PARASITOLOGY Flashcards
1
Q
The motile, reproducing stage, feeding stage of the Protozoa is which of the following?
A. Cyst
B. Trophozoite
C. Ova
D. Adult worm
A
B. Trophozoite
2
Q
Which of the following amebae has chromatoid bodies in the cyst stage?
A. Endolimax
B. Iodamoeba
C. Dientamoeba
D. Entamoeba
A
D. Entamoeba
3
Q
Amebiasis is caused by:
A. I. butschlii
B. E. polecki
C. E. histolytica
D. E. coli
A
C. E. histolytica
4
Q
Which of the following organs of the body is most often involved in extraintestinal amebiasis?
A. Lungs
B. Kidneys
C. Pancreas
D. Liver
A
D. Liver
5
Q
Which of the following characteristics of true amebae?
A. Peripheral chromatin on the nuclear body
B. Chromatin bodies in the cyst
C. Include pathogens and nonpathogens
D. AOTA
A
D. AOTA
6
Q
Which of the following is a true ameba?
A. E. nana
B. E. hartmanni
C. D. fragilis
D. I. butschlii
A
B. E. hartmanni
7
Q
Amebae that inhabit the gastrointestinal tract of man are nonmotile, nonfeeding, and infective during which stage?
A. Pseudopod
B. Cyst
C. Trophozoite
D. Cryptozoite
A
B. Cyst
8
Q
Mature cysts of E. polecki have how many nuclei?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 1
D. 0
A
C. 1
9
Q
Which of the following has cysts with chromatoid bodies that have two pointed ends or that can be round, triangular, or oval?
A. E. coli
B. E. polecki
C. E. histolytica
D. E. gingivalis
A
A. E. coli
10
Q
Trophozoites of Entamoeba histolytica have the following characteristics:
A. Small delicated nuclear chromatin
B. Fine, even, peripheral chromatin
C. Progressive motility with hyaline, finger-like pseudopods
D. AOTA
A
D. AOTA
11
Q
Which of these trophozoites, when acting as a pathogen, is likely to ingest red blood cells of the host?
A. E. coli
B. E. hartmanni
C. E. histolytica
D. E. nana
A
C. E. histolytica
12
Q
The point of differentiation between Entamoeba histolytica and E. hartmanni is:
A. Presence of peripheral chromatin
B. Presence of chromatoid bodies
C. Only one possesses a cyst form
D. Size
A
D. Size
13
Q
The mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica has how many nuclei?
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. More than four
A
C. Four
14
Q
Failure to find bacteria in purulent spinal fluid should alert one to find the possibility of an infection with:
A. Viruses
B. Amebae
C. Flagellates
D. Worms
A
B. Amebae
15
Q
Which trophozoite is distinguished by the possession of achromatic granules surrounding its karyosomal chromatin?
A. E. nana
B. E. histolytica
C. E. coli
D. I. butschlii
A
D. I. butschlii
16
Q
Which of the following would have a double-walled, wrinkled cyst form?
A. N. fowleri
B. E. hartmanni
C. A. castellanii
D. D. fragilis
A
C. A. castellanii
17
Q
A cyst that possesses a single nucleus and a large glycogen vacuole that stains deeply with iodine belong to:
A. E. nana
B. I. butschlii
C. D. fragilis
D. E. coli
A
B. I. butschlii
18
Q
Some amebae have spiny, hyaline extensions called
A. Pseudopods
B. Limax forms
C. Cribriform plates
D. Acanthopods
A
D. Acanthopods
19
Q
Which are the best staining procedures for species of Naegleria and Acanthamoeba?
A. Gram stain
B. Hematoxylin and eosin
C. Wright stain
D. B and C
A
D. B and C
20
Q
Amebae inhabiting the central nervous system enter the body through the:
A. Mouth
B. Nasal mucosa
C. Ears
D. Feet
A
B. Nasal mucosa
21
Q
In which specimen are Acanthamoeba and Naegleria usually found?
A. Blood
B. Cerebrospinal fluid
C. Urine
D. Joint fluid
A
B. Cerebrospinal fluid
22
Q
Naegleria has which of the following characteristics?
