPINA1

88
Q

What inhibits elastase released from neutrophils in the lower respiratory tract

A

α1AT

89
Q

Which relatively common α1AT allele is associated with an increased risk for lung or liver disease

A

Z allele

Glu342Lys

90
Q

α1AT gene expressed principally in the liver, which normally secretes

A

α1AT into plasma

91
Q

Some Z/Z homozygotes can present with

A

Neonatal jaundice

92
Q

Those presenting with jaundice from Z/Z homozygotes can develop

A

cirrhosis

93
Q

Z allels may arise from mutant protein, this protein

A

aggregate,
trapping it within the rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) of hepatocytes

94
Q

Z protein aggregation is a consequence of

A

structural changes in the protein that predispose to the formation of long beadlike necklaces of mutant α1AT polymers

95
Q

lung disease associated with the Z allele of α1AT deficiency is due to

A

alteration of the normal balance between elastase and α1AT,

allows progressive degradation of the elastin of alveolar walls

96
Q

Both sickle cell disease and the α1AT deficiency asso- ciated with homozygosity for the Z allele are examples of

A

inherited conformational diseases

97
Q

molecular explanation for the effect of smoking is that

A

active site of α1AT, at methionine 358, is oxidized by both cigarette smoke and inflammatory cells,

reducing its affinity for elastase

98
Q

porphyria inherited by

A

autosomal dominant

99
Q

porphyria associated with intermittent neurological dysfunction primarily defect is

A

deficiency of porphobilinogen (PBG) deaminase,

enzyme in the biosynthetic pathway of heme,

required for the synthesis of hemoglobin and hepatic cytochrome p450 drug-metabolizing enzymes

100
Q

normal individuals the drug-related increase in ALA synthetase is beneficial because

A

increases heme synthesis, allowing greater formation of hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes that metabolize many drugs

101
Q

Familial Hypercholesterolemia leads to a greatly increased risk for myocardial infarction, is characterized by

A

elevation of plasma cholesterol carried by LDL,

102
Q

Familial hypercholesterolemia is a hyperlipoproteinemia, what are the characteristics

A

elevated levels of plasma lipids carried by apo- lipoprotein B containing lipoproteins

103
Q

Familial Hypercholesterolemia has mutations in

A

LDL receptor gene

104
Q

genes associated with familial hypercholesterolemia disrupt

A

function or abundance either of the LDL receptor at the cell surface or

of apoB, the major protein component of LDL and a ligand for the LDL receptor.

105
Q

mutations in the PCSK9 protease gene gain causes hypercholesterolemia, what else occurs

A

common loss-of-function sequence variants lower plasma LDL cholesterol levels,

conferring substantial protection from coronary heart disease

106
Q

most common cause of familial hypercholesterolemia

A

Mutations in the LDL receptor gene

107
Q

Elevated plasma concentrations of LDL cholesterol lead to

A

premature atherosclerosis (accumulation of cholesterol by macrophages in the subendothelial space of major arteries

108
Q

Physical stigmata of familial hypercholesterolemia include

A

xanthomas- cholesterol in skin and tendons

premature arcus corneae, cholesterol around cornea

109
Q

Familial hypercholesterolemia due to mutations in the LDLR gene is inherited as an

A

autosomal semidominant trait

110
Q

Receptor-bound LDL is brought into the cell by endocytosis of the coated pits, which ultimately evolve into lysosomes in which

A

LDL is hydrolyzed to release free cholesterol

111
Q

The increase in free intracellular cholesterol reduces endogenous cholesterol formation by suppressing the rate-limiting enzyme of the synthetic pathway

A

3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG CoA) reductase

112
Q

Class 1 mutations are null alleles

A

prevent the
synthesis of any detectable receptor; they are the most common type of disease-causing mutations at this locus

113
Q

class 2 mutations are designated transport-deficient because

A

LDL receptors accumulate at the site of their synthesis, the ER, instead of being transported to the Golgi complex.

114
Q

Class 3 mutant receptors reach the cell surface but

A

are incapable of binding LDL.

