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Sp 15-Micro Final > Parasites > Flashcards

Parasites Flashcards

1
Q

________ infections are among the most prevalent diseases in developing countries.

A

Parasitic

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2
Q

What is the difference between a parasitic infection and parasitic disease?

A

Infections are prevalent, but are not prolonged. Diseases are a consequence of prolonged, repeated, or high burden infection

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3
Q

Parasitic diseases are rarely fatal except for _______ which may be rapidly fatal (within 3-5 days).

A

Malaria

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4
Q

What are the two parasite types?

A

Protozoa and helminths

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5
Q

Many parasitic infections are ________ which could indicate why they are more prevalent in underdeveloped countries.

A

Zoonoses

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6
Q

Protozoa are _____-_______ __________.

A

One-celled eukaryotes

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7
Q

A ________ inoculum is required for initiation of protozoan infection.

A

Small

*parasitic replication to high numbers; intracellular; no free environmental stage in life cycle

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8
Q

Protozoa are often transmitted by which route?

A

fecal-oral (extracellular = lumen of GI)

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9
Q

What are the two forms within the protozoan life cycle?

A 
Active Trophozoite
Dormant Cyst (withstands environmental desiccation)
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10
Q

How do Mastigophora move?

A

Flagella

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11
Q

How do Mastigophora reproduce and divide?

A

Reproduce: sexual = syngamy
Divide: Longitudinal Fission

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12
Q

Parasitic forms of Mastigophora tend to lack ______ and _______.

A

Mitochondria

Golgi Apparatus

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13
Q

True or False: Most Mastigophora are solitary.

A

True

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14
Q

What are four examples of Mastigophora? Give one example of how one of these caused an outbreak of illness in the US.

A
  1. Trypanosoma
  2. Leishmania
  3. Giardia and Cryptosporidium*
  4. Trichomonas

*Cryptosporidium: drinking water outbreak in Milwaukee, 1993

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15
Q

Most Apicomplexa are ________, except male gametes.

A

Non-motile

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16
Q

What do Apicomplexa produce through sexual reproduction?

A

sporozoites

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17
Q

Apicomplexa are also known as what?

A

Sporozoa

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18
Q

What are two examples of Apicomplexa?

A

Plasmodium

Toxoplasma gondii

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19
Q

Helminths are ___________ ___________, also known as _________.

A

Multicellular animals

Metazoa

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20
Q

What three characteristics allow Helminths to be extracellular parasites?

A
  1. Large size
  2. Protective cuticle
  3. Larvae can develop into dormant cysts
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21
Q

Describe the complex life cycle of helminths.

A
  1. They exist in animal and human reservoirs
  2. They do NOT typically complete their life cycle within a human host
  3. Developmental stages take place outside of human, in insect vectors, or in animal reservoirs.
  4. Reproduce sexually; some are hermaphroditic
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22
Q

What kind of hosts are humans for Helminths?

A

Definitive Hosts

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23
Q

What kind of hosts are animals for Helminths?

A

Intermediate Hosts

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24
Q

Most Helminths cause _________ infections that are tolerated by the human host.

A

Chronic

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25
Q

True or False: Disease caused by Helminths is a consequence of parasitic replication.

A

False: Disease is NOT a consequence of REPLICATION. Rather, it is parasitic burden due to the number of parasites initially acquired from the environment.

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26
Q

Helminth infections spontaneously resolve when adult worms reach ___________. They are not eliminated by host response.

A

Senescence

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27
Q

True or False: Adult Helminths are large enough to be seen with the naked eye, but eggs/larvae must be identified with a microscope.

A

True

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28
Q

What are the two major groups of Helminths?

A

Flatworms

Roundworms

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29
Q

What is the common name for cestodes?

A

Tapeworms (a type of flatworm/platyhelminthes)

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30
Q

What is a common name for Trematodes?

A

Flukes (a type of flatworm/platyhelminthes)

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31
Q

Nematodes, from the phylum Aschelminthes, are also known as _____________.

