PARASITOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Plasmodium Asexual life cycle consists of ____

A

shizogony and gametogony

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2
Q
  • has two elongated sucking grooves for attachment
  • have operculated eggs
  • intermediate hosts: fish and copepods
A

DIPHYLLOBOTHRIUM LATUM

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3
Q

Treatment for MALARIA depending on clinical setting

A
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4
Q

Potassium permanganate stain is used for diagnosis

A

Clonorchis sinensis

Ovoid with melon-like ridges and abopercular protuberance

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5
Q
  • Lives inside the body of the host
  • Presence in host connotes INFECTION
A

Endoparasite

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6
Q

o chronic watery diarrhea

o edema, wasting

o protein-losing enteropathy

o hypogammaglobulinemia

A

CAPILLARIA PHILIPPINENSIS

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7
Q

DOC for Filariasis

A

Diethylcarbamazine (DEC)

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8
Q

AMERICAN trypanosomiasis or Chagas disease

A

TRYPANOSOMA CRUZI

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9
Q

DOC for Naegleria fowleri

A

Amphotericin B

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10
Q

• intraerythrocytic ring-shaped trophozoites in tetrads in the form of a Maltese cross

A

BABESIA MICROTI

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11
Q

Differentiate T. brucei gambiense vs rhodesiense

A
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12
Q

DOC for schistosomiasis

A

• Praziquantel

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13
Q

• Guinea fire worm

  • transmitted when copepods are swallowed in water
  • clinical findings:
  • pruritic painful papule
  • live worm in skin ulcer
A

Dracunculus medinensis

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14
Q

dormant stage (hypnozoites) is observed in what species of Plasmodium?

A

P. vivax and P. ovale

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15
Q
  • acute adenolymphangitis
  • expatriate syndrome
  • hydrocoele
  • elephantiasis
  • milky urine (chyluria)
A

FILARIASIS

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16
Q

Infected individual is further infected with same species leading to massive infection (e.g. Ascaris, Entamoeba)

A

Hyper infection or Superinfection

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17
Q
  • Mild disease
    • fever, muscle pain, periorbital edema, eosinophilia and hemorrhagic phenomena (subconjunctival, splinter)
  • Severe disease
    • myocarditis, encephalitis, pneumonia, respiratory myositis
A

TRICHINELLA SPIRALIS

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18
Q

allowing an uninfected, laboratory-raised reduviid bug to feed on the patient

A

xenodiagnosis

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19
Q

nodule near bite (chagoma) is seen in

A

Acute Chagas’ disease

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20
Q

facilitate attachment of giardia lamblia to avoid peristalsis

A

adhesive disc and lectin

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21
Q
  • African eye worm
  • transmitted by deer fly or mango fly (Chryops)
  • characterized by
    • subcutaneous edema (calabar swellings)
    • worm crawling across the conjunctiva

DOC: DEC

A

Loa loa

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22
Q
  • transmitted in undercooked seafoods
  • eosinophilic meningitis

• MCC of parasitic meningitis

A

Angiostronglyus cantonensis

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23
Q

causes megaloblastic anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency

A

DIPHYLLOBOTHRIUM LATUM

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24
Q

May exist in a free-living state but becomes parasitic when the need arises

A

Facultative Parasite

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25
Q

Cerebral malaria

A

P. falciparum

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26
Q

“old man with eyeglasses”

A

Giardia lamblia

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27
Q

tropical pulmonary eosinophilia

  • small epithelioid granulomas (Meyers-Kouwenaar bodies), composed of aggregates of microfilariae surrounded by acidophilic hyaline material
A

FILARIASIS

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28
Q

ARTHROPODS OF MEDICAL IMPORTANCE

A
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29
Q

in ECHINOCOCCUS GRANULOSUS infection, HUMANS are the ____________ host

A

ACCIDENTAL INTERMEDIATE HOSTS

(Dogs are the definitive hosts)

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30
Q

DOC for Leishmaniasis

A

Sodium stibogluconate (Pentavalent antimonial; antimony is a chemical element with the symbol Sb (from Latin: stibium) and atomic number 51)

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31
Q

• presence of eggs cause granuloma formation

o liver granulomas lead to presinusoidal obstruction, hepatomegaly and portal hypertension

• evade host defenses by coating themselves with host antigens

A

Schistosomiasis

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32
Q

• swallowing a weighted piece of string → trophozoites adhere to the string and can be visualized after withdrawal

A

String test

(Giardia Lamblia)

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33
Q

indurated skin ulcer (trypanosomal chancre) is seen in ____

A

T. brucei

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34
Q

plasmodium Sexual life cycle involves ___

A

Sporogony (in mosquitoes)

