Parasitic Skin Disease Flashcards
1
Q
What is the identified agent for nodular dermatitis in canids in Southern Europe?
A
Straelensia cynotis, a trombidoid larval mite, was identidied as a cause of nodular dermatitis in dogs in Southern Europe.
2
Q
What species of Ctenocephalides is the most common?
A
felis felis
3
Q
The flea penetrates the epidermis with its ______
A
maxillae
4
Q
In fleas, the ______ is inserted in the capillary vessel, allowing blood to be sucked by three pumps (one cibarian, two pharyndeal) though the feeding tube formed by the maxillae together.
A
epipharynx
5
Q
In fleas, a salivary pump pushed saliva through the _____.
A
laciniae
6
Q
The sialomes of cat and rat fleas are comprised of what components?
A
The enzymes families of phosphatases (inactive), CD-39-type tryptase, adenosine deaminases and esterase, as well as antigen 5 members and defensins
7
Q
Fleas, in contrast to mosquitoes, has a sialome that is comprised of good portion of _______, none of which have a known function but they may act as inhibitors of hemostasis or inflammation.
A
small polypeptides
They are also unique in terms of the expansion of phosphatase family that appears to be deficient of enzyme activity and has an unknown function
8
Q
The third pair of legs are used for jumping. Modifications of the hind leg include an enlarged muscular femur and an elastic protein called ______ in the integument.
A
resilin
Resilin is compressed during the flexion of the coxa in the metathorax, and then rapidly relaxed.
9
Q
What is the name of the hedge hog flea?
A
Archaeopsylla erinacei
10
Q
What are the two species of fleas on birds?
A
Echidnophaga gallinacean, Ceratiophyllus gallinae
11
Q
What are the two species of fleas on rodents?
A
Xenopsylla cheopis, Nosopsyllus fasciatus
12
Q
What are the 8 stages of the flea life cycle?
A
The flea has four life stages: egg, larva, pupa and, finally, adult. The speed of development depends on the temperature and humidity of the environment so growth to an adult flea can take just a few weeks to several months.
13
Q
Describe the host phase of flea life cycle?
A
o The adult stage of both C.felis felis and C. canis lives permanently in the hair coat of its host.
o In normal conditions, when fleas are in the dog or cat, they walk.
o Fleas have a tendency to leave their host when the hosts temperature decreases or when the host-population is very high.
14
Q
Describe early onset of blood feeding
A
o Once the adult (imago) has colonized a new host, it will take its first blood meal very rapidly.
o About 25% of cat fleas start to feed within 5 minutes of being free in the coat and about 97% have taken a blood meal within 1 hour
o Although C. canis takes its meal more slowly, 72.5% of fleas begin blood feeding within the hour.
15
Q
Flea blood feeding and lifespan
A
o It is clearly established that blood-feeding is necessary for mating and laying viable eggs, the number of blood meals and their frequency remain unknown.
o It is thougth that fleas will continue to bite and have blood meals until they die.
o Their lifespan is considered to be 2-3 weeks.
16
Q
First flea eggs
A
o Female fleas lay their first eggs between 24-36 hours after colonizing a host.
o Eggs are pearly white, oval with rounded ends and approximately 0.5mm long. They are laid in the coat and subsequently fall to the ground.
o Egg production reaches a peak (around 15-20 eggs per day) during the second and third week. It will continue to lay eggs until it dies.
o Egg production usually peaks during the night.
17
Q
Describe the environmental phase and factors affecting egg and larval development
A
o Once on the ground, eggs require favorable environmental conditions (humidity and temperature) to develop further.
Ideal conditions are 70% humidity and 30c
o The environmental phase has a major implication in control because of the development of larval and pupal states and because pupae remain dormant in the environment for an extended period of time.
18
Q
First Larval instars
A
o The first-instar larvae hatch from eggs in the immediate environment. They tend to move to the depth of the carpet and not move very far from where they hatched.
o They search for suitable food, particularly dried blood flea feces but also other debris including non-viable flea eggs.
19
Q
Second Larval installs
A
The second instar tend to move away from carpets, making vacuuming a rather ineffective procedure, since it only removed 15-27% of the larvae.
However, regular vacuuming of pet resting places can remove 90% or more of flea effs as well as flea feces.
20
Q
Pupal stage
A
o The third-instar larvae becomes a pupa encased within a cocoon formed out of carious bits of environmental debris stuck together.
o Pupae are often found in well-protected areas such as the back of carpets, skirting boards and cushion seams.
o Inside further imagos remain dormant for several months (“pupal window”) until stimulated to hatch by triggers such as vibrations, increased carbon dioxide levels or temperature.
o Pupae are resistant to freezing, desiccation, insecticides and insect development inhibitors.