A

Roundworms

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32
Q

Name one difference between flatworms and roundworms in relation to their visible characteristics.

A

Flatworms are segmented, round worms are not.

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33
Q

Most parasite vectors are _______________.

A

Arthropods

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34
Q

What is the vector for Malaria?

A

Female Anopheles mosquito

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35
Q

What is the vector for Sleeping Sickness?

A

Tsetse Flies

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36
Q

What is the vector for River Blindness?

A

Black Flies

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37
Q

What is the vector for Chagas’ Disease?

A

“Kissing” bugs

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38
Q

What is the vector for babesiosis?

A

Ticks

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39
Q

What are two local conditions that favor arthropod breeding and therefore parasitic prevalence?

A
  1. Stagnant water, foliage

2. Suitable animal hosts

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40
Q

What are parasite reservoirs?

A

Sources of parasites that do not DIRECTLY participate in transmission.

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41
Q

Name the three means for parasite entry.

A
  1. Oral (contaminated food/water)
  2. Skin penetration
  3. Bite Wounds/Arthropod-borne (blood transfusion)
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42
Q

For disease manifestation, Amoebiasis needs a _______ inoculum size.

A

Large

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43
Q

For disease manifestation, Cryptosporidiosis needs a ______ inoculum size.

A

Small

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44
Q

How do parasites evade host antibody and cell-mediated immune responses?

A
  1. Surface antigen variation (trypanosomes)
  2. Host Plasma Protein Coat (blood flukes)
  3. Secretion of Superoxide Dismutase to prevent host phagolysis.
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45
Q

What is the tissue tropism for Hookworms?

A

Intestinal Lumen

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46
Q

Which antigen on RBC surface is required for entry of P.vivax malaria parasites? Who often lacks this antigen and is, therefore, resistant to Malaria?

A

Duffy Factor Antigen

Those of Black/African Descent

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47
Q

Parasitic spread and multiplication are dependent upon what two external factors?

A
  1. Tissue/species Tropism

2. Temperature

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48
Q

Damage from parasites may be due to what two means?

A
  1. Direct tissue damage by parasite (cytolysis = ulcers)

2. Effects of immune response (inflammation, hypersensitivity)

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49
Q

True or False: Most clinical complications occur quickly after entry.

A

False, most occur years after initial infection.

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50
Q

For which parasite is the adult form asymptomatic in the intestine, but the larvae may enter the blood to infect deep tissues (possibly causing seizures or hydrocephalus in CNS).

A

Pork Tapeworm

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51
Q

What is Chagas’ Disease?

A

Also known as American Trypanosomiasis, it is found commonly in Mexico, South America, and Central America. Infection most commonly occurs through interaction with the feces of a “kissing bug.” There is an acute and chronic phase.

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52
Q

Describe the Acute Phase of Chagas’ Disease.

A

Immediately following infection.
May last a few weeks or months.
Mild (swelling or fever at site) or Asymptomatic.
Romana’s Sign = swollen eyelid

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53
Q

Describe the indeterminate phase of Chagas’ Disease.

A

Following the acute phase, most infected people enter into this prolonged asymptomatic form of disease during which few or no parasites are found in the blood.

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54
Q

Describe the Chronic phase of Chagas’ Disease.

A

20 - 30% of infected people will develop debilitating and sometimes life-threatening medical problems over the course of their lives: lesions on organs (heart, esophagus, colon), heart murmurs. Damage is irreversible and sometimes fatal.

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55
Q

For eradication success, more than one of which three methods must be employed?

A
  1. Chemoprophylaxis- preventative drugs
  2. Immunization
  3. Field Control Measures (insecticides, sanitation)
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56
Q

What are three parasitic mechanisms that make immunization difficult?

A
  1. Many parasites masquerade by coating in host antigens
  2. Some continually alter surface antigens
  3. Different proteins are displayed at different life stages
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57
Q

What are the four RBC Parasites (Plasmodium) and how do their preferences vary?

