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APOLLON (MICROBIOLOGY) > PARASITOLOGY > Flashcards

PARASITOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

The motile, reproducing stage, feeding stage of the Protozoa is which of the following?
A. Cyst
B. Trophozoite
C. Ova
D. Adult worm

A

B. Trophozoite

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2
Q

Which of the following amebae has chromatoid bodies in the cyst stage?
A. Endolimax
B. Iodamoeba
C. Dientamoeba
D. Entamoeba

A

D. Entamoeba

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3
Q

Amebiasis is caused by:
A. I. butschlii
B. E. polecki
C. E. histolytica
D. E. coli

A

C. E. histolytica

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4
Q

Which of the following organs of the body is most often involved in extraintestinal amebiasis?
A. Lungs
B. Kidneys
C. Pancreas
D. Liver

A

D. Liver

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5
Q

Which of the following characteristics of true amebae?
A. Peripheral chromatin on the nuclear body
B. Chromatin bodies in the cyst
C. Include pathogens and nonpathogens
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

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6
Q

Which of the following is a true ameba?
A. E. nana
B. E. hartmanni
C. D. fragilis
D. I. butschlii

A

B. E. hartmanni

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7
Q

Amebae that inhabit the gastrointestinal tract of man are nonmotile, nonfeeding, and infective during which stage?
A. Pseudopod
B. Cyst
C. Trophozoite
D. Cryptozoite

A

B. Cyst

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8
Q

Mature cysts of E. polecki have how many nuclei?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 1
D. 0

A

C. 1

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9
Q

Which of the following has cysts with chromatoid bodies that have two pointed ends or that can be round, triangular, or oval?
A. E. coli
B. E. polecki
C. E. histolytica
D. E. gingivalis

A

A. E. coli

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10
Q

Trophozoites of Entamoeba histolytica have the following characteristics:
A. Small delicated nuclear chromatin
B. Fine, even, peripheral chromatin
C. Progressive motility with hyaline, finger-like pseudopods
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

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11
Q

Which of these trophozoites, when acting as a pathogen, is likely to ingest red blood cells of the host?
A. E. coli
B. E. hartmanni
C. E. histolytica
D. E. nana

A

C. E. histolytica

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12
Q

The point of differentiation between Entamoeba histolytica and E. hartmanni is:
A. Presence of peripheral chromatin
B. Presence of chromatoid bodies
C. Only one possesses a cyst form
D. Size

A

D. Size

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13
Q

The mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica has how many nuclei?
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. More than four

A

C. Four

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14
Q

Failure to find bacteria in purulent spinal fluid should alert one to find the possibility of an infection with:
A. Viruses
B. Amebae
C. Flagellates
D. Worms

A

B. Amebae

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15
Q

Which trophozoite is distinguished by the possession of achromatic granules surrounding its karyosomal chromatin?
A. E. nana
B. E. histolytica
C. E. coli
D. I. butschlii

A

D. I. butschlii

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16
Q

Which of the following would have a double-walled, wrinkled cyst form?
A. N. fowleri
B. E. hartmanni
C. A. castellanii
D. D. fragilis

A

C. A. castellanii

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17
Q

A cyst that possesses a single nucleus and a large glycogen vacuole that stains deeply with iodine belong to:
A. E. nana
B. I. butschlii
C. D. fragilis
D. E. coli

A

B. I. butschlii

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18
Q

Some amebae have spiny, hyaline extensions called
A. Pseudopods
B. Limax forms
C. Cribriform plates
D. Acanthopods

A

D. Acanthopods

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19
Q

Which are the best staining procedures for species of Naegleria and Acanthamoeba?
A. Gram stain
B. Hematoxylin and eosin
C. Wright stain
D. B and C

A

D. B and C

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20
Q

Amebae inhabiting the central nervous system enter the body through the:
A. Mouth
B. Nasal mucosa
C. Ears
D. Feet