115
Q

Class 4 mutations impair localization of the receptor to the coated pit, and consequently

A

bound LDL is not internalized.

mutations alter or remove the cytoplasmic domain at the carboxyl terminus of the receptor,

116
Q

Class 5 recycling-defective alleles

Mutations in the epidermal growth factor precursor homology domain prevent

A

release of the LDL ligand. This failure leads to degradation of the receptor,

117
Q

Class 6 mutations lead to defective targeting of the mutant receptor to the basolateral membrane

A

Mutations affecting the signal can mistarget the mutant receptor to the apical surface of hepatic cells

impairing the recycling of the receptor to the basolateral membrane and leading to an overall reduction of endocytosis of the LDL receptor.

118
Q

Rare cases of autosomal dominant familial hypercholes- terolemia have been found to result from gain-of- function missense mutations in

A

gene encoding PCSK9 protease

119
Q

role of PCSK9 is to

A

target the LDL receptor for lysosomal degradation,

reducing receptor abundance at the cell surface

120
Q

More LDL receptors increase

A

cellular uptake of LDL cholesterol, lowering cholesterol and providing protection against coronary artery disease

121
Q

cystic fibrosis (CF) inheritance

A

autosomal recessive

122
Q

pancreatic defect in CF is a maldigestion syndrome due to

A

deficient secretion of pancreatic enzymes (lipase, trypsin, chymotrypsin)

123
Q

neonatal lower intestinal tract obstruction of cf babies is called

A

meconium ileus

124
Q

females with CF have some reduction in

A

Fertility

125
Q

95% of CF males are infertile because

A

lack the vas deferens

126
Q

CF is due to abnormal fluid and electrolyte transport across epithelial apical membranes, This abnormality leads to

A

disease in the lung, pancreas, intestine, hepatobiliary tree, and male genital tract

127
Q

loss of CFTR function means that chloride in the duct of the sweat gland

A

cannot be reabsorbed

128
Q

In the lung, the hyperabsorp- tion of sodium and reduced chloride secretion result in a

A

depletion of airway surface liquid.

129
Q

major cause of chronic pulmonary infection in CF.

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

130
Q

most common CF mutation is

A

deletion of a phenylalanine residue at position 508 (ΔF508) in the first ATP-binding fold (NBD1

131
Q

Mutations in cf

A

Half missense

Rest are point

132
Q

Other that CFTR, what gene can carry mutations in CF

A

SCNN1

133
Q

1-4 risk foetus Cf prenatal diagnosis by DNA analysis at 10 to 12 weeks,

A

obtained by chorionic villus biopsy

134
Q

Dmd inheritance

A

X-linked disorder

135
Q

Dmd boys are normal for the first year or two of life but develop muscle weakness by 3 to 5 years of age what can they have difficulty with

A

climbing stairs and rising from a sitting position. The child is typically confined to a wheelchair by the age of 12 years.

136
Q

Dmd preclinical and early stages of the disease, the serum level of

A

creatine kinase is grossly elevated

137
Q

Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD) is also due to mutations in

A

dystrophin gene

138
Q

BMD alleles produce a

A

much milder phenotype

139
Q

Dystrophin is detected more in which dystrophy

A

BMD

rather than DMD

140
Q

most common molecular defects in patients with DMD are

A

deletions

141
Q

Prenatal Diagnosis and Carrier Detection of md

A

examination of fetal DNA

142
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a group of inherited disorders that

A

predispose to skeletal deformity and easy fracturing of bones,

143
Q

Which genes do mutation occur for OI

A

COL1A1 and COL1A2

144
Q

COL1A1 and COL1A2, that encode the chains of

A

type I collagen, the major protein in bone

145
Q

Novel Forms of Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A

mutations in the IFITM5 gene

WNT1

BMP1

146
Q

mutations that produce structurally abnor- mal proα2(I) chains reduce the number of

A

the number of normal type I collagen molecules by half,

147
Q

bone marrow transplantation and enzyme replacement therapy have dramatically improved the prognosis of

A

Lysosomal Storage Diseases

148
Q

Tay-Sachs Disease - genes that cause it

A

HEXA and HEXB genes

149
Q

Tay sachs

Affected infants appear normal until approximately 3 to 6 months of age but then

A

gradually undergo progres- sive neurological deterioration until death at 2 to 4 years.

