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Blue Book > Paper 5 > Flashcards

Paper 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Common LogMar to Snellen conversions

A

1.00- 6/60
0.60- 6/24
0.50- 6/19
0.40- 6/15
0.30- 6/12
0.20- 6/9.5
0.10- 6/7.5
0.0- 6/6
-0.10- 6/4.8
-0.30- 6/3

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2
Q

Which stereo tests need polarising spectacles

A

Titmus
Wirt Fly test

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3
Q

Which stereo tests needs red-green glasses

A

TNO test

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4
Q

Which focal length is vergence power dependent upon

A

2nd focal length

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5
Q

Properties of Purkinje images 1,2,3

A

Virtual
erect

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6
Q

Property of Purkinje image 4

A

real
inverted

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7
Q

What is an example of refractive or index myopia

A

In nuclear sclerosis, the refractive power of the lens increases as the nucleus becomes more dense

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8
Q

In presbyopia how much available accommodation must be kept in reserve

A

1/3rd

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9
Q

What are some beneficial uses of contact lenses

A

reduce the aniseikonia associated with high degrees of astigmatism and anisometropia
Contact lenses can also eliminate or reduce the aberrations associated with spectacles for high refractive errors

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10
Q

What are the properties of the image produced by an indirect ophthalmoscope

A

real,
horizontally and vertically inverted.

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11
Q

In a Placido disk, how do the rings appear if the radius of corneal curvature is short

A

The shorter the radius of curvature of the anterior corneal surface, the closer together the rings of the Placido disc appear because the reflected image is smaller

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12
Q

What is diffuse illumination

A

involves throwing the slit beam slightly out of focus across the structure to be inspected.

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13
Q

What is specular reflection

A

arise from light reflected by structures of different refractive indices; the greater the differences in refractive indices, the more pronounced the effect.

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14
Q

Where is the widest part of the SOF

A

At its medial end

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15
Q

What hypothetical line is the visual axis connecting

A

a hypothetical line connecting the fovea centralis and the nodal point.

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16
Q

What hypothetical line is the optical axis connecting

A

connects the posterior pole and anterior pole

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17
Q

What percentage of the eye is formed by the sclera vs cornea

A

5/6 sclera
1/6 cornea

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18
Q

Where are the RPE cells flattened

A

In the ora serratta

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19
Q

What is the appearance of the RPE cells at the posterior pole

A

tall and narrow in the posterior pole

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20
Q

What is dextroversion

A

both eyes turning to the right

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21
Q

What is laevoversion

A

both eyes turning to the left

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22
Q

What is supraversion

A

upward gaze,

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23
Q

What is infraversion

A

downward gaze

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24
Q

What is dextrocycloversion

A

rightward rotation of the eyes

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25
Q

What is laevocycloversion

A

leftward rotation of the eyes.

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26
Q

Which cranial nerve has the longest intracranial course

A

abducens nerve

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27
Q

Which cranial nerve is the only one to emerge from the posterior surface of the brain

A

trochlear nerve

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28
Q

What are the dimensions (length and width) of the optic chiasm

A

12mm wide
8mm long

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29
Q

In an average eye how much IOP is generated and how

A

average intraocular pressure of approximately 15 mmHg is generated by the flow of aqueous humour against resistance.

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30
Q

Which antioxidant reduction in the lens can predispose to cataract formation

A

Glutathione

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31
Q

When does the secondary vitreous appear in development

A

at the end of the sixth week

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32
Q

What is the importance of Docosahexaenoic

A

essential for renewal of the photoreceptor outer segments

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33
Q

What accommodative mechanism of the eye did Hemholtz propose

A

increased anterior surface curvature and anterior movement of the anterior lens surface, but he did not describe posterior movement of the posterior lens surface, which has since been demonstrated

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34
Q

What wavelengths of light are short wavelength cones sensitive to

A

415nm

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35
Q

What wavelengths of light are medium wavelength cones sensitive to

A

530nm

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36
Q

What wavelengths of light are long wavelength cones sensitive to

A

560nm

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37
Q

What is sarcoplasm

A

the intracellular fluid that fills the spaces between myofibrils

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38
Q

When an action potential reaches the neuromuscular junction, which voltage gated channels are opened