A. Found in the brain
B. Trophozoite can assume a limax form
C. Trophozoite can become an ameba flagellate
D. AOTA
A
D. AOTA
23
Q
The trophozoite whose karyosomal chromatin appears as a rosette of 4-6 granules is identified as:
A. N. fowleri
B. D. fragilis
C. T. gondii
D. B. coli
A
A. N. fowleri
24
Q
Which of the following are often mistaken for cysts of amebae?
A. Blastocystis hominis
B. Ammonium carbonate crystals
C. Ammonium magnesium phosphate crystals
D. Epithelial cells
A
A. Blastocystis hominis
25
Intestinal flagellates are usually which shape in the trophozoite stage?
A. Round
B. Oval
C. Pear-shaped
D. Triangular
C. Pear-shaped
26
Which of the following is pathognomonic for G. lamblia and the stage it is found in?
A. Spiral groove-trophozoite
B. Undulating membrane-cyst
C. Cytostome-trophozoite
D. Ventral sucking disk-trophozoite
D. Ventral sucking disk-trophozoite
27
Which of the following protozoa have an undulating membrane?
A. Trichomonas
B. Trypanosoma
C. Chilomastix
D. A and B
D. A and B
28
Infections with D. fragilis can show which of the following symptoms?
A. Diarrhea
B. Abdominal discomfort without diarrhea
C. Asymptomatic
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
29
What does D. fragilis have in common with T. vaginalis?
A. Both are ciliate
B. Both can appear as urine contaminants
C. Neither has a cyst form
D. AOTA
C. Neither has a cyst form
30
Which flagellate can be a pathogen of the small intestine?
A. Giardia
B. Trichomonas
C. Chilomastix
D. Strongyloides
A. Giardia
31
Which intestinal flagellate trophozoite has a sucking disc, 2 nuclei, 8 flagella, and an axostyle?
A. C. mesnili
B. D. fragilis
C. G. lamblia
D. T. hominis
C. G. lamblia
32
Red and white blood cells in stool specimens are characteristics of:
A. Meningoencephalitis
B. Bacillary dysentery
C. Giardiasis
D. NOTA
B. Bacillary dysentery
33
A pear-shaped flagellate with jerky motility that is found in a urine specimen is identified as:
A. T. hominis
B. T. vaginalis
C. E. coli
D. Leptospira
B. T. vaginalis
34
Eighty percent of the trophozoites of D. fragilis have:
A. 2 nuclei
B. 3 nuclei
C. 1 nucleus
D. No nuclei
A. 2 nuclei
35
The only bilaterally symmetrical protozoan is:
A. Trichomonas
B. Dientamoeba
C. Giardia
D. Balantidium
C. Giardia
36
Which of the following is the intracellular form of blood and tissue flagellates?
A. Crithidial
B. Leishmanial
C. Trypanosomal
D. Leptomonad
B. Leishmanial
37
Which of the following is the cause of African sleeping sickness?
A. Leishmania
B. Trypanosoma
C. Plasmodium
D. Babesia
B. Trypanosoma
38
Which of the following is the vector of African sleeping sickness?
A. Reduviid bug (Triatoma)
B. Sandfly (Phlebotomus)
C. Tsetse fly (Glossina)
D. Ticks
C. Tsetse fly (Glossina)
39
Which species of Trypanosoma is the cause of Chaga’s disease?
A. Rhodesiense
B. Cruzi
C. Gambiense
D. A and C
B. Cruzi
40
Which of the following is characteristic of the trypanosome form of Trypanosoma cruzi?
A. Prominent kinetoplast
B. C-shaped
C. Thick organism
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
41
Which specimen would be suitable for a demonstration of the trypanosomes of sleeping sickness?
A. Blood
B. Fluid from lymph node
C. CSF
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
42
The extracellular form of Trypanosoma is a slender organism characterized by an undulating membrane and a free flagellum that arises:
A. Anteriorly from the nucleus
B. Posteriorly from the kinetoplast
C. Centrally from the anterior end
D. Posteriorly from the nucleus
B. Posteriorly from the kinetoplast
43
Which of the following is found within the reticuloendothelial cells?
A. L. donovani
B. H. capsulatum
C. Y. gondii
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
44
How is Trypanosoma cruzi transmitted?
A. Inhalation
B. Bite of tsetse fly
C. Bite of reduviid bug
D. Sexual contact
C. Bite of reduviid bug
45
A chagoma is a lesion seen in infections with:
A. Trypanosoma gambiense
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
46
Which organism is the cause of kala-azar?