21
Q
Imago
A
o Once stimulated, imago tear open the cocoon probably as a consequence of agitated movements and jumps onto the first mobile, warm object = animal.
o The young, unfed adult is susceptible to adulticides and insect development inhibitors.
The unfed flea survives longer in the environmental than the fed fleas.
22
Q
How long is the flea life cycle?
A
o The entire life cycle can be completed in 13 to 14 days under optimal conditions but can take up to 7-9 months.
23
Q
How do you prevent a new flea life cycle from developing?
A
o Preventing a new life cycle would required killing all the adults in the first 24-36 hours of infection and/or applying an insect development inhibitor either to the adult or to the immature stages before pupa formation.
o Vacuuming is not very effective due to the mobility and positive geotaxis of the larvae.
24
Q
Fleas are vectors for what diseases?
A
Bartonella, B. henselae, Rickettsia typhi, R. felis
25
Fleas are the intermediate host for what organisms?
o Dipylidium canium, the double pored tape worm, needs C felis as an intermediate host.
o Fleas can also be intermediate hosts for Rodentolepus nana.
26
Chorioptic or Scrotal Mange
The causative mites, Chorioptes bovis, live and feed on the skin of sheep, goats, cattle and horses. In sheep, both rams and ewes can carry the mite, however it is often of more significance in the rams, where the mites can cause a hypersensitivity reaction. This hypersensitivity reaction leads to an increase in testicular temperature, resulting in poor fertility, testicular hypoplasia or testicular atrophy. This means you may have a temporarily or permanently unsound ram.
27
What are the two kinds of cholinesterase inhibitors?
Carbamates and organophosphates
Carbamates are safe for cats at 3 and 5% concentrations. avoid in white haired dogs. Avoid in cats.
Organophosphates a the most toxic insecticides available. These are potent cholinesterase inhibitors. Do not use on kittens or adult cats.
28
Dinotefuran is what class of insecticide?
It is a third-generation neonicotinoid class insecticide that binds to nicotinic receptors in the nerve synapse, causing continues nerve stimulation and death of the insect.
Its in Vectra (combined with pyriproxyfen) - flea control for cats and dogs
Its also in Vectra 3D which is licensed for dogs only because permethrin is added to formulation; not sure which mites it would work on.
29
What preventative is a volatile citrus oil extract use in some botanical flea control products? Its insecticidal properties appear to be desiccant in nature because epicuticular old are removed. Efficacy is poorly define and adverse reaction have been seen in dogs and cats.
d-Limonene
30
Fipronil is an insecticide and acaricide in the phenylprazole class. It acts as an antagonist at what receptor?
It acts as an antagonist at the insect y-aminobutiyric acid receptor (GABA).
Fipronil is a spray or a spot on application product for flea and tick control in dogs and cats,
HIGHLY toxic to rabbits.
31
What acaricidal agents act by inhibition of monamine oxidase? They are also prostaglandin synthesis inhibitors and alpa-adrenergic agonists.
Formamidines
Amitraz is available as a rinse, spot on with Fipronil (Certifect). In the US- rinse is licensed for use only generalized dermodicosis.
Side effects of amitraz often include transient sedation, pruritus, hypothermia, bradycardia, hypotension and hyperglycemia.
32
What is the vehicle thought to contribute to Amitraz toxicity?
Xylene
**Don't use in small dogs
33
What are the two different groups of insect growth regulators?
1) juvenile hormone analogs
| 2) chitin synthesis inhibitors
34
What role do insect growth regulators play in development of insect?
Juvenile hormones are natural chemicals in insetcts that control early stages of their metabolism, morphogenesis and reproduction. final maturation and pupation of flea larvae process only in the presence of appropriate levels or absence of the hormone for that stage of larval growth.
35
What are available topical agents (juvenoids), with biochemical activities that mimic those of the natural juvenile hormones?
Methoprene, fenoxycarb and pyriproxifen
Application the premises by spray or fogger prevents maturation of pupal fleas is they are exposed to it. These DO NOT affect the adult flea.
Basically - during feeding, the flea is exposed tot he agent and eggs laid are exposed to high levels before they fall off the host into the environment and therefore, do not hatch.
36
What is an insecticide of the chloronicotinyl nitroguanidine class?
Imidacloprid
This binds to the fleas nicotinic receptor on the post-synaptic neuron and blocks impulse transmission.
Advantage - Imidacloprid (adult fleas and lice)
Advantage II - Imidacloprid + Pyreproxyfen (more flea stages)
K9 Advantix - Imidacloprid + Permethrin (ticks and fleas)
Advantage Multi - Imidacloprid + Moxidectin (hearworms, sarcoptic mange, ear mites and fleas in cats and dogs)
37
Metaflumizone is a semicarbozone insecticide that blocks ___ channels in insects, results in nerve paralysis.