A

B. Nasal mucosa

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21
Q

In which specimen are Acanthamoeba and Naegleria usually found?
A. Blood
B. Cerebrospinal fluid
C. Urine
D. Joint fluid

A

B. Cerebrospinal fluid

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22
Q

Naegleria has which of the following characteristics?
A. Found in the brain
B. Trophozoite can assume a limax form
C. Trophozoite can become an ameba flagellate
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

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23
Q

The trophozoite whose karyosomal chromatin appears as a rosette of 4-6 granules is identified as:
A. N. fowleri
B. D. fragilis
C. T. gondii
D. B. coli

A

A. N. fowleri

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24
Q

Which of the following are often mistaken for cysts of amebae?
A. Blastocystis hominis
B. Ammonium carbonate crystals
C. Ammonium magnesium phosphate crystals
D. Epithelial cells

A

A. Blastocystis hominis

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25
Q

Intestinal flagellates are usually which shape in the trophozoite stage?
A. Round
B. Oval
C. Pear-shaped
D. Triangular

A

C. Pear-shaped

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26
Q

Which of the following is pathognomonic for G. lamblia and the stage it is found in?
A. Spiral groove-trophozoite
B. Undulating membrane-cyst
C. Cytostome-trophozoite
D. Ventral sucking disk-trophozoite

A

D. Ventral sucking disk-trophozoite

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27
Q

Which of the following protozoa have an undulating membrane?
A. Trichomonas
B. Trypanosoma
C. Chilomastix
D. A and B

A

D. A and B

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28
Q

Infections with D. fragilis can show which of the following symptoms?
A. Diarrhea
B. Abdominal discomfort without diarrhea
C. Asymptomatic
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

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29
Q

What does D. fragilis have in common with T. vaginalis?
A. Both are ciliate
B. Both can appear as urine contaminants
C. Neither has a cyst form
D. AOTA

A

C. Neither has a cyst form

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30
Q

Which flagellate can be a pathogen of the small intestine?
A. Giardia
B. Trichomonas
C. Chilomastix
D. Strongyloides

A

A. Giardia

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31
Q

Which intestinal flagellate trophozoite has a sucking disc, 2 nuclei, 8 flagella, and an axostyle?

A. C. mesnili
B. D. fragilis
C. G. lamblia
D. T. hominis

A

C. G. lamblia

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32
Q

Red and white blood cells in stool specimens are characteristics of:
A. Meningoencephalitis
B. Bacillary dysentery
C. Giardiasis
D. NOTA

A

B. Bacillary dysentery

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33
Q

A pear-shaped flagellate with jerky motility that is found in a urine specimen is identified as:
A. T. hominis
B. T. vaginalis
C. E. coli
D. Leptospira

A

B. T. vaginalis

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34
Q

Eighty percent of the trophozoites of D. fragilis have:
A. 2 nuclei
B. 3 nuclei
C. 1 nucleus
D. No nuclei

A

A. 2 nuclei

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35
Q

The only bilaterally symmetrical protozoan is:
A. Trichomonas
B. Dientamoeba
C. Giardia
D. Balantidium

A

C. Giardia

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36
Q

Which of the following is the intracellular form of blood and tissue flagellates?
A. Crithidial
B. Leishmanial
C. Trypanosomal
D. Leptomonad

A

B. Leishmanial

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37
Q

Which of the following is the cause of African sleeping sickness?
A. Leishmania
B. Trypanosoma
C. Plasmodium
D. Babesia

A

B. Trypanosoma

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38
Q

Which of the following is the vector of African sleeping sickness?
A. Reduviid bug (Triatoma)
B. Sandfly (Phlebotomus)
C. Tsetse fly (Glossina)
D. Ticks

A

C. Tsetse fly (Glossina)

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39
Q

Which species of Trypanosoma is the cause of Chaga’s disease?
A. Rhodesiense
B. Cruzi
C. Gambiense
D. A and C

A

B. Cruzi

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40
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of the trypanosome form of Trypanosoma cruzi?
A. Prominent kinetoplast
B. C-shaped
C. Thick organism
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