A

Calcium NOT sodium

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39
Q

Where do the pancreatic acini secrete their digestive juices into

A

The duodenum

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40
Q

What do the pancreatic delta cells secrete

A

somatostatin

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41
Q

What do the pancreatic Epsilon cells secrete

A

Ghrelin

42
Q

What do the pancreatic PP cells secrete

A

pancreatic polypeptide

43
Q

What does Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency cause

A

gastrointestinal tract disturbances,
weakens the heart,
causes peripheral vasodilation

44
Q

What does Vitamin B12 deficiency cause

A

pernicious anaemia
demyelination of the large nerve fibres of the spinal cord

45
Q

How much of the overall stromal collagen percentage does type 1 collagen contribute

A

55%

46
Q

How is stromal type 1 collagen arranged

A

orthogonal (i.e. at right angles) lamellar fashion

47
Q

What is apoptosis

A

active process involving cleavage of proteins by caspase enzymes

48
Q

What are anterior synechiae

A

adhesions that form between the peripheral iris and trabecular meshwork

49
Q

What is the most common type of secondary angle glaucoma

A

Pseudoexfoliation syndrome

50
Q

Does lattice corneal dystrophy recur in grafts

A

YES

51
Q

Prognosis of juvenile forms of optic nerve gliomas

A

Good

52
Q

How do dermoid cysts form

A

Resulting from the incarceration of ectoderm between the frontal and maxillary processes.
They contain pilosebaceous follicles and hair

53
Q

Where do Sudiferous cysts originate from

A

(hidrocystomas) originate from the glands of Moll.
They are lined by a double layer of epithelium.

54
Q

How do Epidermoid cysts occur

A

due to epithelial inclusion following surgery or trauma, or following
obstruction of the duct of a pilosebaceous follicle; they are filled with keratin

55
Q

When does Bacillus Ceres cause endophthalmitis

A

It does not represent normal ocular flora. It can cause endophthalmitis, typically associated with traumatic injury

56
Q

In what type of individuals does Mucormycosis occur

A

in immunocompromised individuals or those with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus

57
Q

Characteristics of the adaptive immune system

A

specificity, memory,
specialisation,
tolerance, diversity,
ability to downregulate.

58
Q

What is cytokine pleiotropy

A

describes the ability to exhibit multiple biological actions

59
Q

What is cytokine redundancy

A

describes the exhibition of shared biological actions.

60
Q

Examples of microsomal enzyme inhibitors

A

metronidazole,
chloramphenicol,
isoniazid
warfarin

61
Q

How do topical steroids cause raised IOP

A

because of reduced aqueous outflow due to the accumulation of glycosaminoglycans and water in the trabecular meshwork

62
Q

Side effects of Azathioprine and mycophenolate

A

bone marrow suppression and gastrointestinal upset

63
Q

Side effects of ciclosporin and tacrolimus

A

cause nephrotoxicity, hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, glucose intolerance, gingival hyperplasia, and hirsutism

64
Q

What symptoms does a Horner syndrome with a first order lesion cause

A

Anhidrosis (loss of sweating) with first-order lesions affects the ipsilateral side of the
body

65
Q

What symptoms does a Horner syndrome with a second order lesion cause

A

anhidrosis affects the ipsilateral face

66
Q

What symptoms does a Horner syndrome with a third order lesion cause

A

anhidrosis only affects a small amount of the face adjacent to the ipsilateral brow

67
Q

Why do Apraclonidine and phenylephrine dilate postganglionic Horner’s
syndrome

A

Due to denervation hypersensitivity

68
Q

What does Hydroxyamphetamine 1% do in Horner’s syndrome

A

causes the release of neurotransmitter from postganglionic fibres (third-order neurons), hence if affecting preganglionic fibres there is normal pupil dilation, whereas if affecting postganglionic fibres there is no dilation as no noradrenaline to release

69
Q

How does cocaine work in Horner syndrome

A

prevents the reuptake of noradrenaline, causing pupil dilation

70
Q

In mRNA which bases are replaced

A

uracil (U) replaces thymine (T).

