BACTERIOLOGY Flashcards
Capsules can be used for a:
A. Complement fixation
B. Hemagglutination test
C. Serotyping by swelling
D. Precipitation test
C. Serotyping by swelling
To demonstrate capsules, grow the culture on media containing:
A. Antibiotics
B. Milk
C. Serum
D. B and C
D. B and C
The Quellung test depends on the antigenic specificity of the:
A. Nucleus
B. Cell wall
C. Flagella
D. Capsule
D. Capsule
Dark staining granules are called:
A. Spores
B. Capsules
C. Cysts
D. Metachromatic
D. Metachromatic
Organisms that vary in size and shape are referred to as:
A. Psychrophilic
B. Thermophilic
C. Pallisades
D. Pleomorphic
D. Pleomorphic
In the bacterial growth cycle, growth ceases because nutrients are exhausted or toxic metabolic products have accumulated in the:
A. Stationary phase
B. Logarithmic phase
C. Lag phase
D. A and B
A. Stationary phase
Which genera of bacteria form spores?
A. Corynebactrium
B. Bacillus
C. Clostridium
D. B and C
D. B and C
Bacteria that grow in the absence of atmospheric (free) oxygen and obtain oxygen from oxygen-containing compounds are called:
A. Anaerobes
B. Aerobes
C. Capnophiles
D. Aerotolerants
A. Anaerobes
The temperature at which bacteria grow best is known as:
A. Thermophilic
B. Psychrophilic
C. Optimum
D. Mesophilic
C. Optimum
A slimy colony on blood agar medium indicates which of the following characteristics may be present?
A. Blood agar is too old
B. Organism has a capsule
C. Plate was incubated too long
D. Plate was incubated at too high temperature
B. Organism has a capsule
On blood agar plates, a small zone of alpha-hemolysis surrounded by zone of beta-hemolysis after refrigeration is known as:
A. Gamma hemolysis
B. Beta hemolysis
C. Alpha hemolysis
D. Alpha prime
D. Alpha prime
When using fractional sterilization, the sequence is:
A. Heating (kills vegetative bacteria)
B. Incubation (spores germinate)
C. Heating (kills remaining vegetative bacteria)
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
What is the most effective method of sterilization?
A. Autoclave
B. Dry heat oven
C. Boiling
D. Disinfection
A. Autoclave
Which of the following is used for quality control for the dry heat oven?
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Bacillus stearothermophilus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Salmonella typhi
A. Bacillus subtilis
Which of the following filters can give 100% sterility?
A. Seitz
B. Millipore (0.22 um)
C. Millipore (0.5 um)
D. A and B
B. Millipore (0.22 um)
Media that cannot be heated can be sterilized by:
A. Filtration
B. Chemical disinfectants
C. Antiseptics
D. Cannot be sterilized
A. Filtration
Which of the following is not a disinfectant?
A. Phenol
B. 70% alcohol
C. QUATS
D. 2% aqueous glutaraldehyde
B. 70% alcohol
Iodophors are composed of iodine and:
A. Phenolic compound
B. Detergent
C. 70% alcohol
D. 90-95% alcohol
B. Detergent
Quaternary ammonium disinfectants are easily inactivated by:
A. Heat
B. P. aeruginosa
C. Organic materials
D. Tap water
C. Organic materials
What is a term that describes a process or treatment that renders a medical device, instrument or environmental surface safe to handle?
A. Decontamination
B. Antisepsis
C. Disinfectant
D. Sterile
A. Decontamination
What do gram-positive bacteria stain?
A. Purple
B. Green
C. Red
D. Maroon
A. Purple
The mordant used in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain is:
A. Gram’s iodine
B. Auramine
C. Heat
D. Acid-alcohol
C. Heat
How is smear for an acid-fast stain fixed?
A. Methyl alcohol
B. Acid alcohol
C. Tergitol no. 7
D. Slide warmer at 65C for 2 hours
D. Slide warmer at 65C for 2 hours
Acid-fast bacteria appear what color microscopically?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Purple
A. Red
Acid-fast organisms in tissue are best stained by which of the following methods?