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41
Q

Which specimen would be suitable for a demonstration of the trypanosomes of sleeping sickness?
A. Blood
B. Fluid from lymph node
C. CSF
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

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42
Q

The extracellular form of Trypanosoma is a slender organism characterized by an undulating membrane and a free flagellum that arises:
A. Anteriorly from the nucleus
B. Posteriorly from the kinetoplast
C. Centrally from the anterior end
D. Posteriorly from the nucleus

A

B. Posteriorly from the kinetoplast

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43
Q

Which of the following is found within the reticuloendothelial cells?
A. L. donovani
B. H. capsulatum
C. Y. gondii
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

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44
Q

How is Trypanosoma cruzi transmitted?
A. Inhalation
B. Bite of tsetse fly
C. Bite of reduviid bug
D. Sexual contact

A

C. Bite of reduviid bug

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45
Q

A chagoma is a lesion seen in infections with:
A. Trypanosoma gambiense
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. Trypanosoma cruzi

A

D. Trypanosoma cruzi

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46
Q

Which organism is the cause of kala-azar?
A. L. donovani
B. L. braziliensis
C. T. cruzi
D. T. gambiense

A

A. L. donovani

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47
Q

In the laboratory diagnosis of L. donovani, which is the preferred specimen in which to find Leishman-Donovani bodies?
A. Bone marrow
B. Blood
C. Vaginal secretions
D. CSF

A

A. Bone marrow

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48
Q

Which of the following is the only ciliate that is pathogenic in humans?
A. Babesia
B. Isospora
C. B. coli
D. E. coli

A

C. B. coli

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49
Q

A very large cyst whose double wall encloses a ciliated organism with one visible nucleus would be:
A. Transmitted by a mosquito to man
B. Acquired by accident by man, since it customarily infects swine
C. A member of the sporozoa
D. Demonstrated only by the trichrome stain

A

B. Acquired by accident by man, since it customarily infects swine

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50
Q

Which of the following structures are used for motility of Balantidium coli?
A. Flagella
B. Cilia
C. Pseudopodia
D. Undulating membrane

A

B. Cilia

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51
Q

Which nucleus in the trophozoite of Balantidium coli is the reproductive one?
A. Micronucleus
B. Macronucleus
C. A and B
D. Neither A and B

A

A. Micronucleus

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52
Q

Conjugation of trophozoites of Balantidium coli never occurs between:
A. Large organisms
B. Same size organisms
C. Large and small organisms
D. Very large organisms

A

B. Same size organisms

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53
Q

The definite host (vector) to Plasmodium is the:
A. Tsetse fly (Glossina)
B. Sandfly (Phlebotomus)
C. Female Anopheles mosquito
D. Male reduviid bug (Triatoma)

A

C. Female Anopheles mosquito

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54
Q

Which of the malarial organisms presents as pale, very ameboid ring trophozoites, infecting a large pale red blood cell with dots of hemoglobin?
A. P. ovale
B. P. malariae
C. P. falciparum
D. P. vivax

A

D. P. vivax

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55
Q

Which of the malarial organisms preferentially invades reticulocytes?
A. P. falciparum
B. P. malariae
C. P. vivax
D. AOTA

A

C. P. vivax

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56
Q

The malarial organism whose schizont resembles a “fruit pie” in which the merozoite form a rosette around the malarial pigment is:
A. P. malariae
B. P. vivax
C. P. ovale
D. P. falciparum

A

A. P. malariae

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57
Q

Which malarial organism characteristically has a band form trophozoite stretching across the red blood cells?
A. P. malariae
B. P. ovale
C. P. vivax
D. P. falciparum

A

A. P. malariae

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58
Q

The gametocyte of Plasmodium falciparum can be differentiated from that of other malarial species by:
A. Number of nuclei
B. Nuclear chromatin
C. Size
D. Shape