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35
Q

LOCAL EPIDEMIOLOGY: Sorsogon, Samar, Leyte, Palawan,

A

BANCROFTIAN FILARIASIS

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36
Q

Diagnostic Stage of Malaria

A

trophozoites

(ring forms)

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37
Q

In the acute form, a cyclical fever spike (approx. every 2 weeks) occurs that is related to antigenic variation

A

T. brucei infection

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38
Q

Malaria prophylaxis

A
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39
Q

DOC for Enterobius (Pinworm)

A

Pyrantel pamoate

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40
Q

• most common tapeworm of dogs and cats

  • Transmission: ingestion of dog or cat fleas carrying cysticerci
  • Diagnosis: “barrel-shaped” proglottids in stools
  • Drug-of-choice: NICLOSAMIDE
A

Dipylidium caninum

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41
Q

drug of choice for ascariasis

A

ALbendazole

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42
Q

DOC for Paragonimus

A

Praziquantel

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43
Q

return of a disease after its apparent cessation (1-6 mos) due to reactivation of hypnozoites (RELAPSE) is seen in ____

A

P. ovale and P. vivax

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44
Q
  • Asian liver flukes
  • hermaphrodite
  • intermediate hosts

o Snail (Parafossarulus)

o Fish (Cyprinidae)

A

o Clonorchis sinensis

o Opistorchis viverrini

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45
Q

DOC for TRICHURIS TRICHIURA

A

Mebendazole

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46
Q
  • itching and dermatitis (swimmer’s itch)
  • Katayama fever
    • systemic hypersensitivity, resembling serum sickness
A

Schistosomiasis

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47
Q

DOC for CRYPTOSPORIDIUM PARVUM infection

A

Nitazoxanide

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48
Q

Diagnostic stage of T. brucei

A

trypomastigotes in blood

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49
Q

Diagnostic stage of ECHINOCOCCUS GRANULOSUS

A

hydatid cysts

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50
Q
  • E. histolytica stage that predominates in non-diarrheal stools
  • smaller than Entamoeba coli
  • has four nuclei (Entamoeba coli has 8)
A

Cyst

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51
Q

Vector of Leishmaniasis

A

sandfly (Phlebotomus)

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52
Q

in neurocysticercosis, humans are the ______ host

A

ACCIDENTAL INTERMEDIATE HOST

(harbors the larval stage - cysticerci)

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53
Q

Associated with abortion, stillbirth, or neonatal disease with hydrocephalus, encephalitis, chorioretinitis and hepatosplenomegaly, intracranial calcifications

A

Congenital Toxoplasmosis

*image of chorioretinitis

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54
Q

chest x-ray: ring-shadowed opacity

A

Paragonimiasis

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55
Q

DIAGNOSTIC STAGE of T. cruzi

A

trypomastigotes in blood

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56
Q

most frequently and severely affected tissue of T. cruzi

A

cardiac muscle

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57
Q

Maurer Dots

(coarse granulations present in red blood cells)

A

P. falciparum

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58
Q

IS to both T. solium and T. saginata

A

Cysticerci

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59
Q

Oval. Small lateral spine is often seen or may appear as a small hook or “knob” located in a depression in the shell.

A

S. japonicum

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60
Q

cause diarrhea in immunocompromised patients

A

CYCLOSPORA CAYETANENSIS & ISOSPORA BELLI

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61
Q

LOCAL EPIDEMIOLOGY: Eastern Samar, Agusan del Sur, Palawan, Sulu

A

MALAYAN FILARIASIS

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62
Q

embryonated eggs can cause autoinfection and hyperinfectiono; leads to ulcerative and compressive degeneration of enterocytes, resulting in severe malabsorption

A

CAPILLARIA PHILIPPINENSIS

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63
Q

New World hookworm

A

Necator americanus

* with semilunar cutting plates (Ne-cut-tor!)

