MYCOLOGY Flashcards

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1
Q

Characteristically, fungi:
A. Are members of the plant kingdom
B. Lack roots and stems
C. Lack chlorophyll
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

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2
Q

Coenocytic hyphae is a synonym for:
A. Septate hyphae
B. Arthroconidia
C. Pseudohyphae
D. Aseptate hyphae

A

D. Aseptate hyphae

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3
Q

Which type of mycoses produce no cellular response by the host?
A. Deep mycoses
B. Cutaneous
C. Superficial mycoses
D. Systemic mycoses

A

C. Superficial mycoses

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4
Q

Arthroconidia on the outside of the hair as well as hyphae within the hair shaft is called:
A. Ectothrix
B. Endothrix
C. Scutula
D. Dimorphic

A

A. Ectothrix

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5
Q

True yeast produce which of the following in the asexual stage?
A. Chlamydospores
B. Favic chandeliers
C. Blastoconidia
D. Arthroconidia

A

C. Blastoconidia

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6
Q

Septate hyphae have:
A. No divisions
B. Divisions
C. Pseudohyphae
D. Vegetative parts

A

B. Divisions

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7
Q

Molds with aseptate hyphae produce a specialized hyphal structure called a:
A. Conidiophore
B. Sporangiophore
C. Thallospore
D. Zygospore

A

B. Sporangiophore

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8
Q

The basic, branching, intertwining structures of molds are referred to as:
A. Mycelium
B. Rhizoids
C. Conidia
D. Spores

A

A. Mycelium

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9
Q

Arthroconidia are formed:
A. Directly from the hyphae by fragmentation
B. By daughter cells piching off from portions of the mother cells
C. By knots of twisted hyphae
D. Within the hyphae

A

A. Directly from the hyphae by fragmentation

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10
Q

Mycelia within the colony that grow into the substrate are called:
A. Aerial hyphae
B. Conidiophores
C. Macroconidia
D. Vegetative hyphae

A

D. Vegetative hyphae

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11
Q

Chlamydospores that grow within the hyphae are referred to as:
A. Spirals
B. Terminal
C. Intercalary
D. Sessile

A

C. Intercalary

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12
Q

Budding forms in which the daughter cell forms as a bud from a single mother cell or forms laterally from a mycelium or pseudomycelium are called:
A. Blastospores
B. Chlamydospores
C. Ascospores
D. Sporangiospores

A

A. Blastospores

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13
Q

Which of the following are the result of asexual reproduction?
A. Arthrospores
B. Ascospores
C. Zygospores
D. B and C

A

B. Ascospores

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14
Q

Conidia are:
A. Asexual spores
B. Sexual spores
C. Vegetative spores
D. Asexual or sexual spores

A

A. Asexual spores

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15
Q

Macroconidia are usually:
A. Multicellular
B. Unicellular
C. Square
D. Rectangular

A

A. Multicellular

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16
Q

The swollen portion of the conidiophore is called the:
A. Spherule
B. Sporangium
C. Sterigmata
D. Vesicle

A

D. Vesicle

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17
Q

Which of the following statements does NOT apply to true yeasts?
A. Ascospores are produced in the sexual phase
B. Blastospores are the sexual reproductive form
C. Saccharomyces is a representative of this group
D. They exhibit thermal dimorphism

A

D. They exhibit thermal dimorphism

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18
Q

Conidia with rough or spiny surfaces are described as:
A. Catenate
B. Echinulate
C. Pedunculate
D. Sessile

A

B. Echinulate

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19
Q

Conidia in chains are said to be:
A. Catenate
B. Echinulate
C. Pedunculate
D. Sessile

A

A. Catenate

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20
Q

When preparing temporary mounts of fungal elements, why is the slide gently heated?
A. Preserves the specimen
B. Increases the rate of clearing
C. Mounts the specimen
D. AOTA

A

B. Increases the rate of clearing

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21
Q

Which of the following acts as a clearing agent to eliminate debris and make fungal elements more prominent in skin, hair, and nails?
A. Lactophenol cotton blue
B. 10% KOH
C. 70% alcohol
D. Ether