Sodium channels
**It was in Promeris and it got pulled from the market
38
What is the insecticide that is a volatile oil extract of the chrysanthemum flower. It has fast knockdown but no residual activity.
Pyrethrins
There is no cholinesterase suppression. Pyrethrin demonstrates a rapid kill but low toxicity, rapid inactivation and lack of tissue reside and buildup. These are toxic to fish and bees.
Effective abasing fleas, lice, otodectes and mosquitos.
39
Pyrethrin at a low concentration is effective if it is synergized with what compound? This forms a stable complex with cytochrome P450, limiting metabolism of pyrethrins in insects.
piperonyl butoxide
40
What is an insecticide and an acaricide marketed outside the US. It interacts with ligand-gated chloride channels especially those gated by GABA. It is a contact poison.
Pyriprole
41
Permethrin is what type of insecticide?
It is a Pyrethroid - these chemicals are modeled after pyrethrin and include allethrin, bioallethrin, remethrin, tetramethrin, deltamethrin, fenvalerate, and permethrin.
Quick kill the is improved but the addition of a synergist and pyrethrin. Newer ones are most UV stable.
Permethrin is the most popular agent. It has a low toxicity, stable, repellent activity. Just don't use it in cats.
42
What is the insecticide that is a natural organic compound, is derived from the root of the Derris plant? It is similar to pyrethrins in having low toxicity, rapid action and quick degradation.
Rotenone
43
Spinetoram exists the insect nervous system, leading to paralysis and death. It alters the function of ___ and ___ ion channels at different biding sites than other insecticides.
Nicotinic and GABA
44
Systemic endectocide were developed from ______ produced by the fermentation of various actinomycetes. This class of dugs include avermectins and milbemycins.
macrocyclic lactones
All at least partly act by potentiating the release and effects of GABA. GABA is a peripheral NT in susceptible nematodes, arachnids and insects.
Avermectins and milbemycins are also agonists of glutamate-gasted chloride channels.
These drugs do not cross the BBB and make them relatively safe.
45
High-dose ivermectin can cause neurotoxicity in dogs younger than 3 months, in most animals if given massive dosages or in a verity of herding breeds, most notably the collie. Signs include mydriasis, hypersalivation, lethargy, ataxia, tremors, coma and death. This is associated with altered function of what protein?
P-glycoprotein
Pgp is encoded by Multiple Drug Resistant Gene (MDR-1) or ABCB1. It limits penetration of substances into the CNS. With decreased Pgp activity, a drug enter the CNS freely and exerts whatever positive or negative effects it might have.
46
The ____ mutation in the MDR1 gene is well known in various herding breeds and their crosses. When they receive doses of ivermectin higher than 0.1 m/kg, neurologic signs develop. Dogs homozygous for mutation are very susceptible to intoxication, whereas dogs heterozygous for the mutation are of intermediate sensitivity.
Nt230(del4)
47
Ivermectin is a derivative of ivermectin B from fermentation of _______.
Streptomycin avermitilis
Parasite paralysis is the main action of ivermectin, but hit also suppresses reproduction.
Ticks are not killed, nut their egg production and molting are suppressed.
48
____ is derived from fermentation products of streptomycin hygroscopic. It is similar to ivermectin activity with the notable addition of efficacy in the control of various intestinal parasites.
Milbemycin
It was combined spinosad = Trifexis
49
___ is derived from fermentation products of streptomycin cyaneogriseus.
Moxidectin
US - labeled for flea - Advantage Multi
This is also licensed for the treatment of various nematode, hypodermic, mites, lice and hornet flies in cattle.
50
_______ is derived from fermentation products of streptomycin avermitilis. It the US, it is marketed for the treatment and control of various nematodes, mites and lice in cattle and swine.
Doramectin
51
What is a semi-synthetic ivermectin produce by a new strain of S. avermitilis. It prevents, heat worm, kills adults flea and prevents eggs from hatching and it control ear mites on dogs and cat?
Selemectin
Following topical application, selamectin is identified in sebaceous glands, hair follicles and basal layers to the epithelium
It is safe in ivermectin sensitive dogs, puppies and kittens 6 weeks and older.
52
What is a benzylphenol urea compound that inhibits chitin synthesis. Chitin is a major component of the flea exoskeleton but is not found in mammals. With altered shining synthesis, embryogenesis and itching does not occur.
Lufenuron
53
What is an oral flea development inhibitor. It belong to the triazine group pf compounds? it does not inhibit chitin synthesis but it increases its stiffness so the exoskeleton cannot expand. Needs to be given once daily to work.
Cyromazine
54
Nitenpyram is an agent that acts at what receptor?
Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor.
It is a novel oral administered flea adulticide. It exerts it action at the post-synatptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptor of the insect.
Unlike imidacloprid, which isa paralytic, nitempyram produced hyperexitability. No activity after 48 hour.