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64
Q

can cause rectal prolapse: from increased peristalsis expel the worms

A

Trichuris

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65
Q

• Rat tapeworm

  • Transmission: ingestion of RAT FLEA cysticercoid larvae
  • Accidental parasite
A

Hymenolepsis diminuta

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66
Q

infects young RBCs

A

P. vivax, P. ovale

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67
Q

Only nematode whose life cycle involves a migratory bird

A

CAPILLARIA PHILIPPINENSIS

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68
Q

Schuffner Dots

(punctate granulations present in red blood cells)

A

P. ovale and P. vivax

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69
Q
  • In females: watery, foul-smelling, greenish vaginal discharge accompanied by itching and burning; strawberry cervix
  • In males: frequently asymptomatic; occasionally, urethritis, epididymitis, and prostatitis can occur.
A

Trichomoniasis

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70
Q

Parasite attains sexual maturity

A

Definitive or Final Host

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71
Q
  • only ciliated protozoan to cause human disease
  • Pigs are the main reservoir → diarrhea among slaughter house worker
  • Diagnosis is made by finding large ciliated trophozoites or large cyst with a characteristic V-shaped nucleus in the stool
  • round-based, wide-necked intestinal intestinal ulcers
A

BALANTIDIUM COLI

72
Q

Graham scotch tape technique: D-shaped eggs

A

ENTEROBIUS VERMICULARIS

73
Q

Elongated with rounded anterior end and terminal spine at posterior end. Found in urine, occasionally in feces. Egg often covered with debris.

A

S. haematobium

74
Q

IS of CAPILLARIA PHILIPPINENSIS

A

Infective larvae

75
Q

Harbors the asexual or larval stage

A

Intermediate Host

76
Q

IS of schistosomiasis

A

cercariae

77
Q

DOC for trichinella

A

Thiabendazole

78
Q

Mazzotti reaction: Accentuation of keratitis with antifilarial treatment

A

ONCHOCERCA VOLVULUS

The Mazzotti reaction is a symptom complex seen in patients after undergoing treatment of onchocerciasis with the medication diethylcarbamazine (DEC). This is due to Inflammatory reaction to lysis of the worms. Mazzotti reactions can be life- threatening and are characterized by fever, urticaria, swollen and tender lymph nodes, tachycardia, hypotension, arthralgias, edema and abdominal pain that occurs within 7 days of treatment of microfiliriasis.

79
Q

Romaña sign is seen in ___

A

Acute Chagas’ disease

80
Q

IS of STRONGYLOIDES STERCORALIS

A

• filariform larvae

81
Q

Kala-azar

A

Visceral Leishmaniasis

(L. donovani)

82
Q

DOC for Giardiasis

A

Metronidazole

83
Q

Malarial drug that kill parasitic forms only in the erythrocyte

A

Blood Schizonticides

(EXAMPLES: chloroquine, quinine)

84
Q

falling leaf motility

A

GIARDIA LAMBLIA

85
Q

Exists only as a TROPHOZOITE

A

Trichmonas vaginalis

86
Q

Malaria: Recrudescence

*recurrence of symptoms after a temporary abatement (2-4 weeks)

A

P. falciparum and P. malariae

87
Q

Vector of TRYPANOSOMA BRUCEI

A

tsetse fly (Glossina)

88
Q

Diagnostic Stage of Ascaris

A

unembryonated egg

89
Q

deep hyperesthesia (Kerandel sign) is seen in ___

A

T. brucei

90
Q

intermediate host of schistosoma

A

Oncomelania hupensis quadrasi

91
Q

whipworm

A

Trichuris trichiura

92
Q

• Areas of Endemicity

o Sorsogon, Samar, Leyte, Oriental Mindoro, Bohol, all of Mindanao EXCEPT Misamis Oriental

A

Schistosomiasis

93
Q

DOC for Toxoplasmosis

A

Sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine

94
Q

Definitive Host for Plasmodium

A

Mosquito

95
Q

INFECTIVE STAGE of T. cruzi

A

metacyclic trypomastigotes

96
Q

DOC for T. cruzi infection

A

Nifurtimox

97
Q
  • free-living ameba
  • acquired while swimming in contaminated pools

• Primary Amebic Meningoencephalitis

• occurs in otherwise healthy persons Trophozoites can penetrate the nasal mucosa and cribriform plate

A

NAEGLERIA FOWLERI

98
Q

Virulence Factors for E. histolytica

A
  • lectin mediates adherence
  • amebapores for penetration
  • cysteine proteases for cytopathic effect
99
Q

kill schizonts in the liver

A

Tissue Schizonticides

(EXAMPLE: primaquine)

100
Q

utilizes Harada-Mori culture - method of incubating fecal material on a filter paper strip in a test tube containing water (cover one-third of the length of the paper strip) for the purpose of culturing and recovering nematode larvae