150
Q

Tay sachs

effects of neuronal death can be seen directly in the form of

A

cherry-red spot in retina

151
Q

Tay sachs

HEXA alleles associated with some residual activity lead to later-onset forms of neurological disease, with manifestations including

A

neurological disease, with manifestations including lower motor neuron dysfunction and ataxia due to spi- nocerebellar degeneration.

152
Q

Low level hex A activity

A

prevent GM2 ganglioside accumulation in the brain

153
Q

Tay sachs

correct characterization of individuals

A

screening or diagnos- tic tests

154
Q

HEMOGLOBINOPATHIES

Structural variants, which alter

A

amino acid
sequence of the globin polypeptide, altering properties such as its ability to transport oxygen, or reducing its stability

155
Q

Thalassemias are diseases that result from

A

decreased abundance of one or more of the globin chains

156
Q

Hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin, a group of clinically benign conditions that impair

A

perinatal switch from γ-globin to β-globin synthesis

157
Q

Most variant hemoglobins result from

A

point mutations in one of the globin structural genes

158
Q

Variants that cause hemolytic anemia

A

make the hemoglobin tetramer unstable.

159
Q

Variants with altered oxygen transport

A

increased or decreased oxygen affinity or to the formation of methemoglobin, a form of globin incapable of reversible oxygenation.

160
Q

Variants due to mutations in the coding region that cause thalassemia

A

reduce the abundance of a globin polypeptide.

161
Q

Sickle cell hemoglobin substitution

A

codon of the sixth amino acid of β-globin

glutamic acid to valine

162
Q

Sickle cell is caused by

A

Homozygosity of 6glu val sub

163
Q

Sickle cell inheritance

A

autosomal recessive

164
Q

Hemoglobin molecules containing the mutant β-globin subunits are normal in their ability to perform their principal function of binding oxygen but

A

In deoxygenated blood, they are only one fifth as soluble as normal hemoglobin.

165
Q

strong modifier of the clinical severity of sickle cell disease is

A

patient’s level of Hb F (α2γ2)

166
Q

globin gene and two genes that encode transcription factors,— account for 40% to 50% of the variation in the levels of Hb F in patients with sickle cell disease

A

BCL11A and MYB

167
Q

Hb F–associated SNPs are also associated with

A

painful clinical episodes thought to be due to capillary occlusion caused by sickled red cells

168
Q

BCL11A gene is a transcription factor that normally

A

silences γ-globin expression,

shuts down Hb F production postnatally

169
Q

The unstable hemoglobins are due largely to

A

point mutations that cause denaturation of the hemoglobin tetramer in mature red blood cells

170
Q

denatured globin tetramers are insoluble and precipitate to form inclusions (Heinz bodies) that contribute to

A

damage of the red cell membrane and cause the hemolysis of mature red blood cells in the vascular tree

171
Q

Thalassemia damages the membrane and leading to premature red blood cell destruction

A

chain that is produced at the normal rate is in relative excess (due to mutations) in the absence of a complementary chain with which to form a tetramer, the excess normal chains eventually precipitate in the cell

172
Q

excess β or β-like chains are insoluble and precipitate in both precursors and mature cells causing

A

erythropoiesis

hemolysis

173
Q

Genetic disorders of α-globin production disrupt the formation of

A

fetal and adult hemoglobin

174
Q

Hemoglobin with a γ4 composition is known as

A

Hb Bart’s,

175
Q

β4 tetramer is called

A

Hb H

176
Q

infants with severe α-thalassemia and high levels of Hb Bart’s (γ4) suffer severe intrauterine hypoxia and are born with

A

massive generalized fluid accumulation, a condition called hydrops fetalis

177
Q

milder α-thalassemias, an anemia develops because of

A

gradual precipitation of the Hb H (β4) in the erythrocyte

178
Q

The most common forms of α-thalassemia are

A

gene deletions