A. Hiss
B. Kinyoun
C. Ziehl-Neelsen
D. Negative stain
B. Kinyoun
In the Ziehl-Neelsen staining method, the decolorizer is:
A. Heated saline
B. Acetone
C. Acetone + alcohol
D. Alcohol + HCl
D. Alcohol + HCl
An example of a negative stain is:
A. Auramine-rhodamine stain
B. Gram stain
C. India ink stain
D. Methylene blue stain
C. India ink stain
Which of the following is NOT gram-negative?
A. Peptococcus
B. Salmonella
C. Branhamella
D. Aeromonas
A. Peptococcus
Which of the following is NOT an anaerobe?
A. Veillonella
B. Fusobacterium
C. Actinomyces
D. Campylobacter
D. Campylobacter
If a patient is taking antimicrobials, which of the following can neutralize the antimicrobials?
A. Tryptic soy broth
B. Antihistamine
C. Thiol broth
D. Brain-hear infusion broth
C. Thiol broth
From a bronchial washing, organisms are seen on a Gram stain, but no growth occurs aerobically and anaerobically. This is most likely due to:
A. Anaerobes
B. Inhibition by antibiotic therapy
C. Uncultivable bacteria (e.g., rickettsiae, mycoplasma, M. leprae)
D. The specimen being incubated instead of refrigerated
B. Inhibition by antibiotic therapy
Which of the following should be used to remove antimicrobials before culturing?
A. Antimicrobial Removal Device
B. Isolator
C. Septi-check
D. NOTA
A. Antimicrobial Removal Device
Sodium polyanethol sulfonate may be used as an anticoagulant in blood culture because it:
A. Removes some antimicrobials
B. Prevents phagocytosis
C. Neutralizes the bactericidal effect of human serum
D. B and C
D. B and C
What is the most abundant normal flora in throat cultures?
A. Micrococcus
B. Alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Legionella pneumophila
B. Alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
What is the most common pathogen in throat cultures?
A. Group A Streptococcus
B. Alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria
A. Group A Streptococcus
Why must blood agar plates for throat cultures be incubated aerobically and anaerobically when beta-hemolytic streptococci are suspected?
A. Some may produce beta hemolysis under aerobic conditions
B. Streptococci only grow under aerobic conditions
C. Streptococci only grow under anaerobic conditions
D. Neither A nor B
A. Some may produce beta hemolysis under aerobic conditions
Nasopharyngeal swabs are recommended for the detection of carriers such as:
A. Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria, Bordetella pertussis
B. Neisseria, Vibrio, Bordetella pertussis
C. Haemophilus influenzae, Erysipelothrix Vibrio
D. Erysipelothrix, Neisseria, Listeria
A. Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria, Bordetella pertussis
Todd-Hewitt broth is recommended for:
A. Determination of mycobacterial growth rate
B. Primary culture for anaerobes
C. Stool enrichment for Salmonella but not for Shigella
D. Culture of beta hemolytic streptococci for fluorescence microscopy
D. Culture of beta hemolytic streptococci for fluorescence microscopy
Phenylethyl alcohol is used in media to:
A. Inhibit gram-positive bacteria
B. Inhibit gram-negative bacteria
C. Stimulate gram-positive bacteria
D. Stimulate gram-negative bacteria
B. Inhibit gram-negative bacteria
Why is a first morning urine specimen preferred for urine cultures?
A. Specimen is diluted
B. Bacteria are all motile
C. Specimen is more concentrated
D. A and B
C. Specimen is more concentrated
What indicates vaginal or urethral contamination of urine?
A. Many squamous epithelial cells
B. Few white blood cells
C. 1-2 RBCs/hpf
D. Amorphous urates
A. Many squamous epithelial cells
In the pour-plate method for colony counts, how does the amount of agar added affect the dilution?
A. Dilution is increased
B. Dilution is decreased
C. Dilution is increased 20%
D. Dilution is not affected
D. Dilution is not affected
Smears of cerebrospinal fluid are prepared from:
A. Cerebrospinal fluid sediment
B. Uncentrifuged cerebrospinal fluid
C. Heated cerebrospinal fluid
D. Frozen cerebrospinal fluid
A. Cerebrospinal fluid sediment
Smears of cerebrospinal fluid are usually stained with:
A. Acid-fast stain
B. Gram stain
C. India ink stain
D. B and C
D. B and C
Which of the following tests for bacterial antigen on cultures isolated from cerebrospinal fluid is more sensitive and faster?