A

B. 10% KOH

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22
Q

What is the stain in Aman medium?
A. Cotton blue
B. Methylene blue
C. Prussian blue
D. Bromothymol blue

A

A. Cotton blue

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23
Q

Which of the following is negative stain?
A. Periodic Acid-Schiff stain
B. Giemsa stain
C. Acridine orange stain
D. India ink stain

A

D. India ink stain

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24
Q

In the periodic acid-Schiff stain (PAS), what colors denote the presence of glycogen?
A. Blue to green
B. Red to violet
C. Pink to red
D. Yellow to brown

A

B. Red to violet

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25
Q

Which of the following stains is used for sharp delineation of fungal elements by fluorescent microscopy?
A. Gomori methenamine silver
B. Calcofluor white
C. Hematoxylin
D. Eosin

A

B. Calcofluor white

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26
Q

When the fungus wall is invisible with the hematoxylin and eosin stain, which of the following may be used to re-stain the slide?
A. Acid-fast stain
B. Periodic Acid-Schiff stain
C. Gram stain (Hucker modification)
D. Gomori methenamine silver stain

A

B. Periodic Acid-Schiff stain

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27
Q

Fungal elements in the acridine orange staining procedure:
A. Stain red
B. Do not stain
C. Stain purple
D. Fluoresces a green color

A

D. Fluoresces a green color

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28
Q

How does MYCOSEL medium differ from Sabouraud dextrose agar?
A. Contains chloramphenicol and cycloheximide
B. Does not contain dextrose
C. Contains an indicator
D. Stimulates the production of chlamydospores

A

A. Contains chloramphenicol and cycloheximide

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29
Q

Which fungus medium is used for the primary isolation and maintenance of fungal cultures?
A. Sabouraud dextrose agar
B. Cornmeal agar
C. Staib’s medium
D. Rice agar

A

A. Sabouraud dextrose agar

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30
Q

What is the indicator in Dermatophyte Test Medium?
A. Methyl red
B. Phenol red
C. Bromocresol purple
D. Methyl orange

A

B. Phenol red

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31
Q

If 1% glucose is added to cornmeal agar, Trichophyton rubrum can be differentiated from Trichophyton mentagrophytes by the production of:
A. Hyphae
B. Ascospores
C. Pigment
D. Sporangia

A

C. Pigment

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32
Q

Fungi should be incubated at:
A. 25-30 C
B. 10-15 C
C. 35-37 C
D. 50-56 C

A

A. 25-30 C

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33
Q

How long should fungus cultures be held before reporting as negative?
A. 5 days
B. 14 days
C. 48 hours
D. 30 days

A

D. 30 days

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34
Q

Which of the following antibiotics can be added to media for the isolation of pathogenic fungi from contaminated material?
A. Penicillin and streptomycin
B. Vancomycin and nystatin
C. Cycloheximide and chloramphenicol
D. Streptomycin and nystatin

A

C. Cycloheximide and chloramphenicol

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35
Q

Which of the following media stimulates the production of chlamydospores?
A. Brain-heart infusion blood agar
B. Czapek’s agar
C. Cornmeal agar
D. Urease test medium

A

C. Cornmeal agar

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36
Q

Which of the following media identifies species of Aspergillus?
A. Urease medium
B. Rice agar
C. Czapek’s agar
D. Ascospore agar

A

C. Czapek’s agar

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37
Q

A positive result for the hair-baiting test is:
A. V-shaped penetration of the hair shaft
B. The production of germ tubes
C. The production of red pigment
D. The production of brown pigment

A

A. V-shaped penetration of the hair shaft

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38
Q

A tinea infection is commonly referred to as:
A. Taeniasis
B. Ringworm
C. Pityriasis
D. Piedra

A

B. Ringworm

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39
Q

Which of these organisms is the usual cause of white piedra?
A. Trichosporon beigelii
B. Microsporum canis
C. Piedraia horate
D. Malasseizia furfur

A

A. Trichosporon beigelii

40
Q

Tinea unguium is a dermatophyte infection of the:
A. Nail plates
B. Beard
C. Palm of hand
D. Feet