55
What insecticide is derived from a soil-dwelling bacterium, Saccharopolyspora spinosa, and has activity abasing insects. Its activity occurs at the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor but does not interact with down insecticidal binding sites of other nicotinic or GABA-ergic insecticides.
It produces hyper excitability, paralysis and death of the insect.
Spinsad
56
The larvae of Ancylostoma braziliense, Ancylostoma caninum and Univinaria stenocephala case a characteristic skin lesion in humans that is called what? The skin lesions these larvae produce in dogs or cats are not as severe because these animals are their specific hosts.
Creeping eruption caused by hookworm dermatitis.
Skin lesicon are often incidental to completion of the norm life cycle, with the larvae quickly abadoning the skin and moving tother parts of the body. Percutaneous entry can lead to complete of the life cycle larvae penetrating by this route rarely mature. Larvae are present in the grass and in soil of runs.
57
Cutaneous hookworm lesions are more prevalent in areas with predominant infections with what species? This species produced marked dermatitis son skin penetration but rarely completes the life cycle by this route.
U. stenocephala
58
Which hookworm species can complete their life cycle via skin penetration?
A. canium
59
In hookworm infections, what stage of the larvae enter the dos skin on areas of the body that frequently contact the ground. They enter primary at en area of desquamation on the skin.
Third-stage larvae
60
How do you diagnose hookworm dermatitis?
Diagnosis is made with reasonable certainty by the clinical signs, a positive fecal examination finding hookworm eggs and history of poor housing and sanitation.
61
Rhabditic dermatitis is a local erythematous nonseasonal pruritic dermatitis caused by a cutaneous infection with larvae of what species?
Pelodera strongyloides
Under filthy condition, the larvae of the free-living nematodes P. Strongyloides may invade the skin of dogs.
62
How do you diagnose and treat Pelodera?
Diagnosis is made by skin sraping which reveal small motile nematode larvae. Larvae and adult can be identified in contaminated litter by using the Baermann technique.
Biopsy reveals varying degrees of perifolloculitis, folliculitis and furunculosis.
Treat with a parasiticidal dip or ivermectin.
63
What insect of ducks, shore birds, voles, mice or muskrats (natural hosts) penetrate the skin of humans, or other warm-blooded animals that are abnormal hosts, and cause a pruritus dermatitis?
Schistosoma - "swimmers itch"
The miracidia hatch and need to find a snail within 12 hours or diet. They form spoprocytes in the nail and hatch in 4 weeks as cercaria. Then they have 24 hors to find a warmblooded natural host. In the natural host, they fo to the liver and intestinal wall to lay offs and passed in feces. The cercariae penetrate the skin of the abnormal host and produce clinical disease.
These parasites are trematodes
64
What parasite affects dogs and wild carnivores of North America. The intermediate host is a Cyclops (crustacean) that is ingested form contained water by the host.
Dracuculiasis
The larvae develop in the host during a period of 8-12 months. The adults develop in the subcutaneous tissue the abdomen and limbs. Usually a nodule forms and eventually a fistula develops. When the host enter cool water the female worm is stimulated to release larvae - escaping through the fistula.
Chronic single to multiple nodules on the limbs, head or abdomen. Treatment is just removing them.
65
What parasite causes heartworm disease?
Dirofilaria immitis
Diagnosis for dermatitis is usually with peripheral eosinophil and positive Knott test for microfilaria.
66
A large number of filarial nematodes are found worldwide, The adults reside in subcutaneous tissues, whereas microfilaria circulate the blood, and skin disease appears to be rare. Worldwide, what filarial species appears to be the parasite most likely to cause disease in the dog and rarely in the cat?
Dirofilaria repens
Animals develop a pruritus papular dermatitis over the lumbosarcra and perineal regions and in the hind legs. Firm subcutenouas masses can also be seen. Concurrent infection wit Babesia and other infectious agents appear to be common.
Treatment with melarsomine and ivermectin effectively eradicated the adults and microfilaria.
67
What parasite is found in the middle ear of cats?
Mammononogamus
68
In arachnids, what is the mouthpart called? what is the thorax/abdomen called?
gnathstoma or capitulum
| idiosoma
69
How do ticks differ from mites?
Larger size
hairless or short-hared leathery body
exposed armed hypostome
presnce of a pair of spiracles near the coat of the fourth pair of legs.
Most ticks are not host species and are divided in to hard ticks (ixodid) and soft ticks (argasid).
70
Argasid ticks are more commonly parasites of what animal species and are frequently in warmer climates? There is only one species that is important in dogs and cats which is called?
birds
Otobius megnini - this is found in the external ear canal of dogs and cats. The larvae engorge on lymph in the ear and look yellow/pink.
71
What is the different between Rhipicephalusm, Ixodes and Dermacentor ticks?