A
  1. P. falciparum: ALL ages of red blood cells ( hi mortality)
  2. P. Vivax: YOUNG red blood cells & reticulocytes
  3. P.Ovale YOUNG red blood cells & reticulocytes
  4. P. malariae: OLD red blood cells
58
Q

True or False: Around the world, Malaria remains a crucial controllable disease.

A

True.

*infection in the US is typically driven via travel

59
Q

Transmission of _______ occurs 9-17 days after bite from infected female Anopheles mosquitoes and symptoms develop 8-30 days later.

A

Malaria

60
Q

What is the difference between induced and imported Malaria?

A

Imported: Travelers import parasite into a non-endemic area during the incubation period
Induced: Transmission via blood transfusions/needles

61
Q

Mosquito salivary glands are inhabited by which form of the plasmodium?

A

Sporozoites

62
Q

After a mosquito bite, how and where do sporozoites travel?

A

Through the bloodstream.

To the liver cells where they multiply and mature.

63
Q

Plasmodium sporozoites mature in liver cells and are released to blood as _____________.

A

Merozoites

64
Q

After plasmodium merozoites are released to the blood, they invade, divide and mature into _________.

A

Trophozoite

65
Q

What are the stages of Plasmodium spread and multiplication following a mosquito bite?

A
  1. Travel as sporozoites through blood to liver
  2. Multiply and mature into merozoites
  3. Invade RBCs, divide, and mature into trophozoites
  4. RBCs burst and release merozoites
66
Q

Plasmodium multiply via ________ in liver and red blood cells.

A

Binary fission

67
Q

Malaria damage is caused by lysis of RBC and release of large numbers of ___________.

A

Merozoites and other parasitic molecules every 48-72 hours.

68
Q

How is glycophosphatidylinositol (GPI) involved in malarial damage?

A

GPI stimulates TNF and IL-1 from macrophages = fever, edema, anemia, shock

69
Q

A single nucleotide mutation (glutamate to valine) of the beta-globin results in what disease?

A

Sickle Cell Anemia

70
Q

Black Africans are often missing which blood group antigen?

A

Duffy/Glycophorin A

71
Q

Chloroquine targets the parasite’s _________ where hemoglobin is degraded. By blocking detoxification of heme, the parasite dies.

A

Food Vacuole

72
Q

P. vivax and P. ovale have __________ liver stages during which chloroquine is not effective.

A

Dormant

73
Q

P. falciparum and P. malariae do not produce _______ _______ stages.

A

Dormant Liver Stages

74
Q

P. ___________ has resistant strains to which chloroquine is not effective.

A

falciparum

75
Q

_______ is endemic in the U.S. and is easily confused with P. falciparum.

A

Babesia

76
Q

How is Babesia transmitted?

A

Deer Tick

Animal reservoir = white footed mouse

77
Q

How is the Babesia life cycle different from Malaria?

A

Merozoites are injected under the skin by tick (malaria: sporozoites from mosquito), RBCs are invaded (malaria has intermediate liver stage for producing merozoites), replicate via binary fission, lyse RBC

78
Q

Toxoplasma is a _______ protozoa that causes infections in humans, but rarely disease.

A

tissue

79
Q

What are the three syndromes associated with toxoplasma infection?

A
  1. Mononucleosis-like
  2. Congenital infection
  3. Brain/heart (immunocompromised)
80
Q

Toxoplasma survive in macrophages by preventing _______and ________ fusion.

A

Acidification and phagolysosome fusion

81
Q

How are humans infected with toxoplasmosis?

A

Consumption of inadequate cooked meat (tissue cysts) or food contaminated with cat feces (oocysts).

82
Q

For which parasite do cats harbor a sexual cycle that is similar to mosquitoes with malaria?

A

Toxoplasmosis

83
Q

Toxoplasma can cause _________ in human women.

A

Miscarriage

84
Q

_____ behavior changes after consumption of cat feces that results in an affected amygdala.

A

Rat

85
Q

There is some evidence that toxoplasma infection is linked to __________ in humans.