A

D. Shape

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59
Q

In which type of malaria can Ziemann’s stripping be found?
A. Vivax malaria
B. Malariae malaria
C. Ovale malaria
D. Falciparum

A

B. Malariae malaria

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60
Q

In which type of malaria can Maurer’s dots be found?
A. Vivax malaria
B. Malariae malaria
C. Ovale malaria
D. Falciparum

A

D. Falciparum

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61
Q

Which malarial organism features ring trophozoites that have double chromatin dots, applique forms and often have multiple parasites in the infected red blood cells?
A. P. vivax
B. P. falciparum
C. P. malariae
D. P. ovale

A

B. P. falciparum

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62
Q

Which malarial organism has large, coarse, red dots within a large, pale red blood cell with fimbriated edges?
A. P. vivax
B. P. falciparum
C. P. ovale
D. P. malariae

A

C. P. ovale

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63
Q

The sexual reproduction cycle in Plasmodium and Coccidia is referred to as:
A. Sporogony
B. Schizogony
C. Sporocyst
D. NOTA

A

A. Sporogony

64
Q

What is the infective stage of the malarial parasite to the vector?
A. Cryptozoites
B. Trophozoite
C. Gametocyte
D. Ookinete

A

C. Gametocyte

65
Q

What is the infective stage of the malarial parasite to humans?
A. Gametocyte
B. Cryptozoites
C. Schizonts
D. Sporozoites

A

D. Sporozoites

66
Q

In which type of malaria is there synchronized rupture of the red blood cells every 72 hours?
A. Vivax malaria
B. Falciparum malaria
C. Ovale malaria
D. Malariae

A

D. Malariae

67
Q

In falciparum malaria, there may be a sudden massive intravascular hemolysis producing hemoglobinuria. This is called:
A. Blackwater fever
B. Hemoglobinopathies
C. Macrophilia
D. A and C

A

A. Blackwater fever

68
Q

Which hemoglobin is incompatible with malaria parasite survival?
A. Hb-CC
B. Hb-F
C. Hb-SS
D. Hb-A

69
Q

What is the name of the laboratory test that allows laboratory-bred reduviid bug to feed on patients suspected of having Chaga’s disease?
A. Complement fixation
B. Serodiagnosis
C. Xenodiagnosis
D. Western blot

A

C. Xenodiagnosis

70
Q

Humans are infected with Babesia by:
A. Bite of ticks
B. Blood transfusion
C. Bite of sandfly
D. A and B

A

D. A and B

71
Q

If immature oocysts of Isospora belli are found in stool specimens from infected humans, what should be done with the specimen for identification?
A. Leave at room temperature
B. Leave in the refrigerator
C. Leave in the incubator
D. Leave in the water bath

A

A. Leave at room temperature

72
Q

What stage of Isospora is infective to humans?
A. Oocysts
B. Pseudocysts
C. Larval
D. Tachyzoites

A

A. Oocysts

73
Q

Isospora belli immature oocysts contain/s:
A. Sporozoites
B. Tachyzoites
C. Pseudocysts
D. Sporoblast

A

D. Sporoblast

74
Q

Infective oocysts of Isospora belli contain:
A. Sporozoites
B. Tachyzoites
C. Pseudocysts
D. Sporoblast

A

A. Sporozoites

75
Q

The demonstration of retinochoroiditis and cerebral calcifications in a newborn would result in which of these laboratory requests?
A. Casoni skin test
B. MHA-ABS test for congenital syphilis
C. Ramon flocculation test
D. Titer of toxoplasma antibodies

A

D. Titer of toxoplasma antibodies

76
Q

What is both the definitive intermediate host of Toxoplasma gondii?
A. Dog
B. Cow
C. Cat
D. Chicken

77
Q

What is the appearance of Toxoplasma gondii in tissue fluids of man?
A. Oval
B. Crescent
C. Limax form
D. Ring form