Rhipicephalus is recognized by the vase-shaped base of the capitulum, elongated epistles and triangular adana plates in the male tick. the fourth cover are no longer than the other three.
Dermacentro ticks are characterized by a large froth coxae, the rectangular base of the capital, and its ornate scutum.
Ixodid ticker are characterized bu a chinos shield, the cutup, which covers the dorsal surface of the male and the anterior dorsal part of the female tick. the capitulum is simile dorsal at the anterior end, and its base is important taxonomically.
72
What is the species of brown dog tick that affects dogs and cats?
Rhipicephalus sanguineus
This tick is widely distributed in US. It can survive indoors owing to its low moisture requirements and can complete its life cycle with only one animal as host. The prince host is the dog, it infests hosts three separate times in its life cycle but the same animal can be the host ear time.
73
Rhipicephalus sanguineus can transmit which diseases?
babesiosis, anaplasmosis, Ehrlichia canis and Francisella tularensis, and can cause tick paralysis.
74
What is the species of American dog tick that affects domestic animals?
Dermacentor variables; This tick is distributed in North America but is common along the Atlantic coast.
The prince host of the adult tick is the dog, but humans and other animals can be as well.
The principal host of the immature tick is the field mouse, but other small rodent or larger mammals may be infested.
75
Dermacentor variabilis spreads which diseases?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, St. Louis Encephalitis, tularemia, anaplasmosis and tick paralysis.
76
What is the Rocky Mountain wood tick?
Dermacentor andersoni
77
What is the Pacific of West Coast tick?
Dermacenter occidentalis
78
What is the black-legged tick?
Ixodes Scapularis
79
What is the deer tick?
Ixodes dammini
80
What is the Lone Star tick?
Amblyomma maculatum
81
How do the class of isoxazolines work to kill parasites?
Isoxazolines are absorbed systemically; fleas and ticks must bite the animal to be killed. Isoxazolines work by selective inhibition of GABA- and glutamate-gated chloride channels, leading to hyper-excitation and death of the flea or tick
82
What is the poultry mite?
Dermanyssus Gallinae
This mite attacks poultry, wild and cage birds, dogs and cats as well as humans.
It is called the red mite, but only when its filled with blood. Life cycle is only 8 days.
83
What is the name of the small cat fur mite common in Australia, Hawaii Texas, Florida and Brazil?
Lynxacarus Radovsky
All of the legs have terminal suckers
These mites are not highly contagious and infection usually occurs by direct contact.
84
What is the name of the chigger mite that has been repotted to be common in squirrels and small rodents in the southwestern and eastern United States and has been reported in the cat?
Walchia Americana
85
Infection with this chigger is reported with greater frequency in Spain, Protugal and France. Infection appears to be most common in outdoor dogs in the late summer through early autumn.
Straelensia Cynotis
S. cynotis lodges itself in the follicular Ostia where it injectis its saliva which damages the hair follicle.
86
What is the treatment for trombiculosis?
Treatment for trombiculosis is not really needed because the parasite does not complete its life cycle on the dog. It may take several months to resolve.
87
What psorotid mite feeds on epidermal debris and tissue fluid from the superficial epidermis. In this way, the host is exposed to and immunized agains the mite antigen. There is no delayed hypersensitivity, but reacggnic antibody develops early in the disease.
Otodected cyanosis (ear mite)
88
Dogs and cats that have O. cyanotic infestations often have positive intradermal skin test reactions to which mites?
D. fariane
D. peteronyssinus
A. siro
These reactions become negative after the infestation is eliminated.
89
Describe the life cycle of Otodectes Cyanotis
The life cycle is 3 weeks
The egg is laid and stuck to a subtract that hatches and produced a six-legged larva.
The larva feeds for up to 10 days and then hatch to a protonymph = 8 left. Then molts into a deuteronymph.
Sexual dimorphs only occurs in the adults.
Only adult males have sucks on the rear legs.
Adults live for 2 months
Live off host for about 12 days.
90
What mite inhabits the nasal passages and sinuses of dogs?
Pneumonyssoides canium
91
What are the different species of Cheyletiella found on dogs, cats and rabbits? How can you differentiate them?
C. yasguri - Dogs - heart-shaped sensory organ on genu 1
C. blakei - Cats - cone-shaped sensory organ on genu 1
C. parasitiorax - Rabbits - global-shaped sensory organ
92
Cheyletiella are large mites that have four pairs of lefts bearing _____ instead of claws. The most diagnostics feature of Cheyletiella spp. is the accessory mouthparts or palpi that terminate in the prominent hook.
combs
93
What breed of dog has an increased incidence of Cheyletiella?