A

Schizophrenia

Link associated with increased cat popularity as pets. Take with a grain of salt

86
Q

What is the small protozoan parasite that is transmitted by sandflies in tropical areas?

A

Leishmania

87
Q

What is Kala azar?

A

Aka: Black Fever: It is the second largest parasitic killer in the world (behind malaria). As the visceral form of leishmaniasis, parasites migrate to the liver, spleen and bone marrow

88
Q

What are the symptoms of Black Fever?

A

Fever, weight loss, fatigue, anemia, and substantial swelling of the liver and spleen.

89
Q

The “type” of leishmaniasis (cutaneous, visceral) is determined by the _______________.

A

Location of the macrophages that are infected.

90
Q

After the vector for leishmaniasis (sand fly) infects a host with _____1____ they enter circulating macrophages and reproduce as _____2___.

A

1 Promastigotes,
2 Amastigotes
(the macrophage will then die and release amastigotes to infect more macrophages)

91
Q

Which are flagellated, Promastigotes or Amastigotes?

A

Promastigotes

92
Q

________-containing compounds are useful for treatment of Leishmania.

A

Antimony

93
Q

How is Chagas’ Disease (Trypanosoma cruzi) transmitted?

A

Reduviid “Kissing” Bug bites and deposits feces onto skin. Scratching the area will introduce the organism into the lesion.

94
Q

Chagas’ Disease displays as what kind of illness?

A

Mild at first, but complications arise 10-20 years later with nerve, GI, and heart damage.

95
Q

Which parasite is transmitted directly via tsetse fly bites?

A

African Sleeping Sickness

96
Q

The main reservoirs for African Sleeping Sickness are ______ in East Africa and _______ in West Africa.

A

East: Wild game animals
West: humans and domestic animals (cattle)

97
Q

A patient presents with a fever and swollen lymph nodes and a dominant surface antigen with antigenic variation due to genetic rearrangement. Months/years later, the patient presents with infection of the CNS, brain, and Spinal Fluid. What is the parasite?

A

Trypanosomes (African Sleeping Sickness or Chagas)

98
Q

Which intestinal/vaginal protozoa are flagellates, frequent in the US, and transmitted via water or sex?

A

Giardia Lamblia

Trichomonas Vaginalis

99
Q

Which intestinal/vaginal protozoa are non-motile, reproduce via alternating sexual/asexual cycles, and are foodborne?

A

Cryptosporidium
Cyclospora
Isospora

100
Q

Cysts from Giardiasis are _________ by stomach acid to transform into ________ ___________.

A

Stimulated

Vegetative trophozoites

101
Q

Which parasite is a common cause of vaginitis?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

102
Q

Which intestinal parasite destroyed host tissue in the colon, forms flask-shaped ulcers, and can spread through the bloodstream to cause abscesses in the liver and brain?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

103
Q

Humans are ______-______ hosts for some parasites because the parasite developmental life cycle cannot be completed following infection.

A

Dead-End

104
Q

Amoebiasis is transmitted through which route?

A

Fecal-Oral (highly resistant cyst)

105
Q

Entamoeba histolytica adheres to host cell receptors containing _________residues via lectin surface protein.

A

digalactose

106
Q

Damage from Entamoeba histolytica occurs after they attach and form _________.

A

Amoebapores

107
Q

Entamoebas produce ______ _________ that digests IgA, IgG, and other proteins.

A

Cysteine Protease

108
Q

What a parasitic example of zoonosis that can be spread person to person in crowded urban environments?

A

Cryptosporidium

109
Q

What is a symptom of cryptosporidium?

A

Diarrhea that lasts about 2 weeks while the parasite remains within microvilli of the small intestines.

110
Q

What is the most frequent intestinal helminth, seen commonly in the Southern US?

A

Ascaris

111
Q

What is the lifecycle of Ascaris?

A
  1. Eggs mature in the environment for several weeks before reaching infective stage
  2. Eggs are ingested
  3. Eggs hatch within small intestine and release larvae that penetrate the mucosa
  4. Travel to lung, trachea/pharynx, mature in the GI tract and release eggs in stool
112
Q

Nematodes (pinworms) are common in _______areas.