A

B. Crescent

78
Q

What constitute a positive result in the Sabin-Feldman dye test?
A. Toxoplasma becomes nonmotile
B. Toxoplasma can no longer be demonstrated as an intracellular organism
C. Toxoplasma loses its affinity for methylene blue dye
D. The mouse into which the immune serum is injected does not die from toxoplasmosis

A

C. Toxoplasma loses its affinity for methylene blue dye

79
Q

Which of the following tests is used for detection of Cryptosporidium?
A. Sabin-Feldman dye test
B. G6PD test
C. Xenodiagnosis
D. Sheather’s sugar flotation

A

D. Sheather’s sugar flotation

80
Q

Which of the following parasites poses a particular hazard for immunodeficient or immunosuppressed individuals?
A. Cryptosporidium
B. Giardia
C. Strongyloides
D. AOTA

81
Q

Which of the following parasites is associated with AIDS?
A. Isospora belli
B. Sarcocystis
C. Babesia
D. Cryptosporidium

A

D. Cryptosporidium

82
Q

Which operculated ovum contains a miracidium and can appear in sputum, often accompanied by blood and Charcot-Leyden crystals?
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Paragonimus westermani
C. Schistosoma mansoni
D. Dipylidium caninum

A

B. Paragonimus westermani

83
Q

Which of the schistosome eggs may be recovered in rectal biopsy?
A. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. B and C

A

D. B and C

84
Q

The scientific name of the head of the tapeworm is:
A. Scolex
B. Proglottid
C. Strobila
D. Rostellum

85
Q

Which of the following worms have an oral and ventral shaped sucker in the adult stage?
A. Cestodes
B. Trematodes
C. Nematodes
D. Filariae

A

B. Trematodes

86
Q

Which of the following are hermaphroditic?
A. Flukes
B. Roundworms
C. Tapeworms
D. A and C

A

D. A and C

87
Q

Which of the following is the first intermediate host of the flukes?
A. Snail
B. Water plant
C. Fish
D. Crab

88
Q

The common names for the schistosomes is:
A. Liver flukes
B. Intestinal flukes
C. Blood flukes
D. Lung flukes

A

C. Blood flukes

89
Q

What is the common name for Clonorchis sinensis?
A. Lung fluke
B. Chinese liver fluke
C. Intestinal fluke
D. Kidney fluke

A

B. Chinese liver fluke

90
Q

What is schistosomule?
A. Cercariae
B. Cercariae minus tail
C. Free-swimming cercariae
D. Metacercariae

A

B. Cercariae minus tail

91
Q

The beef tapeworm is the common name for:
A. Taenia solium
B. Hymenolepis nana
C. E. granulosus
D. Taenia saginata

A

D. Taenia saginata

92
Q

Which tapeworm proglottid makes its way across the fecal specimen by doubling movements, and is seen under the microscope to have numerous regular uterine branches (more than 15) resembling those of a tree?
A. T. saginata
B. T. solium
C. D. latum
D. D. caninum

A

A. T. saginata

93
Q

Which of the following has an unarmed scolex?
A. Dwarf tapeworm
B. Beef tapeworm
C. Pork tapeworm
D. Dog tapeworm

A

B. Beef tapeworm

94
Q

Which species of Taenia has 7 to 12 uterine branches?
A. T. solium
B. T. saginata
C. E. granulosus
D. NOTA

A

A. T. solium

95
Q

A hexacanth embryo enclosed in a radially striated shell belongs to the genus:
A. Trichuris
B. Taenia
C. Trichostrongylus
D. Trichinella

96
Q

Which tapeworm infection has to be treated with great care so that man does not acquire the larval infection?
A. Paragonimiasis
B. Taeniasis solium
C. Dipylidiasis
D. Diphyllobothriasis

A

B. Taeniasis solium

97
Q

A bile-stained egg that is 75 microns at its greatest diameter and contains a hexacanth embryo that lacks polar knobs or filaments is that of:
A. H. nana
B. H. diminuta
C. D. latum
D. T. saginata

A

B. H. diminuta

98
Q

The “dwarf” tapeworm is another name for:
A. H. nana
B. H. diminuta
C. D. latum
D. T. solium