A

A. Nail plates

41
Q

The favus type of tinea capitis is caused by which of the following?
A. Trichophyton violaceum
B. Microsporum audouinii
C. Trichophyton schoenleinii
D. Candida albicans

A

C. Trichophyton schoenleinii

42
Q

Which of the following is/are anthrophilic?
A. Microsporum audouinii
B. Microsporum canis
C. Microsporum gypseum
D. All of these organisms

A

A. Microsporum audouinii

43
Q

Hairs infected with which of these dermatophytes fluoresce under Wood’s lamp?
A. Trichophyton rubrum
B. Trichophyton tonsurans
C. Microsporum canis
D. Epidermophyton floccosum

A

C. Microsporum canis

44
Q

Colonization by dermatophytic fungi of the hair, nails, and skin is called:
A. Mycetoma
B. Chromoblastomycosis
C. Phaeohyphomycosis
D. Dermatophytoses

A

D. Dermatophytoses

45
Q

Which of the following fungi is/are cause of dermatophytosis?
A. Epidermophyton
B. Trichophyton
C. Microsporum
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

46
Q

Which of the following produces macroconidia that are large, multicellular, and club-shaped with smooth walls?
A. Fonsecaea pedrosoi
B. Microsporum audouinii
C. Epidermophyton floccosum
D. Trichophyton mentagrophytes

A

C. Epidermophyton floccosum

47
Q

Which statement is NOT true?
A. Trichophyton mentagrophytes is urease positive
B. Trichophyton mentagrophytes penetrates the hair shaft
C. Trichophyton rubrum is noted for its “balloon” forms
D. Trichophyton rubrum produces a red pigment on some media

A

C. Trichophyton rubrum is noted for its “balloon” forms

48
Q

Which of the following produces small, very slow growing colonies and has favic chandeliers?
A. Trichophyton tonsurans
B. Microsporum canis
C. Trichophyton schoenleinii
D. Epidermophyton floccosum

A

C. Trichophyton schoenleinii

49
Q

Which of the following is diagnostic for chromoblastomycosis?
A. Flowerette conidia
B. Asteroid body
C. Sclerotic body
D. Germ tube

A

C. Sclerotic body

50
Q

Which of the following are found in the yeast phase of Sporothrix schenckii on culture medium at 37C?
A. Sclerotic bodies
B. Asteroid bodies
C. Cigar-shaped yeast cells
D. Germ tube

A

C. Cigar-shaped yeast cells

51
Q

Which of the following is the result of an antigen-antibody reaction in cases of sporotrichosis?
A. Sclerotic body
B. Flowerette conidia
C. Sleeve conidia
D. Asteroid body

A

D. Asteroid body

52
Q

In older mold cultures of Sporothrix schenckii, single conidia borne along the sides of the hyphae are referred as:
A. Cigar-shaped
B. Flowerette
C. Asteroid body
D. Sleeve

A

D. Sleeve

53
Q

Which of the following infections is caused by dematiaceous saprobes that invade organs of immunosuppressed hosts?
A. Phaeohyphomycosis
B. Chromoblastomycosis
C. Hyalohyphomycosis
D. Dermatophytoses

A

A. Phaeohyphomycosis

54
Q

The most common cause of mycetoma (maduramycosis) in the US is:
A. Pseudoallescheria boydii
B. Nocardia asteroides
C. Rhinosporidium seeberi
D. Actinomadura madurae

A

A. Pseudoallescheria boydii

55
Q

Dematiaceous fungi have colonies with:
A. Surface and reverse side light
B. Surface and reverse side dark
C. Surface light and reverse side dark
D. Surface dark and reverse side light

A

B. Surface and reverse side dark

56
Q

Which of the following are dematiaceous fungi?
A. Sporotrichum and Aspergillus
B. Phialophora and Cladosporium
C. Penicillium and Acremonium
D. Fusarium and Paecilomyces

A

B. Phialophora and Cladosporium

57
Q

Sclerotic bodies are found in tissue in an infection with:
A. Candida
B. Cladosporium
C. Chrysosporium
D. Coccidioides