A

Strongyloides stercoralis, hookworm

101
Q

Kato-katz technique: barrel-shaped eggs with bipolar plugs

* football or Chinese lantern-shaped

A

TRICHURIS TRICHIURA

102
Q

_________ is more frequently found in the superior mesenteric veins draining the small intestine

_________ occurs more often in the inferior mesenteric veins draining the large intestine

A

S. japonicum

S. mansoni

103
Q

Luminal Amebicides

A

o act only in the lumen of the bowel

o EXAMPLES: diloxanide furoate, iodoquinol, paromomycin

104
Q

Tissue Amebicides

A

o act on organisms in the bowel wall and the liver

o EXAMPLES: chloroquine, emetines, metronidazole, tinidazole

105
Q

IS of all flukes except schistosomiasis

A

metacercariae

106
Q

worms with a LUNG MIGRATION phase

A
  • Ascaris
  • Hookworms
  • Strongyloides

*hypersensitivity pneumonitis (Loeffler syndrome)

107
Q

Differentiate Wuchereria vs Brugia

A
108
Q

• Dwarf tapeworm

• most frequently found tapeworm in developed countries

  • Ingestion of cysticercoid larvae from infected rice or flour beetles
  • eggs are directly infectious for humans
  • eggs either pass in the stool or can reinfect the small intestine (autoinfection)
  • Eggs: 8-10 polar filaments and sixhooked larva
  • Treatment: PRAZIQUANTEL
A

Hymenolepsis nana

109
Q

heterophil-negative mononucleosis

A

Toxoplasmosis in immunocompetent

110
Q
  • composed of a scolex and only three proglottids
  • one of the smallest tapeworms
  • intermediate hosts: sheep/man
  • definitive host: dog
A

ECHINOCOCCUS GRANULOSUS

111
Q

diagnosis of scabies should be confirmed by identifying

A

mite or mite eggs or fecal matter (scybala)

112
Q

kills gametocytes in human blood

A

Gametocides

(EXAMPLES: primaquine)

113
Q

diagnosis is via muscle biopsy

A

TRICHINELLA SPIRALIS

* disseminate hematogenously to striated skeletal muscle

*encysted within a host-derived cell (nurse cell)

114
Q

• Chronic disease

o serpiginous track (larva currens)

o duodenitis

o paradoxical asthma

o hyperinfection syndrome

A

STRONGYLOIDES STERCORALIS

115
Q
  • Definitive hosts: FOXES
  • Intermediate host: RODENTS
  • Transmission: accidental ingestion of food contaminated with fox feces
  • larvae form multiloculated cysts (honeycomb vesicles)
  • Treatment: ALBENDAZOLE; surgical cyst removal
A

Echinococcus multilocularis

116
Q

prevent sporogony and multiplication in the mosquito

A

Sporonticides

(EXAMPLES: proguanil, pyrimethamine)

117
Q

Plasmodium that infects ALL stages of RBC

A

P. falciparum

118
Q

Parasite does not develop further to later stages

A

Paratenic Host

119
Q

Diagnostic Stage of Toxoplasma gondii

A

trophozoite (bradyzoites)

120
Q

most debilitating nematode infection

A

WUCHERERIA AND BRUGIA

121
Q

Manifests as:

o microcytic anemia

o hypoalbuminemia

A

Chronic hookworm infection

122
Q

TREATMENT OF AFRICAN SLEEPING SICKNESS

A

“WePE”

“EaSM”

123
Q

Infective stage of T. brucei

A

metacyclic trypomastigotes

124
Q

o myocarditis, dilated cardiomyopathy with apical atrophy

o megacolon, megaesophagus (secondary achalasia)

o Death is usually due to cardiac arrhythmias or congestive heart failure

A

Chronic Trypanosomiasis

125
Q

WEST african sleeping sickness

A

Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

“Mnemonics: WeGER (WEST = GAMBIENSE, EAST = RHODESIENSE)”

126
Q

• Need a host at some stage of their life cycle to complete development and propagation

A

Obligate Parasite

127
Q

Vector of BABESIA MICROTI

A

Ixodes tick

128
Q

INFECTIVE STAGE of DIPHYLLOBOTHRIUM LATUM

A

plerocercoid larvae

129
Q
  • Lives outside the body of the host
  • Presence in host connotes INFESTATION
A

Ectoparasite

130
Q

Plasmodium that infects old RBCs

A

P. malariae

131
Q

Plasmodium infective stage to mosquito

A

Gametocytes

132
Q

undergoes parthenogenesis

A

STRONGYLOIDES STERCORALIS

133
Q

banana-shaped gametocyte

A

P. falciparum

134
Q

• lung fluke

  • hermaphrodite
  • intermediate hosts

o snail (Antemelonia asperata)

o mountain crab (Sundathelphusa philippina)

A

PARAGONIMUS WESTERMANI

135
Q

DS of STRONGYLOIDES STERCORALIS

A

• rhabditiform larvae

136
Q

causes hyperinfection in immunocompromised patient

A

STRONGYLOIDES STERCORALIS

137
Q

Old World hookworm

A

Ancylostoma duodenale

* with teeth

138
Q

o most common extraintestinal form

o Usually in the posterosuperior aspect of the right lobe. This is according to majority of references. But according to Schwartz, it is the superior-anterior aspect.

o anchovy sauce-like aspirate

A

amebic liver abscess

139
Q

Elongated with prominent lateral spine near posterior end. Anterior end tapered and slightly curved.