A

A. H. nana

99
Q

The eggs of Echinococcus granulosus are found in the feces of:
A. Cats
B. Fish
C. Dogs
D. Cattle

100
Q

Which of the following is found in the intermediate host of Echinococcus granulosus?
A. Adult worm
B. Egg
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Pseudocyst

A

C. Hydatid cyst

101
Q

Hydatid cyst infection of man is due to a larva of the tapeworm:
A. D. latum
B. F. hepatica
C. E. granulosus
D. H. nana

A

C. E. granulosus

102
Q

The first intermediate host of Diphyllobothrium latum is:
A. Copepod
B. Snail
C. Fish
D. Crab

A

A. Copepod

103
Q

The second intermediate host of Diphyllobothrium latum are:
A. Cattle
B. Water plants
C. Crayfish
D. Freshwater fish

A

D. Freshwater fish

104
Q

What is the infective stage of the broad fish tapeworm to humans?
A. Plerocercoid
B. Coracidium
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Cysticercus

A

A. Plerocercoid

105
Q

The eggs of this tapeworm are developed and have an operculum at one end and a small abopercular knob at the other end. The tapeworm is:
A. D. latum
B. D. caninum
C. P. westermani
D. H. diminuta

A

A. D. latum

106
Q

In some individuals, particularly those of Scandinavian extraction, this worm can cause megaloblastic anemia:
A. D. latum
B. D. caninum
C. T. solium
D. N. americanus

A

A. D. latum

107
Q

Which of the following worms have separate sexes?
A. Intestinal flukes
B. Liver flukes
C. Tapeworms
D. Blood flukes

A

D. Blood flukes

108
Q

The male roundworm is differentiated from the female roundworm by its:
A. Dorsally curved posterior
B. Pointed posterior
C. Square posterior
D. Rounded posterior

A

A. Dorsally curved posterior

109
Q

The best way to demonstrate a pinworm infection is by which of the following techniques?
A. Rectal biopsy
B. Third portion of urine voiding
C. Cellophane tape preparation
D. Flotation method

A

C. Cellophane tape preparation

110
Q

The gravid female of Enterobius vermicularis deposits her embryonated eggs:
A. In the small intestines
B. On the perianal skin
C. In the large intestines
D. In sputum

A

B. On the perianal skin

111
Q

Eggs that average 60 microns in length, are oval with one flattened side, and contain a motile larva, are those of:
A. E. vermicularis
B. T. solium
C. A. lumbricoides
D. N. americanus

A

A. E. vermicularis

112
Q

Eggs that are bile-stained and have clear polar plugs belong to the:
A. Pinworm
B. Large roundworm
C. Whipworm
D. Hookworm

A

C. Whipworm

113
Q

Which of the following nematodes does NOT have a free-living stage?
A. E. vermicularis
B. T. trichiura
C. A. lumbricoides
D. S. stercoralis

A

A. E. vermicularis

114
Q

Which stage of Trichuris trichiura is infective to humans?
A. Rhabditiform larva
B. Filariform larva
C. Cyst
D. Embryonated egg

A

D. Embryonated egg

115
Q

Where does the larva of ascaris lumbricoides go after it hatches in the small intestine?
A. Migrates through the blood, liver, lungs, pharynx, and then back to the small intestine
B. Migrates through the blood, brain, and pharynx
C. Migrates through the lymph nodes and back to the intestines
D. It does not migrate

A

A. Migrates through the blood, liver, lungs, pharynx, and then back to the small intestine

116
Q

If an Ascaris egg lacks its bile-stained mamillated coat, we refer to the egg as:
A. Fertilized
B. Unfertilized
C. Decorticated
D. Mature

A

C. Decorticated

117
Q

Trichuris trichiura, hookworm, and __________ form the “unholy three” of roundworms.
A. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. T. saginata
D. H. nana