A. Coagglutination tests
B. Latex agglutination tests
C. Counter immunoelectrophoresis
D. Coagulase test
B. Latex agglutination tests
Staphylococcal protein A coated with antiserum is used in which of the following serological tests on cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Coagglutination test
B. Latex agglutination test
C. Counter immunoelectrophoreiss
D. ELISA
A. Coagglutination test
Which of the following is not the cause of a venereal disease?
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
Using sheep blood for blood agar plate eliminates beta hemolytic:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Neisseria
C. Streptococcus
D. Haemophilus
D. Haemophilus
A positive tube coagulase test is observed to:
A. Bubbling
B. Agglutination
C. Liquefaction
D. Clotting of plasma
D. Clotting of plasma
What type of plasma is used for the tube coagulase test?
A. Rabbit
B. Human
C. Sheep
D. Horse
A. Rabbit
Some citrate-positive organisms cause a false-positive tube coagulase test because the organism uses the citrate
A. And releases calcium
B. As a source of calcium
C. As a beta-lactamase
D. And releases oxygen
A. And releases calcium
A non-hemolytic, catalase-positive, coagulase-negative, gram-positive coccus is most likely to be:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Alpha hemolytic streptococci
D. Streptococcus faecalis
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
The preferred method of differentiating S. aureus from S. epidermidis is:
A. Catalase test
B. Coagulase test
C. DNAse/mannitol fermentation
D. Phage typing
B. Coagulase test
Which of the following staphylococci is the cause of urinary tract infection in young females?
A. S. epidermidis
B. S. saprophyticus
C. S. aureus
D. S. hominis
B. S. saprophyticus
Staphylococcus aureus can be isolated from stool cultures by the use:
A. Potassium tellurite medium
B. MacConkey agar
C. Medium with 7.5% salt concentration
D. Lowenstein-Jensen medium
C. Medium with 7.5% salt concentration
The most common cause of bacterial food poisoning in the United States is:
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Shigella dysenteriae type 1
B. Staphylococcus aureus
Which of the following gram-positive cocci ferment glucose?
A. Staphylococci
B. Micrococci
C. A and B
D. Neither A nor B
A. Staphylococci
Which hemolysin, produced by beta-hemolytic streptococci is oxygen stable and nonantigenic?
A. Streptolysin A
B. Streptolysin S
C. Streptolysin G
D. Streptolysin O
B. Streptolysin S
Culture for beta-hemolytic streptococci must include:
A. Incubation at 25C to ensure growth of all strains
B. Anaerobic incubation to detect hemolysis in all strains
C. Incubation with carbon dioxide
D. Media with glucose to show typical hemolysis
B. Anaerobic incubation to detect hemolysis in all strains
Which of the following is destroyed by oxygen?
A. Botulism toxin
B. Streptolysin O
C. Catalase
D. Coagulase
B. Streptolysin O
Match the following organism with the biochemical test that presumptively identifies them. Tests may be used more than one time:
Group A, beta-hemolytic streptococci
A. Hippurate hydrolysis positive
B. CAMP test positive
C. Bacitracin susceptible
D. Bile-esculin positive
E. Optochin disk susceptible
F. Optochin disk resistant
C. Bacitracin susceptible
Match the following organism with the biochemical test that presumptively identifies them. Tests may be used more than one time:
Streptococcus pneumoniae
A. Hippurate hydrolysis positive
B. CAMP test positive
C. Bacitracin susceptible
D. Bile-esculin positive
E. Optochin disk susceptible
F. Optochin disk resistant
E. Optochin disk susceptible
Match the following organism with the biochemical test that presumptively identifies them. Tests may be used more than one time:
Alpha-hemolytic streptococci
A. Hippurate hydrolysis positive
B. CAMP test positive
C. Bacitracin susceptible
D. Bile-esculin positive
E. Optochin disk susceptible
F. Optochin disk resistant
F. Optochin disk resistant
Match the following organism with the biochemical test that presumptively identifies them. Tests may be used more than one time:
Group B, beta-hemolytic streptococci
A. Hippurate hydrolysis positive
B. CAMP test positive
C. Bacitracin susceptible
D. Bile-esculin positive
E. Optochin disk susceptible
F. Optochin disk resistant
A. Hippurate hydrolysis positive
B. CAMP test positive