A

S. mansoni

140
Q

Leading cause of preventable blindness in sub-Saharan Africa

A

ONCHOCERCA VOLVULUS

141
Q

Associated with cholangiocarcinoma

A

CLONORCHIS SINENSIS

142
Q

Characteristic appearance of T. gondii in the Microscopic examination of Giemsa-stained preparations

A

crescent-shaped trophozoites

143
Q

DOC of DIPHYLLOBOTHRIUM LATUM

A

Praziquantel

144
Q

Vector of ONCHOCERCA VOLVULUS

A

female blackfly (Simulium)

145
Q

“unholy trinity”

A

Ascaris, Trichuris, and hookworms

146
Q
  • E. histolytica stage found in diarrheal stools and within the intestinal and extraintestinal lesions
  • characteristically contain ingested red blood cells (erythrophagocytosis) → hematophagous
  • nucleus has a small central nucleolus and fine chromatin granules along the border of the nuclear membrane
A

Trophozoite

147
Q

Infective stage in neurocysticercosis (T. solium)

A

EGGS

148
Q

Infective stage of hooksworms

A

filariform larvae

149
Q

which member of the unholy triad does NOT present with pulmonary symptoms?

A

TRICHURIS TRICHIURA

150
Q

transmitted by reduviid bug (Triatoma) bite

A

TRYPANOSOMA CRUZI

151
Q

S. japonicum is more frequently found in _____

A

superior mesenteric veins

152
Q

DOC for STRONGYLOIDES STERCORALIS

A

• Ivermectin

153
Q

Test used for the diagnosis of acute and congenital infections of T. gondii

A

immune fluorescence assay for IgM antibody

154
Q

most common disease associated with Acanthamoeba infection

A

Keratitis (contact lens infection)

155
Q

Embryonation of Ascaris egg happens where?

A

Soil

156
Q

Plasmodium infecfective stage to humans

A

Sporozoites (from the mosquito)

157
Q

DOC of CAPILLARIA PHILIPPINENSIS

A

Albendazole

158
Q

IS of ascaris

A

Embryonated Egg

159
Q

plasma cells with cytoplasmic immunoglobulin globules (Morula cells of Mott) is seen in _____

A

T. brucei

160
Q

True or false. Trichinella releases larvae and not eggs.

A

TRUE

Trichinella is viviparous. The females release larvae that migrate to striated muscles where they encyst .

161
Q

leading cause of CHF in Latin America

A

Chronic Trypanosomiasis

162
Q

causes borborygmus

A

CAPILLARIA PHILIPPINENSIS

163
Q

Utilizes Circumoval precipitin test for diagnosis

A

Schistosoma

164
Q

serpiginous tracks (cutaneous larva migrans) is seen in ____

A

Hookworm infection

*ground itch at site of entry

165
Q

peanut-shaped eggs with flattened bipolar plugs

A

Capillaria philippinensis

166
Q

DS of CAPILLARIA PHILIPPINENSIS

A

unembryonated egg

167
Q

enlargement of the posterior cervical LN (Winterbottom sign)

A

T. brucei

168
Q

o dermal nodules

o hanging groin

o lizard skin

o river blindness

A

ONCHOCERCA VOLVULUS

169
Q

Ziemann Dots

(fine dots present in red blood cells)

A

P. malariae

170
Q

ring enhancing lesions caused by T. gondii is seen in

A

Immunocompromised

171
Q

o mass-like lesion in abdomen associated with dysentery

o granulomatous lesion that may form in the cecal or rectosigmoid areas

A

Ameboma

172
Q

DIagnosis of Filariasis

A
  • Thick blood smear
    • Curved or kinky microfilariae
  • Specimen collection best done at night between 8 PM and 4 AM
    • nocturnal periodicity
  • DEC provocation test
173
Q

Intermediate Host of Plasmodium

A

Humans

174
Q

DOC for Asymptomatic Intestinal infection for Amebiasis

A

Diloxanide Furoate

175
Q

Allow life cycle to continue and become additional sources of human infection

A

Reservoir Host