A

B. Ascaris lumbricoides

118
Q

Which of the following is the first stage larva of intestinal nematodes?
A. Filariform larva
B. Microfilaria
C. Rhabditiform larva
D. Cercaria

A

C. Rhabditiform larva

119
Q

Which of the following organisms cause infections where the larvae migrate into the lymphatics and blood, lung, alveoli, bronchioles, pharynx, and then the small intestines?
A. N. americanus
B. A. duodenale
C. S. stercoralis
D. AOTA

120
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of the eggs of hookworms?
A. An embryo in the two-to-eight cell stage of cleavage
B. Oval, thin shell
C. Clear space between shell and embryo
D. AOTA

121
Q

The helminth that induces a hypochromic microcytic anemia in its host is the:
A. Hookworm
B. Whipworm
C. Pinworm
D. Threadworm

A

A. Hookworm

122
Q

The rhabditiform larva of the hookworm has a:
A. Long buccal cavity equal to the width of the body
B. Short buccal activity equal to ½ width of the body
C. Medium length buccal cavity
D. A no buccal cavity

A

A. Long buccal cavity equal to the width of the body

123
Q

Which of the following larval worms enters the host by penetration of the skin?
A. S. stercoralis
B. A. duodenale
C. N. americanus
D. AOTA

124
Q

A roundworm that inhabits the small intestine and usually is demonstrated as rhabditiform larvae in the fecal specimen is the:
A. Hookworm
B. Large roundowm
C. Whipworm
D. Threadworm

A

D. Threadworm

125
Q

Muscle biopsy is a diagnostic technique employed to detect:
A. Trichinosis
B. Taeniasis
C. Trichuriasis
D. Ascariasis

A

A. Trichinosis

126
Q

Which of the following roundworms give birth to her young?
A. Wuchereria
B. Mansonella
C. Brugia
D. AOTA

127
Q

A viviparous female nematode:
A. Produces living larvae
B. Produces eggs
C. Does not require a male to produce eggs
D. Does not require a second intermediate host

A

A. Produces living larvae

128
Q

One of the differential characteristics of the microfilariae is the presence or absence of:
A. A nucleus
B. A sheath
C. A dorsal curvature of the posterior end
D. Flagella

A

B. A sheath

129
Q

Adults of filarial worms live in:
A. Blood and feces
B. Urine and lymphatics
C. Subcutaneous tissue and blood
D. Lymphatics and subcutaneous tissue

A

D. Lymphatics and subcutaneous tissue

130
Q

One of the pathological findings in infestations of Wuchereria is:
A. Blindness
B. Elephantiasis
C. Eye infections
D. Fibrotic nodules

A

B. Elephantiasis

131
Q

The intermediate host of the guinea worm is the:
A. Mosquito
B. Black fly
C. Fly
D. Copepod

A

D. Copepod

132
Q

Dirofilaria immitis is the:
A. Dog heartworm
B. Dog hookworm
C. Rat lungworm
D. Cercarial dermatitis

A

A. Dog heartworm

133
Q

Dracunculus infections cause ulcers that:
A. On contact with water, release larvae
B. Contain eggs
C. Appear on the eye
D. NOTA

A

A. On contact with water, release larvae

134
Q

Which of the following microfilariae does NOT have a sheath?
A. Wuchereria
B. Loa-loa
C. Mansonella
D. Brugia

A

C. Mansonella

135
Q

Which of the following is the eye worm?
A. Wuchereria
B. Brugia
C. Onchocerca
D. Loa-loa

A

D. Loa-loa

136
Q

Cutaneous larva migrans or creeping eruption is caused by:
A. Larvae of pinworms
B. Microfilariae
C. Filariform larvae of dog hookworm
D. Metacercariae

A

C. Filariform larvae of dog hookworm

137
Q

Which of the following causes a chronic cough, pulmonary and artery obstruction but no invasion of the heart in humans?
A. Dirofilaria immitis
B. C. phillipinensis
C. Anisakis
D. A. brasiliensis