71
Q

What is the p site on the ribosome

A

peptidyl-tRNA-binding site (P site) holds the tRNA and polypeptide chain

72
Q

What is the a site on the ribosome

A

The aminoacyl-tRNA-binding site (A site) holds the incoming tRNA molecule

73
Q

What is variable expressivity

A

Autosomal dominant and X linked recessive inheritance is associated with variable expressivity.

refers to the range of signs and symptoms that can occur in different people with the same genetic condition

74
Q

What is an epigenetic trait

A

a stably heritable phenotype caused by changes in a chromosome without alteration in the DNA sequence

75
Q

What is the mutation in Stickler syndrome

A

COL2A1

76
Q

What creates a false positive on the HFA

A

indicate that the patient responds to the sound of the machine even when it does not present a light stimulus, and/or simply presses the response button too often

77
Q

What creates false negatives on the HFA

A

occur when the patient fails to respond to a brighter light stimulus presented at a location where they previously responded to a dimmer light stimulus

78
Q

What creates fixation losses on the HFA

A

typically occur when the patient looks away from the fixation target—these can be detected by periodically presenting the light stimulus in the physiological blind spot

79
Q

What do the Roman numerals mean in the visual field analyzer

A

The Roman numerals (0, I, II, III, IV, and V) represent the target size in mm2
Each successive Roman numeral represents a fourfold increase in area

80
Q

What do the arabic numerals 1-4 represent on the visual field analyzer

A

represent the light intensity in apostilbs (asb), whereby each successive number is 3.15
times brighter (0.5 log unit steps).

81
Q

What do the lowercase letters represent on the visual field analyzer

A

additional minor filters where ‘a’ is the darkest and ‘e’ the brightest— each successive letter represents an increase of 0.1 log unit

82
Q

What percentage is fluorescein bound to albumin

A

70-85%

83
Q

What causes leakage of dye at the optic disc

A

papilloedema, inflammation, and ischaemic optic neuropathy

84
Q

What axial resolution can spectral domain OCT’s achieve

A

resolution of 3-8 micrometres

85
Q

Where does the a wave arise from in the ERG

A

primarily arises from photoreceptors hyperpolarising to light

86
Q

Where does the B wave arise from in the ERG

A

primarily arises from depolarising bipolar cells.

87
Q

What cells create oscillatory potentials on the ERG

A

arise from amacrine cells

88
Q

In the EOG what is the normal LP:DT ratio

A

typically 1.7–4.3

89
Q

What is the normal light peak time range in the EOG

A

7-12 minutes

90
Q

What does the pattern ERG provide

A

an objective assessment of retinal macular function and distinguishes maculopathy from retinal ganglion cell/optic nerve disease.

91
Q

In pERG, which photoreceptor cells does p50 originate from

A

cone driven

92
Q

in pERG which cells does N95 originate from

A

macula ganglion cells

93
Q

Normal N95/P50 ratio of pERG

A

typically greater than 1:1

94
Q

Grading of order of SIGN classification

A

Systematic review and meta-analysis, or randomised controlled trials.
Case–control or cohort studies.
Non-analytical studies (case reports/series).
Expert opinion.

95
Q

Another name for forest plot

A

blobbogram

96
Q

What is preclinical trial phase

A

Drug testing in non-human subjects (in vivo and/or in vitro) to explore efficacy, toxicity, and pharmacokinetics with no dose restriction

97
Q

What is phase 0 of a trial

A

Pharmacokinetics in ~10 humans using small, subtherapeutic doses

98
Q

What is phase 1 of a trial

A

Dose-ranging in ~20–100 healthy human volunteers for safety

99
Q

What is phase 2 of a trial

A

Drug testing at therapeutic dose in ~100–300 human patients with specific disease, to assess efficacy and side effects

100
Q

What is phase 3 of a trial

A

Drug testing at therapeutic dose in ~300–3000 human patients with specific disease, to assess efficacy, effectiveness, and safety

101
Q

What is phase 4 of a trial

A

Post-marketing surveillance in public to monitor long-term effects (at therapeutic dose)

Blue Book (5 decks)

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