A

Tropical

113
Q

True or False: Enterobius eggs require a maturation stage outside the body.

A

False: they do not require a maturation stage outside of the body.

114
Q

Perianal itching is associated with which parasites?

A

Helminths/Pinworms.

Females migrate out of the anus and deposit eggs, causes itchiness, eggs transferred via fingers

115
Q

What characteristics of Hookworms make them unique?

A

They do not require ingestion, can be transmitted through fecal-cutaneous route.
Penetrate skin as Filariform larvae

116
Q

________ is less likely in persons infected by hookworms.

A

Asthma

117
Q

About _____species of parasitic worms infect humans and yearly worldwide infections are in the _______.

A

50

billions

118
Q

How can intestinal helminths cause chronic anemia?

A

Hookworms hang onto intestinal mucosa with teeth, secrete anticoagulant, and suck host’s blood. Severity is proportional to load.

119
Q

Which helminth causes malfunction by perforating intestinal walls and producing septicemia?

A

Strongyloides stercoralis

120
Q

Helminths that are long and ribbonlike with rectangular segments and sucking discs are known as?

A

Tapeworms

121
Q

Tapeworms attach to intestinal walls via a head with sucking discs or grooves, known as what?

A

Scolex

122
Q

Tapeworms are _____-______ and can penetrate deep tissues to form infective cystic larvae.

A

Non-fecal

123
Q

What are the definitive and intermediate hosts for tapeworms?

A

Definitive: Humans
Intermediate: Animals

124
Q

Deep tissue infections from tapeworms can cause what forms of severe disease?

A

Cysticercosis (from infected pork)

Echinococcosis (carnivore feces)

125
Q

Cysts calcify, but tissue and blood helminths can _______ later in life because ______can be viable for 30 years.

A

re-emerge

worms

126
Q

With what food source is trichonellosis most commonly associated?

A

Pork, deer or bear meat.

127
Q

_______ are skin acquired helminths, also known as blood flukes.

A

Schistosomes

128
Q

Schistosomiasis symptoms depend on ________ and type of ________ released.

A

Location of adult worms,

eggs

129
Q

Snails are the ______ in schistosomes.

A

Vector (or intermediate host)

130
Q

In which parasitic infection to the male and female move in pairs to the intestines or bladder where they sexually reproduce and release eggs?

A

Schistomiasis

131
Q

Schistosoma ____________of people in infected water.

A

burrow through the skin

132
Q

Humans lack effective immune responses to worms that can reside for decades due to camouflage with host proteins (serum albumin and HLA antigens) for which skin acquired helminth?

A

Schistosomiasis

133
Q

Filariasis is transmitted by arthropods and adult filarial worms live in _______of humans or lymphatics.

A

Subcutaneous

134
Q

What are the two forms of filariasis?

A

Onchocerciasis (River Blindness): via black flies
-through subcutatneous tissue
Lymphatic Filariasis (elephantiasis): via mosquitoes
-through lymphatics

135
Q

Name the five intracellular protozoa:

A
  1. Malaria
  2. Babesia
  3. Toxoplasma
  4. Trypanosomes
  5. Leishmania
136
Q

Name the five extracellular protozoa:

A
  1. Cytosporidia
  2. Giarda
  3. Entamooba
  4. Trichomonas
  5. Cyclosporin
137
Q

Name the two round helminths:

A

Pinworm

Hookworm

138
Q

Name the two flat helminths:

A

Flukes

Tapeworm

139
Q

Name the two flukes:

A

Schistosomes

Pork tapeworm

140
Q

What is a reservoir and on what factors does it depend?

A

The entity that holds the parasite (long-term host)

Population and Environment

141
Q

What is a vector?

A

The organism involved directly in transmission of the parasite from one to another

142
Q

What are the three types of hosts?

A

Intermediate
Dead-End
Definitive

Sp 15-Micro Final (12 decks)

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