A

A. Dirofilaria immitis

138
Q

Which of the following is caused by the ingestion of snails by humans?
A. Dog hookworm
B. Rat lungworm
C. Dog heartworm
D. Cat tapeworm

A

B. Rat lungworm

139
Q

Cercarial dermatitis, commonly known as swimmer’s itch, is caused by:
A. Larvae of roundworms
B. Eggs of tapeworms
C. Schistosomule
D. Cercariae of schistosomes

A

D. Cercariae of schistosomes

140
Q

What is the scientific name of the body of a tapeworm?
A. Strobila
B. Scolex
C. Rostellum
D. Proglottid

A

A. Strobila

141
Q

The gravid segments of a tapeworm are filled with:
A. Male reproductive organs
B. Female reproductive organs
C. Eggs
D. Suckers

142
Q

A six-hooked embryo is known as:
A. Proglottid
B. Scolex
C. Strobila
D. Hexacanth

A

D. Hexacanth

143
Q

“Ground itch” occurs in infections of hookworms at the:
A. Site of larval penetration of the skin
B. During larval migration
C. Allergic reaction
D. A and C

A

A. Site of larval penetration of the skin

144
Q

Direct examination of stool specimens stained with iodine make the trophozoite of the Protozoa stain what color?
A. Yellow
B. Brown
C. Trophozoites are destroyed by iodine
D. Do not stain

A

C. Trophozoites are destroyed by iodine

145
Q

What color does the cytoplasm of protozoan cysts stain an iodine wet stool preparation?
A. Red
B. Green
C. Colorless
D. Yellow-brown

A

D. Yellow-brown

146
Q

What color do chromatoid bodies of protozoan cysts stain in an iodine wet stool preparation?
A. Yellow
B. Brown
C. Red
D. Do not stain

A

D. Do not stain

147
Q

What is the advantage of the sedimentation method of concentrating stool specimens?
A. All eggs will sediment
B. Recovers operculated eggs
C. Fecal debris and soluble material can be removed
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

148
Q

Trophozoite structures of protozoans, when stained with trichrome stain, appear:
A. Glycogen – colorless
B. Nucleus – rep purple
C. Charcot Leyden crystals – bright red
D. AOTA

149
Q

When stained with trichrome stain, chromatoid bodies appear what color?
A. Bright to red
B. Green
C. Black
D. Colorless

A

A. Bright to red

150
Q

The preservative to be employed with the trichrome stain is:
A. Formalin
B. Alcohol
C. Polyvinyl alcohol
D. Saline

A

C. Polyvinyl alcohol

151
Q

The ideal temperature at which to hold a fecal specimen for more than 1 hour is:
A. Freezer temperature
B. Refrigerator temperature
C. Room temperature
D. Incubator temperature

A

B. Refrigerator temperature

152
Q

The preferred specific gravity of zinc sulfate solution for the flotation method is:
A. 1.01
B. 1.04
C. 1.18
D. 1.40

153
Q

What type of blood specimen is preferred for preparing blood smears for protozoa?
A. Finger puncture
B. Venipuncture
C. Arterial blood
D. Plasma

A

A. Finger puncture

154
Q

What will happen if blood from a finger stick mixes with the alcohol used to clean the area?
A. “Fixes” red blood cells
B. Thick blood films become unsuitable for staining
C. A and B
D. Neither A nor B

A

A. “Fixes” red blood cells

155
Q

Venipuncture blood is not recommended for:
A. Malaria, Babesia, Hemoflagellates
B. Amebae, malaria, Babesia
C. Babesia, Cryptosporidium, Hemoflagellates
D. Isospora, Amebae, Hemoflagellates

A

A. Malaria, Babesia, Hemoflagellates

156
Q

To detect stippling, prepare blood films venipuncture within:
A. 1-2 minutes
B. 30 minutes to 1 hour after being drawn
C. 2 hours after being drawn
D. 5-10 minutes

A

B. 30 minutes to 1 hour after being drawn

APOLLON (MICROBIOLOGY) (5 decks)

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