A

B. Cladosporium

58
Q

Infection of chromoblastomycosis is NOT caused by which of the following fungi?
A. Exophiala
B. Cladosporium
C. Phialophora
D. Fonsecaea

A

A. Exophiala

59
Q

A fungus that grows as a mold at 35-37C and a mold at 25C is described as:
A. Monomorphic
B. Mycelial
C. Dimorphic
D. Eumycotic

A

A. Monomorphic

60
Q

True fungi that produce hyphae and spore forms are known as:
A. Eumycotic
B. Monomorphic
C. Dimorphic
D. Yeasts

A

A. Eumycotic

61
Q

Which of the following causes an infection by hyaline saprobes that invade most tissues or body fluids of immunosuppressed hosts?
A. Aspergillus
B. Penicillium marneffei
C. Fusarium moniliforme
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

62
Q

If you observe cleistothecia containing ascospores, report the organism as:
A. Scedosporidium apiospermum
B. Actinomyces israelii
C. Nocardia asteroides
D. Pseudoallescheria boydii

A

D. Pseudoallescheria boydii

63
Q

The actinomycetes are best classified as:
A. Acid-fast bacteria
B. Eumycetes
C. Fungus-like bacteria
D. Opportunistic fungi

A

C. Fungus-like bacteria

64
Q

Which of the following is anaerobic, gram-positive but not acid-fast, and does not stain with fungal stains?
A. Nocardia asteroides
B. Nocardia brasiliensis
C. Actinomyces israelii
D. Actinomadura madurae

A

C. Actinomyces israelii

65
Q

Which of the following has a capsule?
A. Candida albicans
B. Geotrichum candidum
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis

A

C. Cryptococcus neoformans

66
Q

When culturing Cryptococcus on Sabouraud dextrose agar, which of the following antibiotics should not be in the medium?
A. Trimethoprim
B. Vancomycin
C. Aminoglycoside
D. Cycloheximide

A

D. Cycloheximide

67
Q

In the direct microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid, which of the following can be mistaken for a lymphocyte?
A. Candida
B. Cryptococcus
C. Geotrichum
D. Blastomyces

A

B. Cryptococcus

68
Q

Why does Cryptococcus neoformans produce a brown color on Birdseed or staib agar?
A. Assimilates creatinine
B. Assimilates niacin
C. Ferments glucose
D. Ferments trehalose

A

A. Assimilates creatinine

69
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans has the following biochemical reaction/s:
A. Urease positive
B. Inositol positive
C. Nitrate negative
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

70
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans latex agglutination test on spinal fluid detects cryptococcal:
A. Creatinine
B. Antibody
C. Carbohydrate
D. Antigen

A

D. Antigen

71
Q

Candida albicans produces:
A. Blastospores
B. Chlamydospores
C. Pseudohyphae
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

72
Q

Which of the following is another name for oral candidiasis?
A. Ringworm
B. Thrush
C. Barber’s itch
D. Favus

A

B. Thrush

73
Q

A presumptive identification of Candida albicans can be made by checking the ability of the organism to produce what structure with serum?
A. Blastospores
B. Chlamydospores
C. Germ tube
D. Pseudohyphae

A

C. Germ tube

74
Q

Cornmeal agar plus Tween 80 is used to identify Candida albicans through the organism’s production of:
A. Capsules
B. Chlamydospores
C. Germ tubes
D. Sporangia

A

B. Chlamydospores

75
Q

Geotrichum candidum colonies appear as:
A. Slow growing, dematiaceous growth
B. Rapid, yeastlike growth
C. Slow growing, violet, waxy growth
D. Rapid growing, suede-like growth

A

B. Rapid, yeastlike growth

76
Q

Laboratory workers are in no danger when handling which form of dimorphic fungi?
A. Yeast form (tissue)
B. Hyphal form (culture)
C. A and B
D. Neither A and B

A

A. Yeast form (tissue)

77
Q

Sepedonium produces spiny, tuberculate macroconidia but is a:
A. Dimorphic fungus
B. Yeastlike fungus
C. Monomorphic mold
D. A and B