A. L. donovani
B. L. braziliensis
C. T. cruzi
D. T. gambiense
A. L. donovani
47
In the laboratory diagnosis of L. donovani, which is the preferred specimen in which to find Leishman-Donovani bodies?
A. Bone marrow
B. Blood
C. Vaginal secretions
D. CSF
A. Bone marrow
48
Which of the following is the only ciliate that is pathogenic in humans?
A. Babesia
B. Isospora
C. B. coli
D. E. coli
C. B. coli
49
A very large cyst whose double wall encloses a ciliated organism with one visible nucleus would be:
A. Transmitted by a mosquito to man
B. Acquired by accident by man, since it customarily infects swine
C. A member of the sporozoa
D. Demonstrated only by the trichrome stain
B. Acquired by accident by man, since it customarily infects swine
50
Which of the following structures are used for motility of Balantidium coli?
A. Flagella
B. Cilia
C. Pseudopodia
D. Undulating membrane
B. Cilia
51
Which nucleus in the trophozoite of Balantidium coli is the reproductive one?
A. Micronucleus
B. Macronucleus
C. A and B
D. Neither A and B
A. Micronucleus
52
Conjugation of trophozoites of Balantidium coli never occurs between:
A. Large organisms
B. Same size organisms
C. Large and small organisms
D. Very large organisms
B. Same size organisms
53
The definite host (vector) to Plasmodium is the:
A. Tsetse fly (Glossina)
B. Sandfly (Phlebotomus)
C. Female Anopheles mosquito
D. Male reduviid bug (Triatoma)
C. Female Anopheles mosquito
54
Which of the malarial organisms presents as pale, very ameboid ring trophozoites, infecting a large pale red blood cell with dots of hemoglobin?
A. P. ovale
B. P. malariae
C. P. falciparum
D. P. vivax
D. P. vivax
55
Which of the malarial organisms preferentially invades reticulocytes?
A. P. falciparum
B. P. malariae
C. P. vivax
D. AOTA
C. P. vivax
56
The malarial organism whose schizont resembles a “fruit pie” in which the merozoite form a rosette around the malarial pigment is:
A. P. malariae
B. P. vivax
C. P. ovale
D. P. falciparum
A. P. malariae
57
Which malarial organism characteristically has a band form trophozoite stretching across the red blood cells?
A. P. malariae
B. P. ovale
C. P. vivax
D. P. falciparum
A. P. malariae
58
The gametocyte of Plasmodium falciparum can be differentiated from that of other malarial species by:
A. Number of nuclei
B. Nuclear chromatin
C. Size
D. Shape
D. Shape
59
In which type of malaria can Ziemann’s stripping be found?
A. Vivax malaria
B. Malariae malaria
C. Ovale malaria
D. Falciparum
B. Malariae malaria
60
In which type of malaria can Maurer’s dots be found?
A. Vivax malaria
B. Malariae malaria
C. Ovale malaria
D. Falciparum
D. Falciparum
61
Which malarial organism features ring trophozoites that have double chromatin dots, applique forms and often have multiple parasites in the infected red blood cells?
A. P. vivax
B. P. falciparum
C. P. malariae
D. P. ovale
B. P. falciparum
62
Which malarial organism has large, coarse, red dots within a large, pale red blood cell with fimbriated edges?
A. P. vivax
B. P. falciparum
C. P. ovale
D. P. malariae
C. P. ovale
63
The sexual reproduction cycle in Plasmodium and Coccidia is referred to as:
A. Sporogony
B. Schizogony
C. Sporocyst
D. NOTA
A. Sporogony
64
What is the infective stage of the malarial parasite to the vector?
A. Cryptozoites
B. Trophozoite
C. Gametocyte
D. Ookinete
C. Gametocyte
65
What is the infective stage of the malarial parasite to humans?
A. Gametocyte
B. Cryptozoites
C. Schizonts
D. Sporozoites
D. Sporozoites
66
In which type of malaria is there synchronized rupture of the red blood cells every 72 hours?