Cocker Spaniels
94
Describe the life cycle of Cheyletiella
The life cycle is approximately 21 days. The mite is an obligate parasite because larvae, nymphs and adults male mites are through to die soon after leaving the host. Adult female mites are more hardy and may life fee off of the host for up to 10 days. The entire life cycle is on one host.
95
Describe the 4 stages of Demodicosis
The four stages of D. canis ay be demonstrated in skin scrapings.
Fusiform eggs hatch into small 6-legged larvae and then into 8-legged nymphs then 8-legged adults.
**In utero transmission of mites does not occur
96
In generalized dermodicosis, the the interdigital spaces may be the only affected area in which breed?
Old English Sheepdogs
97
What three breeds are at the highest risk for developing demodicosis?
Pitbulls
American Pittbulls
Shar Peis
* *English Bull dogs may be predisposed to a nodular presentation
* * Westies and Shih Tzus present with greasy coats over topline secondary to D. injai.
98
Dogs with chronic generalized demodicosis have decreased _____ function, as measured by the in vitro lymphocyte blastogenesis test (IVLB).
T-cell
Most recent suites have suggested that dogs with GD have a decreased Th1 response and an increased Th2 response. Dogs with demodicosis have an increased CD8 cells and decreased CD4
99
Which two breeds of cats are predisposed to generalized Demodicosis?
Burmese and Siamese
100
What Demodex mite is found in the epidermal pits in the stratum corneum of hamsters?
Demodex criceti (looks like Demodex gatoi)
101
Describe the life cycle of Scabies and Notoedres
Copulation of adults occurs in a molting pocket on the surface of the skin. The fertilized female mite excavates a burrow through the horny layer of the skin and lays eggs in a tunnel.
Eggs hatch as larvae and burrito the surface.
Mites like their pockets where there is little hair.
102
How do you differentiate Nodoedres from Scabies?
The anus of the S. scabies var canis is terminal, whereas that of N. cats has a dorsal location - an important point of differentiation.
103
What is the species of feline scabies?
Notoedres cati
Foxes, dogs and rabbits can also be infected.
104
What are the 4 species of spiders that are medically important in the United States?
Black widow - Latrodectus Mactans
Red-legged widow - Latrodectus bishopi
Brown Recluse - Loxoscele reclusa
Common brown spider - Loxosceles unicolor
**antivenom might be indicated for "the widows"
105
Pediculosis is infestation with what parasite?
Lice!
Lice are host specific and spend their entire life on their host. they survive only a few days is separated from the host.
Lice are spread by direct contact or y contaminated brushes, combs and bedding.
The percolated white eggs (nits) are cemented firmly to the hairs of the host (Cheyletiella are nonoperculated, smaller and looser attached to hair shafts)
Nymph hatches from the off and becomes an adult and cycle lasts about 21 days.
106
A lice lymph hatches from the egg and undergoes how my ecdysis to become an adult?
3
107
What are the two suborders that lice are divided into?
Anoplura (sucking) - have mouthparts adapted for sucking the blood of the host. With heavy infestations, they produce sufficient anemia to cause weakness and some animals become irritated.
Mallophaga (chewing) - feed on epithelial debris and hair. but some species also have mouthparts adapted for fading blood from their host.
108
What is the ONLY blood sucking louse of the dog?
Linognathus setosus
109
What is the chewing louse of dogs?
Trichodectes canis is the common chewing louse of dogs.
110
What is the chewing louse of cats?
Felicola subrostratus infests cats and may either be asymptomatic or cause severe pruritus with dermatitis and hair loss not he back.
111
When mosquito disease is suspected in a dog, _______ produced will significantly reduce landing and feeding rates.
65% permethrin spot-application
112
What species of fly are very well adapted for attacking the skin of host and sucking blood?
Stomoxy calcitrans
The rasping teeth and blades of the labella tear open the skin, and the labella and whole proboscis are plunged into the wound tp such blood. The entire action is highly irriateing the host and conducive to spreading disease.
Permethrins or citronella will help prevent repeated bites.
113
What are tiny biting flies that reproduce in shaded areas with running water? They are seasonal in early spring and summer, and during that time, cause severe reactions in people and animals. their bites are concentrated to hairless areas.
Black flies (Simuliidae spp.)
Some animals will have highly diagnostic annular, macular lesions characterized by a small, pinpoint puncture surrounded by a larger bleached zone of edema.
Horse fly (Tabanus), Deer fly (Chrysops) and mosquitos tend to be less reactive bites.
114
Regarding species of flies, _____ feed only on dead tissue whereas ____ attack living tissue.
Calliphorids (blowflies)
| Sarcophagids (flesh flies)
115
What is the species of screworm that has widespread geographic distribution?
Cochliomyia hominivorax
116
What flies are large and beeline with vestigial mouthparts, but they neither bite nor feed. They are not directly at t r ac ted to a host species but deposit eggs on stones or vegetation near the entrance to the burrow or nests of animals which they are probably attracted at night?