A

C. Monomorphic mold

78
Q

Which of the following are produced by Geotrichum candidum?
A. Rectangular, evenly staining arthroconidia
B. Small, budding yeast cells
C. Cigar-shaped yeast cells
D. Tuberculate macroconidia

A

A. Rectangular, evenly staining arthroconidia

79
Q

Which of the following is/are dimorphic fungi?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Blastomyces dermatitidis
C. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

80
Q

The tissue phase of Histoplasma capsulatum, characteristically shows:
A. Pseudohyphae with blastospores
B. Yeast forms with multiple buds
C. Yeast cells within macrophages
D. Tuberculate chlamydospores

A

C. Yeast cells within macrophages

81
Q

The characteristic structures of the mycelial phase of Histoplasma capsulatum are:
A. Blastospores
B. Arthrospores with a germ tube in one corner
C. Tuberculate chlamydospores
D. Yeast cells usually in monocytes

A

C. Tuberculate chlamydospores

82
Q

Leishmania can be differentiated from Histoplasma because Leishmania has:
A. A different size
B. A different shape
C. Central nuclear material
D. NOTA

A

C. Central nuclear material

83
Q

Which of the following tests may be used instead of conversion when identifying dimorphic fungi?
A. Exoantigen test
B. String test
C. Immunofluorescence test
D. ELISA

A

A. Exoantigen test

84
Q

In the mycelia form, Blastomyces dermatitidis produces:
A. Conidiophores that resemble lollipops
B. Wide, septate hyphae
C. Broad, nonseptate hyphae
D. Delicate, branching acid-fast hyphae

A

A. Conidiophores that resemble lollipops

85
Q

A yeast form with a single broad-based bud would identify an organism as:
A. Blastomyces
B. Coccidioides
C. Histoplasma
D. Sporothrix

A

A. Blastomyces

86
Q

The characteristic structures of the mycelia phase of blastomycosis are:
A. Clusters of blastospores
B. Small pear-shaped conidia called lollipops
C. Numerous intercalary or terminal chlamydospores
D. Spherules filled with endospores

A

B. Small pear-shaped conidia called lollipops

87
Q

Yeastlike forms with multiple buds are characteristic forms associated with:
A. Blastomyces dermatitidis
B. Candida albicans
C. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
D. Sporothrix schenckii

A

C. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

88
Q

Immature spherules of Coccidioides are differentiated from yeast forms of Blastomyces because:
A. They produce buds
B. Their buds have a wide base
C. Their buds have a narrow base
D. They never bud

A

D. They never bud

89
Q

Which of the following fungi is a major biohazard laboratory personnel?
A. Coccidioides immitis
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Fonsecaea pedrosol
D. Histoplasma capsulatum

A

A. Coccidioides immitis

90
Q

The exoantigen test is a/an:
A. Indirect passive agglutination test
B. Microscopic immunodiffusion test
C. Neutralization test
D. Rocket electrophoresis technique

A

B. Microscopic immunodiffusion test

91
Q

In the exoantigen test for Histoplasma capsulatum, which bands are present in a positive result?
A. H and/or M
B. J and/or L
C. A and/or D
D. O and/or P

A

A. H and/or M

92
Q

When differentiating Histoplasma capsulatum from Leishmania using special fungus stains, Leishmania stains:
A. Green
B. Red
C. Blue
D. Will not stain

A

D. Will not stain

93
Q

Which of the bands in the exoantigen test for Blastomyces dermatitidis is present in a positive result?
A. A
B. G
C. H
D. M

A

A. A

94
Q

Which of the following fungi produces a spherule that is filled with endospores?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Coccidioides immitis
C. Blastomyces immitis
D. Rhisopus arrhizus

A

B. Coccidioides immitis

95
Q

Zygomycosis is caused by which of the following genera?
A. Aspergillus and Rhizopus
B. Rhizopus and Aureobasidium
C. Mucor and Aspergillus
D. Mucor and Rhizopus

A

D. Mucor and Rhizopus

96
Q

Fungal elements in zygomycosis show hyphae that are:
A. Broad and nonseptate
B. Broad and septate
C. Narrow and septate
D. Regular and dichotomous branching

A

A. Broad and nonseptate