A. Vivax malaria
B. Falciparum malaria
C. Ovale malaria
D. Malariae
D. Malariae
67
In falciparum malaria, there may be a sudden massive intravascular hemolysis producing hemoglobinuria. This is called:
A. Blackwater fever
B. Hemoglobinopathies
C. Macrophilia
D. A and C
A. Blackwater fever
68
Which hemoglobin is incompatible with malaria parasite survival?
A. Hb-CC
B. Hb-F
C. Hb-SS
D. Hb-A
C. Hb-SS
69
What is the name of the laboratory test that allows laboratory-bred reduviid bug to feed on patients suspected of having Chaga’s disease?
A. Complement fixation
B. Serodiagnosis
C. Xenodiagnosis
D. Western blot
C. Xenodiagnosis
70
Humans are infected with Babesia by:
A. Bite of ticks
B. Blood transfusion
C. Bite of sandfly
D. A and B
D. A and B
71
If immature oocysts of Isospora belli are found in stool specimens from infected humans, what should be done with the specimen for identification?
A. Leave at room temperature
B. Leave in the refrigerator
C. Leave in the incubator
D. Leave in the water bath
A. Leave at room temperature
72
What stage of Isospora is infective to humans?
A. Oocysts
B. Pseudocysts
C. Larval
D. Tachyzoites
A. Oocysts
73
Isospora belli immature oocysts contain/s:
A. Sporozoites
B. Tachyzoites
C. Pseudocysts
D. Sporoblast
D. Sporoblast
74
Infective oocysts of Isospora belli contain:
A. Sporozoites
B. Tachyzoites
C. Pseudocysts
D. Sporoblast
A. Sporozoites
75
The demonstration of retinochoroiditis and cerebral calcifications in a newborn would result in which of these laboratory requests?
A. Casoni skin test
B. MHA-ABS test for congenital syphilis
C. Ramon flocculation test
D. Titer of toxoplasma antibodies
D. Titer of toxoplasma antibodies
76
What is both the definitive intermediate host of Toxoplasma gondii?
A. Dog
B. Cow
C. Cat
D. Chicken
C. Cat
77
What is the appearance of Toxoplasma gondii in tissue fluids of man?
A. Oval
B. Crescent
C. Limax form
D. Ring form
B. Crescent
78
What constitute a positive result in the Sabin-Feldman dye test?
A. Toxoplasma becomes nonmotile
B. Toxoplasma can no longer be demonstrated as an intracellular organism
C. Toxoplasma loses its affinity for methylene blue dye
D. The mouse into which the immune serum is injected does not die from toxoplasmosis
C. Toxoplasma loses its affinity for methylene blue dye
79
Which of the following tests is used for detection of Cryptosporidium?
A. Sabin-Feldman dye test
B. G6PD test
C. Xenodiagnosis
D. Sheather’s sugar flotation
D. Sheather’s sugar flotation
80
Which of the following parasites poses a particular hazard for immunodeficient or immunosuppressed individuals?
A. Cryptosporidium
B. Giardia
C. Strongyloides
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
81
Which of the following parasites is associated with AIDS?
A. Isospora belli
B. Sarcocystis
C. Babesia
D. Cryptosporidium
D. Cryptosporidium
82
Which operculated ovum contains a miracidium and can appear in sputum, often accompanied by blood and Charcot-Leyden crystals?
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Paragonimus westermani
C. Schistosoma mansoni
D. Dipylidium caninum
B. Paragonimus westermani
83
Which of the schistosome eggs may be recovered in rectal biopsy?
A. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. B and C
D. B and C
84
The scientific name of the head of the tapeworm is:
A. Scolex
B. Proglottid
C. Strobila
D. Rostellum
A. Scolex
85
Which of the following worms have an oral and ventral shaped sucker in the adult stage?
A. Cestodes
B. Trematodes
C. Nematodes
D. Filariae
B. Trematodes
86
Which of the following are hermaphroditic?
A. Flukes
B. Roundworms
C. Tapeworms
D. A and C
D. A and C
87
Which of the following is the first intermediate host of the flukes?
A. Snail
B. Water plant
C. Fish
D. Crab
A. Snail
88
The common names for the schistosomes is:
A. Liver flukes
B. Intestinal flukes
C. Blood flukes
D. Lung flukes
C. Blood flukes
89
What is the common name for Clonorchis sinensis?
A. Lung fluke
B. Chinese liver fluke
C. Intestinal fluke
D. Kidney fluke
B. Chinese liver fluke
90
What is schistosomule?