Match the following organism with the biochemical test that presumptively identifies them. Tests may be used more than one time:
Enterococcus
A. Hippurate hydrolysis positive
B. CAMP test positive
C. Bacitracin susceptible
D. Bile-esculin positive
E. Optochin disk susceptible
F. Optochin disk resistant
D. Bile-esculin positive
Whenever is biochemical test is substituted for a serological test, it is reported:
A. By the genus and species name
B. As “presumptive” with the name of the biochemical test
C. By its common name
D. NOTA
B. As “presumptive” with the name of the biochemical test
CAMP is a factor produced by group B beta-hemolytic streptococci that:
A. Reduces the zone of lysis formed by the streptococci
B. Hydrolyzes the B factor
C. Causes a change in color
D. Enlarges the zone of lysis formed by staphylococcal beta-hemolysin
D. Enlarges the zone of lysis formed by staphylococcal beta-hemolysin
A positive Quellung test is:
A. Oxidation but not fermentation
B. Virtual proof that the organism is a pathogen
C. Visible only by fluorescent light
D. From capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody production
D. From capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody production
Which of the following serological tests is used for a confirmatory test of streptococci:
A. Phadebac test
B. Fluorescent antibody test
C. Lancefield precipitin test
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
When performing a bacitracin differentiation test for group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, use disks that have how many units?
A. 10.00 units
B. 5.00 units
C. 0.02-0.04 units
D. 1.00-2.00 units
C. 0.02-0.04 units
Match the disease with the corresponding organism. Organisms may be used more than once.
Scarlet fever
A. Group B Streptococci
B. Group A Streptococci
C. Alpha-hemolytic Streptococci
B. Group A Streptococci
Match the disease with the corresponding organism. Organisms may be used more than once.
Major pathogen of the newborn
A. Group B Streptococci
B. Group A Streptococci
C. Alpha-hemolytic Streptococci
A. Group B Streptococci
Match the disease with the corresponding organism. Organisms may be used more than once.
“Strep throat”
A. Group B Streptococci
B. Group A Streptococci
C. Alpha-hemolytic Streptococci
B. Group A Streptococci
Match the disease with the corresponding organism. Organisms may be used more than once.
Subacute bacteria endocarditis
A. Group B Streptococci
B. Group A Streptococci
C. Alpha-hemolytic Streptococci
C. Alpha-hemolytic Streptococci
What do optochin and bacitracin tests have in common?
A. Autolysis is a negative result
B. Growth inhibition is a positive result
C. They should not be done on blood agar
D. Either one will differentiate enterococci from viridans streptococci
B. Growth inhibition is a positive result
The bile-esculin test is used to differentiate:
A. Enterococci from other group D streptococci
B. Streptococcus faecalis from Listeria
C. Group D Streptococci from other strep
D. Group A from group B streptococci
C. Group D Streptococci from other strep
Hippurate hydrolysis is used to differentiate:
A. Group A from group B streptococci
B. Group B streptococci from enterococci
C. Listeria from streptococci
D. Pneumococci from other viridans
A. Group A from group B streptococci
A bacitracin-resistant, hippurate-hydrolysis positive, bile-esculin positive, beta-hemolytic Streptococcus that grows in 6.5% NaCl is probably a/an:
A. Pneumococcus
B. Enterococcus
C. Group D Strep
D. Diphtheroid
B. Enterococcus
Pneumococci that are resistant to penicillin should be tested for:
A. Production of beta-lactamase
B. Bile solubility
C. Growth in NaCl
D. Resistance to bacitracin
A. Production of beta-lactamase
Gram-negative, coffee bean-shaped diplococci with adjacent sides flattened is descriptive of which of the following?
A. Neisseria
B. Staphylococcus
C. Listeria
D. Chlamydia
A. Neisseria
The diagnosis of gonorrhoeae in males can be made from:
A. Positive urethral smear
B. Symptoms
C. History
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
Which of the following specimens may be appropriate for culturing Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
A. Eyes
B. Rectum
C. Oral cavity
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
What is the medium of choice for culturing gonococci and meningococci?