Cuterebra
**Natural hosts is usually rabbits
117
Hymenopterma insects are not parasitic. They possess menraeous wing sand mouthparts for chewing, sucking and licking. The _____ of the female insect is adapted for stinging. The female insect has a paired venom glands theat express a toxin during eh sting.
ovipositor
Facial eosinophilic furunculosis is likely secondary to bites.
118
What is the species name of the fire ant that is found in South America and Southeastern US?
Soplenopsis invicta
These ants inhabit urina and rural settings. Then their nest is disturbed, they swear out, cover the object, and deliver numerous stings. Fire ants attach themselves by pinching the skin with their mandible, they then arch their does and inject vomin through an abdominal stinger. The venom is primarily composed of unique alkaloid (solenopsin A) that is cytotoxic and hemolytic.
119
Fire ants contain a venom is primarily composed of unique alkaloid called __________that is cytotoxic and hemolytic.
solenopsin A
120
Pine and ask caterpillars (Thaumetopoea spp.) can cause skin reactions. Bristle from the caterpillars contain what substance the causes mast cell defarnulation and vitamin release?
thaumetopoein
121
What is the name of the rabbit flea?
Spilopsyllus cunniculi
pinna and periocular regions
122
What is the 'stick-tight' poultry flea that can occasionally infer pets, especially in warm climates?
E. gallinacea
**Preferance for facial region
123
What is the human flea that is uncommon finding most dogs?
Pulex irritans
124
Fleas develop by complete metamorphosis from egg to the adult through how many larval stages?
3 stages
Newly hatched larvae move to that dark protected areas, where they feed on organisms debris, other larvae and adult flea feces. TWO molts are complete before the third larval install enters the pupil phase.
* Flea offs usually hatch in 1.5-10 days.
* * Low temperatures are lethal for most eggs at 24 hours
125
Flea larvae are the Achilles heel of the flea, less than __-% usually survive. Dryness, high head and extreme cold are lethal to the larvae in a short period of time.
25%
126
At the end of the larval phase, what produces a silklike cocoon in which pupation occurs. If the larva is disturbed, it can develop a a naked pupa, which decreases its changes of survival slightly.
third instar
Pupal stage stage is more resistant to desiccation than ANY other stage, but will die at temperature extremes ,
Emergence depends on the presence of appropriate stimuli, especially temperature and physical pressure. The adult can remain in cocoon for as long as 140 days.
127
In most households, C. felis felis takes how many weeks to complete its life cycle?
3-4 weeks
*Adult fleas wills tart to deed within minutes of acquiring host and females will start egg production 24 to 36 hours after her first blood meal. They can reproduce for up to 100 days and 40-50 eggs/day.
128
What is unique about the life cycle of E. gallinacea?
After copulation, the female flea burrows into the skin, there the eggs are laid. The eggs hatch on the host but the larvae fall into the environment, where the remainder of the life cycle is completed.
129
C. canis is commonly isolated from dogs where?
Europe
130
What is the name of the Brazilian flea that likes to burrow into the skin and produce significant damage at the site of attachment?
Tunga pentrans
131
Aside from blood loss and skin damage they cause, fleas are intermediate hosts for ______ and can be vectors for what 6 other diseases?
D. canine
Rickettsia felis, Rickettsia type, Bartonella henselae, Bartonella clarridgeiae, hemoplsma spp and the promastigotes of Leishmania.
132
What is the compound in professional flea killing products that came about due to health and environmental concerns. The compounds have rapid ovicidal and larvicidal activity, probably through a dehydrating mechanisms. Ingested crystals also kill larvae.
Sodium borate
133
Cat fleas are most sensitive to light with what wavelength?
510-550 nm (green light)
134
Compare methoprene and pyriproxyfen
Both are insect growth regulators that prevent pupation.
Methopreene is NOT light stable and should be applied every 30 days.
Pyriproxyfen (fenocycarb) are sunlight stable and last 6 to 12 months.
135
What is the difference between Advantage, Advantix and Advantage Multi?
Advantage II is a combination of Imidacloprid 9.1% (adulticide fleas/lice) and pyriproxifen (IGR).
Advantix is a abomination of imidacloprid 8.8% (adulticide fleas/lice), permethrin (ticks, flies and mosquitos) and pyroxyproxifen (IGR) = Dogs only
Advantage Multi is a combination of imidacloprod 10% with moxidectin. This gets fleas, heart worms and intestinal parasites. (Additional effects against arachnids and helminths)
136
What is in Frontline Plus and how is it metabolized?
Fipronil 10% and S Methoprene for fleas, ticks and lice.
It is stored in sebaceous glands and sebaceous secretion can replenish the skin surface supply. Bathing actually should have minimal impact on efficacy.