A. Cercariae
B. Cercariae minus tail
C. Free-swimming cercariae
D. Metacercariae
B. Cercariae minus tail
91
The beef tapeworm is the common name for:
A. Taenia solium
B. Hymenolepis nana
C. E. granulosus
D. Taenia saginata
D. Taenia saginata
92
Which tapeworm proglottid makes its way across the fecal specimen by doubling movements, and is seen under the microscope to have numerous regular uterine branches (more than 15) resembling those of a tree?
A. T. saginata
B. T. solium
C. D. latum
D. D. caninum
A. T. saginata
93
Which of the following has an unarmed scolex?
A. Dwarf tapeworm
B. Beef tapeworm
C. Pork tapeworm
D. Dog tapeworm
B. Beef tapeworm
94
Which species of Taenia has 7 to 12 uterine branches?
A. T. solium
B. T. saginata
C. E. granulosus
D. NOTA
A. T. solium
95
A hexacanth embryo enclosed in a radially striated shell belongs to the genus:
A. Trichuris
B. Taenia
C. Trichostrongylus
D. Trichinella
B. Taenia
96
Which tapeworm infection has to be treated with great care so that man does not acquire the larval infection?
A. Paragonimiasis
B. Taeniasis solium
C. Dipylidiasis
D. Diphyllobothriasis
B. Taeniasis solium
97
A bile-stained egg that is 75 microns at its greatest diameter and contains a hexacanth embryo that lacks polar knobs or filaments is that of:
A. H. nana
B. H. diminuta
C. D. latum
D. T. saginata
B. H. diminuta
98
The “dwarf” tapeworm is another name for:
A. H. nana
B. H. diminuta
C. D. latum
D. T. solium
A. H. nana
99
The eggs of Echinococcus granulosus are found in the feces of:
A. Cats
B. Fish
C. Dogs
D. Cattle
C. Dogs
100
Which of the following is found in the intermediate host of Echinococcus granulosus?
A. Adult worm
B. Egg
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Pseudocyst
C. Hydatid cyst
101
Hydatid cyst infection of man is due to a larva of the tapeworm:
A. D. latum
B. F. hepatica
C. E. granulosus
D. H. nana
C. E. granulosus
102
The first intermediate host of Diphyllobothrium latum is:
A. Copepod
B. Snail
C. Fish
D. Crab
A. Copepod
103
The second intermediate host of Diphyllobothrium latum are:
A. Cattle
B. Water plants
C. Crayfish
D. Freshwater fish
D. Freshwater fish
104
What is the infective stage of the broad fish tapeworm to humans?
A. Plerocercoid
B. Coracidium
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Cysticercus
A. Plerocercoid
105
The eggs of this tapeworm are developed and have an operculum at one end and a small abopercular knob at the other end. The tapeworm is:
A. D. latum
B. D. caninum
C. P. westermani
D. H. diminuta
A. D. latum
106
In some individuals, particularly those of Scandinavian extraction, this worm can cause megaloblastic anemia:
A. D. latum
B. D. caninum
C. T. solium
D. N. americanus
A. D. latum
107
Which of the following worms have separate sexes?
A. Intestinal flukes
B. Liver flukes
C. Tapeworms
D. Blood flukes
D. Blood flukes
108
The male roundworm is differentiated from the female roundworm by its:
A. Dorsally curved posterior
B. Pointed posterior
C. Square posterior
D. Rounded posterior
A. Dorsally curved posterior
109
The best way to demonstrate a pinworm infection is by which of the following techniques?
A. Rectal biopsy
B. Third portion of urine voiding
C. Cellophane tape preparation
D. Flotation method
C. Cellophane tape preparation
110
The gravid female of Enterobius vermicularis deposits her embryonated eggs:
A. In the small intestines
B. On the perianal skin
C. In the large intestines
D. In sputum
B. On the perianal skin
111
Eggs that average 60 microns in length, are oval with one flattened side, and contain a motile larva, are those of:
A. E. vermicularis
B. T. solium
C. A. lumbricoides
D. N. americanus
A. E. vermicularis
112
Eggs that are bile-stained and have clear polar plugs belong to the:
A. Pinworm
B. Large roundworm
C. Whipworm
D. Hookworm
C. Whipworm
113
Which of the following nematodes does NOT have a free-living stage?
