Endocrine and Metabolic Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

In cats an elevated alkaline phosphatase is an indicator of active liver disease. Why are mild elevations in this enzyme are considered more significant in cats compared to dogs?

A

Cats normally have lower ALP activity than dogs

The half-life of ALP in cats is much shorter compared to dogs (6hrs compared to 72 hours)

Cats do not have the steroid isoenzyme induced found in the liver

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2
Q

Proteinuria is routinely detected by semiquantitative methods. What advantage does the sulfosalicylicturbidimetric test have over the dipstick colorimetric test?

A

Increased sensitivity

Ability to detect proteins other than albumin

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3
Q

What is the most common cause of pseudohypoglycemia in laboratory specimens?

A

In vitro glycolysis occurs if plasma or serum

is not separated from the red blood cells

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4
Q

Polymyopathy with profound cervical ventroflexion is associated with what electrolyte imbalance in cats?

A

Hypokalemia

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5
Q

List a breed of dog in which benign familial hyperphosphatasaemia with markedly increased alkaline phosphatase has been reported

A

Siberian Husky

Scottish Terrier

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6
Q

Most peptide hormones initiate their actions by activating what pathway?

A

cell membrane enzyme adenylcyyclase and the cyclic adenosine mono-phosphate system (cAMP).

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7
Q

What is the treatment of choice for cats with Cushings?

A

adrenalectomy

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8
Q

GH has opposing effects. Its catabolic activity is mediated by GH, whereas the anabolic activity is controlled by what hormone?

A

somatomedins (IGF)

**Growth hormone is important for development of T cell function and development of thymus.

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9
Q

Excessive GH causes what disease?

A

Acromegaly

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10
Q

What two breeds are is pituitary dwarfism thought to be an inherited autosomal recessive condition?

A

GSD and Carnelian bear dog

Most affect dogs have a variably sized Rathke cleft cyst in the pituitary gland resulting in varying degrees of anterior pituitary insufficiency.

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11
Q

Immunodeficient dwarfism occurs in what breed?

A

Weimeraners

**These dogs have deficient lymphocyte blastogenic responses to phytomitogens, as well as thymic cortical hypoplasia.

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12
Q

What other lab results would support diagnosis of pituitary dwarfism?

A

Radiography may reveal delayed closure of growth plates of long bones, delayed eruption of permanent teeth, failure of the os penis to mineralize completely by 2 year of age and open fontanelle of the skull, smaller than normal heart, liver and kidney.

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13
Q

What is a characteristic metabolic abnormality of GH-deficient dogs?

A

hypersensitivity to the hypoglycemic effect of insulin - severe prolonged hypoglycemia.

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14
Q

Progestin administration in normal dogs increase what two hormones?

A

GH and IGF

Cats and dogs both have insulin-resistant diabetes

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15
Q

Most cases of acromegaly are in intact ____

A

females - progestin induces production of GH

These dogs usually respond well to OVH

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16
Q

What test response is considered a hallmark of acromegaly?

A

Nonsuppressibility of plasma GH levels after an IV glucose loading dose is considered a hallmark of this disease (1 g/kg).

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17
Q

Estrogens are produced by what three organs?

A

ovarian follicles
zona reticularis
Sertoli and interstitial cells of testicles

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18
Q

FSH stimulates ovarian follicular growth and estrogen production in females. What does it stimulate in males?

A

spermatogenesis

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19
Q

What change in the skin of dogs is a feature of clinical dermatoses associated with hyperestrogenism of dogs?

A

cutaneous hyperpigmentation…..and alopecia

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20
Q

What organs produce androgens?

A

interstitial cells of testicle
zona reticularis
conversion of other sex hormones

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21
Q

What hormone causes androgen secretion by testicular interstitial cells?

A

LH

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22
Q

Regarding hyperestrogenism, what is typically the underlying cause? What breed is predisposed?

A

Cystic ovaries and rarely with a functional tumor.

**English bulldogs

23
Q

What has been reported in toy poodles with pseudohermophrodites?

A

cystic ovaries and hyperestrogenism

24
Q

Most estrogen-producing ovarian tumors are what type?