137
What is the difference between Vectra and Vectra 3D?
Vectra contains dinotefuran 22% and 3% pyriproxyfen with indications for monthly application. Approved for cats and dogs.
A strictly dog product, Vecta 3D, is marketed with extended label indications to include ticks, mosquitos, lice, sand flies and mites. This product contains dinofuratan 5%, pyriproxyfen 0.44% AND permethrin 36%. We have no idea which mites to support this claim.
138
How does selemectin work?
This is a semisynthetic ivermectin applied to the skin every 30 days for control of heat worms, fleas ,ticks, intestinal parasites and non follicular mites.
Transdermally absorbed product circulates int he BLOOD and concentrates in the sebaceous glands, where it is stored as a reservoir to replenish the skin.
It has beeb shown kill adult fleas, reduce egg production and have some larvacidal activity.
139
When Lufenuron is give by much to dogs and cats once months. Where is the product concentrated to maintain blood level values for up to 30 days?
Stored in the fat and released from there and is an IGR
As the flea feeds, it absorbs the compound with eh animals blood and is passed in the fleas feces. In female fleas, lufenuron sterile the eggs. Larvae that feed on the feces will die.
The cytotoxicity of lufenuron affects cuticle, epidermal cells, chorion and vitelline membrane of unhatched larvae.
140
Spinosad (Comfortis) is contraindicated to be used concurrently with what other parasiticide treatment?
high-dose ivermectin
* Data suggests that spinosad acts as a Pgp inhibitor, with resultant increased blood and CDF levels of ivermectin.
141
With modern topical and systemic residual flea products control of infestations in the premises is achieved by preventing what?
reproduction
142
What in the microenvironment is primary determining factor in flea populations?
Relative humidity
143
Rate of flea development is _______ dependent
temperature
144
C. felis undergoes ______; as a flea population “ages” it becomes more male.
protogyny; females are emerging first and dying. Initially, its a female dominated species.
145
Histologically, demodicosis is characterized by a mural folliculitis with infiltrating _____ T cells, which resolves quickly with resolution of the demodicosis.
CD8+ cytotoxic
**MHC class II receptors are upregulated in the skin of dogs with demodicosis, particularly in keratinocytes.
146
In cats, demodicosis has been reported in association with feline immunodeficiency virus, xanthoma and diabetes mellitus. The localized form has been described in lesions of what disease?
squamous cell carcinoma in situ.
147
Miticidal therapy should be continued _____ weeks beyond the ___ set of negative monthly scrapings to decrease the risk of a disease recurrence.
four
| second
148
List the three common actions of Amitraz
monoamine oxidase inhibitor
alpha 2-adrenergic agonist
inhibits prostaglandin synthesis.
149
What are the reported adverse effects of Amitraz?
depression, sleepiness, ataxia, pruritus, urticaria, edema, skin irritation, polyphagia, polydipsia, hypotension, bradycardia, hyperglycemia, vomiting and diarrhea.
150
What breed is specially excluded on the Amitraz label?
Chihuahuas are specifically excluded on the label.
151
ABCB1 gene (formerly mdr1), is responsible for producing ______ an ATP-dependent transmembrane transporter protein which plays an important role in the blood–brain barrier.
P-glycoprotein
152
Spinosad has been shown to be a potent ______ of canine P-gp which accounts for its impact on ivermectin pharmacokinetics.
inhibitor
153
What is a longer-acting macrocyclic lactone that has been reported as a successful treatment for canine demodicosis?
Doramectin
154
What parasiticide been shown to target a binding site that inhibits insect and acarine ligand-gated chloride channels, in particular those gated by the neurotransmitter GABA, thereby blocking pre- and postsynaptic transfer of chloride ions across cell membranes?
Isoxazolines
Prolonged isoxazoline-induced hyperexcitation results in uncontrolled activity of the CNS and death of insects and acarines. The selective toxicity of isoxazolines between insects, acarines and mammals may be inferred by the differential sensitivity of the insects’ and acarines’ GABA receptors versus mammalian GABA receptors
155
Which isozazoline (due to anecdotal reports) cause very rare neurological adverse effects, it is recommended to use with caution in dogs with preexisting epilepsy?
Bravecto (fluralaner)
156
Damalinia and Bovicola are chewing lice of what species?
horse
157
Polyplax spinulosa is the biting louse of what species?
Rat
158
Solenoptes capillatus the biting louse of what species?
cattle
159
Linognathus pedalis is the biting louse of what species?
Sheep
160
Linognathus stenopis is the biting louse of what species?
Goat
161
Linognathus setosus is the biting louse for what species?
Dog
162
Haemodipus ventricosus is the biting louse for what species?
Rabbit
163
Haematopinus asini is the biting house for what species?
horse
164
Felicola subrostratus is the chewing louse in what species?
cat