A. E. vermicularis
B. T. trichiura
C. A. lumbricoides
D. S. stercoralis
A. E. vermicularis
114
Which stage of Trichuris trichiura is infective to humans?
A. Rhabditiform larva
B. Filariform larva
C. Cyst
D. Embryonated egg
D. Embryonated egg
115
Where does the larva of ascaris lumbricoides go after it hatches in the small intestine?
A. Migrates through the blood, liver, lungs, pharynx, and then back to the small intestine
B. Migrates through the blood, brain, and pharynx
C. Migrates through the lymph nodes and back to the intestines
D. It does not migrate
A. Migrates through the blood, liver, lungs, pharynx, and then back to the small intestine
116
If an Ascaris egg lacks its bile-stained mamillated coat, we refer to the egg as:
A. Fertilized
B. Unfertilized
C. Decorticated
D. Mature
C. Decorticated
117
Trichuris trichiura, hookworm, and __________ form the “unholy three” of roundworms.
A. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. T. saginata
D. H. nana
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
118
Which of the following is the first stage larva of intestinal nematodes?
A. Filariform larva
B. Microfilaria
C. Rhabditiform larva
D. Cercaria
C. Rhabditiform larva
119
Which of the following organisms cause infections where the larvae migrate into the lymphatics and blood, lung, alveoli, bronchioles, pharynx, and then the small intestines?
A. N. americanus
B. A. duodenale
C. S. stercoralis
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
120
Which of the following is characteristic of the eggs of hookworms?
A. An embryo in the two-to-eight cell stage of cleavage
B. Oval, thin shell
C. Clear space between shell and embryo
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
121
The helminth that induces a hypochromic microcytic anemia in its host is the:
A. Hookworm
B. Whipworm
C. Pinworm
D. Threadworm
A. Hookworm
122
The rhabditiform larva of the hookworm has a:
A. Long buccal cavity equal to the width of the body
B. Short buccal activity equal to ½ width of the body
C. Medium length buccal cavity
D. A no buccal cavity
A. Long buccal cavity equal to the width of the body
123
Which of the following larval worms enters the host by penetration of the skin?
A. S. stercoralis
B. A. duodenale
C. N. americanus
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
124
A roundworm that inhabits the small intestine and usually is demonstrated as rhabditiform larvae in the fecal specimen is the:
A. Hookworm
B. Large roundowm
C. Whipworm
D. Threadworm
D. Threadworm
125
Muscle biopsy is a diagnostic technique employed to detect:
A. Trichinosis
B. Taeniasis
C. Trichuriasis
D. Ascariasis
A. Trichinosis
126
Which of the following roundworms give birth to her young?
A. Wuchereria
B. Mansonella
C. Brugia
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
127
A viviparous female nematode:
A. Produces living larvae
B. Produces eggs
C. Does not require a male to produce eggs
D. Does not require a second intermediate host
A. Produces living larvae
128
One of the differential characteristics of the microfilariae is the presence or absence of:
A. A nucleus
B. A sheath
C. A dorsal curvature of the posterior end
D. Flagella
B. A sheath
129
Adults of filarial worms live in:
A. Blood and feces
B. Urine and lymphatics
C. Subcutaneous tissue and blood
D. Lymphatics and subcutaneous tissue
D. Lymphatics and subcutaneous tissue
130
One of the pathological findings in infestations of Wuchereria is:
A. Blindness
B. Elephantiasis
C. Eye infections
D. Fibrotic nodules
B. Elephantiasis
131
The intermediate host of the guinea worm is the:
A. Mosquito
B. Black fly
C. Fly
D. Copepod
D. Copepod
132
Dirofilaria immitis is the:
A. Dog heartworm
B. Dog hookworm
C. Rat lungworm
D. Cercarial dermatitis
A. Dog heartworm
133
Dracunculus infections cause ulcers that:
A. On contact with water, release larvae
B. Contain eggs
C. Appear on the eye
D. NOTA
A. On contact with water, release larvae
134
Which of the following microfilariae does NOT have a sheath?
A. Wuchereria
B. Loa-loa
C. Mansonella
D. Brugia
C. Mansonella
135
Which of the following is the eye worm?