A. Lowenstein-Jensen
B. Modified Thayer Martin
C. Sheep blood agar
D. Potassium tellurite
B. Modified Thayer Martin
Which of the following differentiates Thayer-Martin medium from modified Thayer-Martin medium?
A. Nystatin
B. Vancomycin
C. Colistin
D. Trimethoprim lactate
D. Trimethoprim lactate
Thayer-Martin medium is basically a/an:
A. Blood agar
B. Enriched MacConkey agar
C. Enriched chocolate agar
D. Potassium tellurite agar
C. Enriched chocolate agar
What color is positive oxidase test?
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Dark purple
D. Dark purple
Which of the following genera are oxidase positive?
A. Moraxella
B. Aeromonas
C. Neisseria
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
When performing the oxidase test, which of the following techniques can be used?
A. Put a drop of reagent on the colony
B. Rub colony on a filter paper strip and add a drop of reagent
C. Rub the colony on a piece of filter paper containing the reagent
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
What do “PPNG” gonococci produce?
A. Penicillin-producing gonococci
B. Penicillinase-producing gonococci
C. A and B
D. Neither A nor B
B. Penicillinase-producing gonococci
Which of the following are methods for testing for the production of beta-lactamase?
A. Chromogenic cephalosporin method
B. Acidometric method
C. Iodometric method
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
Which of the following indicates a positive reaction for the beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method?
A. Production of acid
B. Color change
C. Reduction of nitrates
D. Decolorization of starch-iodine mixture
B. Color change
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccus from a throat culture might be:
A. Staphylococcus
B. An “EEC”
C. Fusobacterium
D. Neisseria
D. Neisseria
A fastidious, oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccus from a rectal swab might be?
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Listeria
D. Branhamella catarrhalis
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Neisseria meningitidis degrades which of the following sugars?
A. Glucose
B. Maltose
C. Lactose
D. A and B
D. A and B
Which of the following tests can give a presumptive identification of Branhamella catarrhalis if the isolate is a gram-negative diplococcus that is oxidase-positive and isolated from middle-ear fluid?
A. Nitrate test
B. Urease test
C. Indole tets
D. Beta-lactamase test
D. Beta-lactamase test
Why should beta-lactamase test be performed with growth from primary isolation media?
A. Plasmid coding for the enzyme may be lost on subculturing
B. May react with chemicals in the medium
C. Because of the absorbance of oxygen from the medium
D. NOTA
A. Plasmid coding for the enzyme may be lost on subculturing
What is the purpose of potassium tellurite in tellurite medium?
A. Inhibits the normal flora
B. Enriches the medium
C. Enriches pleomorphism
D. Enhances granule production
A. Inhibits the normal flora
Potassium tellurite medium produced what color of colonies of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A. Green
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Gray-black
D. Gray-black
When culturing Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which of the following media will enhance pleomorphism and granule production?
A. Loeffler serum agar
B. Pai coagulated egg medium
C. A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. A and B
What is the morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A. Gram-negative, motile cocci
B. Gram-positive motile cocci
C. Gram-positive, nonmotile rods
D. Gram-negative, nonmotile rods
C. Gram-positive, nonmotile rods
The term “palisading,” “picket fence,” and “Chinese letter” describe the common arrangement of cells of:
A. Corynebacterium
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis but not other mycobacteria
C. Actinomyces but not Nocardia
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae but not other corynebacterial
A. Corynebacterium
Babes-Ernst granules are characteristic of:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Which of the following are considered diphtheroids?
A. Corynebacterium xerosis
B. Corynebacterium diphthera
C. Corynebacterium JK
D. A and C
D. A and C
Which of the following diphtheroids is found in the normal throat?
A. Propionibacterium acnes
B. Corynebacterium pseudodiphthericum
C. Corynebacterium xerosis
D. Rhodococcus equi
B. Corynebacterium pseudodiphthericum
The Elek test is for the detection of:
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin, in vivo
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin, in vitro
C. Bacillus anthracis toxin, in vitro
D. Clostridium botulinum toxin, in vitro
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin, in vitro
The morphological cycle of Rhodococcus equi from coccoid to rod form tales:
A. 5 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
C. 24 hours
Which of the following is gram-positive to gram-variable coccobacillus?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Listeria monocytogenes