A

granulosa-theca cell tumors

25
Q

Hereditary syndrome of male pseudohermaphroditism, cryptorchidism, Sertoli cell neoplasia and feminization as been reported in what breed?

A

Miniature schnauzers

26
Q

What clinical feature is highly suggestive of feminization in male dogs?

A

Linear prepututial dermatosis = testicular neoplasia

27
Q

Circumanal gland and tail gland hyperplasia is associated with what tumor in male dogs?

A

Interstitial cell tumors

28
Q

What biochemical abnormality is most likely the cause of SND?

A

hypoaminoacidemia

**Can be due to glucagonoma

29
Q

Xanthomatosis has been reported in cats with presumed hereditary _______.

A

hyperlipoproteinemia

30
Q

Minoxidil is a ______ that has been used to topically or orally treat people with patterned baldness.

A

vasodilator

31
Q

Parafollicular cells within the thyroid gland lie within the interstitial between follicles and secrete what hormone?

A

calcitonin

32
Q

Synthesis of thyroglobulin is regulated by what hormone?

A

TSH

33
Q

TSH production in the pituitary is primarily regulated by ___ produced within the pituitary gland from deiodination of circulating T4, with modulation by TRH from hypothalamus.

A

T3

34
Q

Feline paraneoplastic alopecia is associated with what tumor?

A

pancreatic adenocarcinoma

35
Q

Nodular dermatofibrosis is associated with what two tumors has been descried in German Shepherds. What is the gene associated with this disease?

A

renal cystadeocarcinomas or cystadeomas

FLCN (chromosome 5) = folliculin

36
Q

What breed is predisposed to Leishmaniasis in North America?

A

Foxhounds

37
Q

What drug is used as maintenance for Leishmaniasis and has been proven to maintain dogs in a maintenance state and decreases vector borne transmission?

A

Allopurinol

38
Q

What is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist with an immunomodulatory effect prescribe to prevent and control leishmaniasis in dogs?

A

Domperione

39
Q

Samples from what area are best for testing PCR on suspected Leishmaniasis case?

A

LN

40
Q

Xanthomas are associated with what hereditary defect in cats?

A

hypercholesterolemia

41
Q

What dog breed is at increased risk for developing SLE?

A

GSD

42
Q

TSH stimulates the synthesis and release of what hormones.

A

T3 and T4

43
Q

T4 must undergo what process to become T3 and then be able to bind to receptors

A

Deiodination

40-60% of T3 is derived from T4 in peripheral tissue.

44
Q

TSH secretion decreases what hormones?

A

somatostatin, dopamine, catecholamine TNF and some interleukins.

45
Q

What breed of dog has a naturally lower level of T4?

A

sight hounds

46
Q

What is the biologically active form of thyroxine?

A

fT4

It regulates pituitary function of TSH
Equilibrium dialysis fT4 levels are most accurate (sensitive and specific)

47
Q

An elevate ___ serum level and a decreased ___ concentration are consistent with hypothyroidism diagnosis with an accuracy of 86%.

A

TSH

fT4 by equilibrium dialysis

48
Q

What is the effect of sulfas and hypothyroidism?

A

Sulfas decrease T4 secretion from the thyroid glands and cause functional hypothyroidism and increased TSH.

8 week wash out according to May.

49
Q

The hypothalamus is stimulated to secrete CRH by what inflammatory cytokines? hormones?

A

IL-1,IL-6 and TNF

Leptin, Dopamin, Angiotensin II and ADH

50
Q

POMC is cleaved into what two biologically active fragments?

A

MSH and ACTH

51
Q

The zona glomerulosa lacks what enzyme and is therefore unable to produce cortisol or or androgens?

A

17-alpha-hydroxylase

52
Q

What enzyme does Trilostane inhibit?

A

This is a synthetic steroid analogue that competitively inhibits 3-b-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase which is the same needed to convert pr4enenolone and 17-a-hydoxypregnalone to progesterone and 17-a-hydroxyprogesterone (precursors of cortisone synthesis)

53
Q

What MOI inhibitor and D2 dopaminergic receptor agonist is most effective in dogs with pars intermedia tumors?

A
Selegiline hydrochloride (MOI inhibitor)
Cabergoline (D2 agonist)