A. Wuchereria
B. Brugia
C. Onchocerca
D. Loa-loa
D. Loa-loa
136
Cutaneous larva migrans or creeping eruption is caused by:
A. Larvae of pinworms
B. Microfilariae
C. Filariform larvae of dog hookworm
D. Metacercariae
C. Filariform larvae of dog hookworm
137
Which of the following causes a chronic cough, pulmonary and artery obstruction but no invasion of the heart in humans?
A. Dirofilaria immitis
B. C. phillipinensis
C. Anisakis
D. A. brasiliensis
A. Dirofilaria immitis
138
Which of the following is caused by the ingestion of snails by humans?
A. Dog hookworm
B. Rat lungworm
C. Dog heartworm
D. Cat tapeworm
B. Rat lungworm
139
Cercarial dermatitis, commonly known as swimmer’s itch, is caused by:
A. Larvae of roundworms
B. Eggs of tapeworms
C. Schistosomule
D. Cercariae of schistosomes
D. Cercariae of schistosomes
140
What is the scientific name of the body of a tapeworm?
A. Strobila
B. Scolex
C. Rostellum
D. Proglottid
A. Strobila
141
The gravid segments of a tapeworm are filled with:
A. Male reproductive organs
B. Female reproductive organs
C. Eggs
D. Suckers
C. Eggs
142
A six-hooked embryo is known as:
A. Proglottid
B. Scolex
C. Strobila
D. Hexacanth
D. Hexacanth
143
“Ground itch” occurs in infections of hookworms at the:
A. Site of larval penetration of the skin
B. During larval migration
C. Allergic reaction
D. A and C
A. Site of larval penetration of the skin
144
Direct examination of stool specimens stained with iodine make the trophozoite of the Protozoa stain what color?
A. Yellow
B. Brown
C. Trophozoites are destroyed by iodine
D. Do not stain
C. Trophozoites are destroyed by iodine
145
What color does the cytoplasm of protozoan cysts stain an iodine wet stool preparation?
A. Red
B. Green
C. Colorless
D. Yellow-brown
D. Yellow-brown
146
What color do chromatoid bodies of protozoan cysts stain in an iodine wet stool preparation?
A. Yellow
B. Brown
C. Red
D. Do not stain
D. Do not stain
147
What is the advantage of the sedimentation method of concentrating stool specimens?
A. All eggs will sediment
B. Recovers operculated eggs
C. Fecal debris and soluble material can be removed
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
148
Trophozoite structures of protozoans, when stained with trichrome stain, appear:
A. Glycogen – colorless
B. Nucleus – rep purple
C. Charcot Leyden crystals – bright red
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
149
When stained with trichrome stain, chromatoid bodies appear what color?
A. Bright to red
B. Green
C. Black
D. Colorless
A. Bright to red
150
The preservative to be employed with the trichrome stain is:
A. Formalin
B. Alcohol
C. Polyvinyl alcohol
D. Saline
C. Polyvinyl alcohol
151
The ideal temperature at which to hold a fecal specimen for more than 1 hour is:
A. Freezer temperature
B. Refrigerator temperature
C. Room temperature
D. Incubator temperature
B. Refrigerator temperature
152
The preferred specific gravity of zinc sulfate solution for the flotation method is:
A. 1.01
B. 1.04
C. 1.18
D. 1.40
C. 1.18
153
What type of blood specimen is preferred for preparing blood smears for protozoa?
A. Finger puncture
B. Venipuncture
C. Arterial blood
D. Plasma
A. Finger puncture
154
What will happen if blood from a finger stick mixes with the alcohol used to clean the area?
A. “Fixes” red blood cells
B. Thick blood films become unsuitable for staining
C. A and B
D. Neither A nor B
A. “Fixes” red blood cells
155
Venipuncture blood is not recommended for:
A. Malaria, Babesia, Hemoflagellates
B. Amebae, malaria, Babesia
C. Babesia, Cryptosporidium, Hemoflagellates
D. Isospora, Amebae, Hemoflagellates
A. Malaria, Babesia, Hemoflagellates
156
To detect stippling, prepare blood films venipuncture within:
A. 1-2 minutes
B. 30 minutes to 1 hour after being drawn
C. 2 hours after being drawn
D. 5-10 minutes
B. 30 minutes to 1 hour after being drawn
