Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Blue Book > Paper 3 > Flashcards

Paper 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of the wavelength

A

the distance between two symmetrical parts of the wave motion, i.e. the distance over which the wave’s shape repeats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

At what distance is the wirt fly test performed at

A

40cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What range of Stereoacuity does the wirt fly test

A

from 3000 to 40 seconds of arc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When writing out toric lens prescriptions what is in the numerator and what is in the denominator

A

numerator: spherical power
denominator: cylindrical power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of Glass does the geneva lens calibrate for

A

Crown glass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is green light used during focimetry

A

To eliminate chromatic aberration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the effective power of the crystalline lens in situ

A

+15D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the spectacle magnification

A

ratio between corrected image size and uncorrected image size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the relative spectacle magnification

A

the ratio between corrected ametropic image size and emmetropic image size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the tear lens

A

an optical lens comprising the tear film between the anterior surface of the cornea and posterior surface of the contact lens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In which direction of magnification do bar shaped convex cylindrical lenses produce when used as reading aids

A

Vertical magnification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In direct ophthalmoscopy is the field of view larger in myopic or hypermetropic eye

A

Hypermetropic eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does it mean when the area of contact of the GAT is 3.06mm

A

the surface tension and corneal rigidity cancel each other out and the force of application of the tonometer is proportional to the intraocular pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What range of wavelengths can enter the eye

A

400 to 1400nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does corneal arcus result from

A

phospholipid and cholesterol deposits in the peripheral corneal stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How long is each eyelid margin

A

30mm long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the Lockwood ligament made up of

A

a blending of the sheath of the inferior oblique and inferior rectus muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of immune cells are present in the peripheral corneal epithelium

A

Langerhans cells (immunocompetent dendritic cells) are present in the peripheral corneal epithelium but typically absent in the central epithelium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which bone does foramen rotundum, ovale and spinosum perforate

A

Sphenoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which bone does foramen lacerum perforate

A

the apex of the petrous temporal bone,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Does the anterior or posterior surface of the ciliary body produce aqueous humour

A

anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How wide is the ciliary body temporally

A

6.5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How wide is the ciliary body nasally

A

5.5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which layer of the retina divides the retina into the inner and outer
halves

A

Outer plexiform layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Is the anterior or posterior surface of the lens more convex
Posterior surface
26
Where is the lens capsule thickest anatomically
thickest on its anterior and posterior surfaces near the equator (approximately 20 micrometres)
27
Where is the lens capsule thinnest anatomically
thinnest at the posterior pole (approximately 3 micrometres)
28
Anatomically where does the IO muscle originate from
originates from the orbital floor posterior to the orbital margin and lateral to the nasolacrimal canal
29
What week is defined as the end of the embryonic period
End of week 8
30
Which cells make the glycocalyx
Stratified squamous cells of the corneal and conjunctival epithelium
31
In which age group does WTR astigmatism occur
Children
32
In which age group does ATR astigmatism occur
occurs with ageing and is more common among the elderly.
33
What percentage volume of the eye comprises vitreous humour
80%
34
In the fovea how many photoreceptor cells does each RPE interact with
23
35
At what age does vernier acuity reach its highest level of function
14
36
How long does rhodopsin regeneration take following a period of dark adaptation
30 mins
37
What shape are RBC
biconcave
38
How much is inspiratory reserve volume in the average adult male
3000mls
39
Do prostaglandins and substance P excite pain receptors
NO they merely enhance their sensitivity
40
Which area of the nephron becomes permeable to water in the presence of ADH
Collecting duct
41
What percentage of the tear film does the aqueous layer contribute
60%
42
Are choroidal blood vessels fenestrated
Yes
43
What are examples of chronic inflammatory cells
lymphocytes, plasma cells, and histiocytes
44
Which types of BCC are associated with a low risk of recurrence
The nodular and superficial growth patterns
45
Which types of BCC are associated with a high risk of recurrence
infiltrative (which encompasses micronodular, sclerosing, and infiltrating growth patterns) and basosquamous growth patterns are associated with a high risk of recurrence.
46
What are the three steps of PCR in order
Denaturation Annealing Extension
47
How many cycles are carried out during one cycle of PCR
20-40
48
Does AP thickening of the lens displace the pupillary or peripheral zone of the iris
Pupillary
49
ARN vs PORN in immunocompetent individuals
ARN
50
Examples of favourable features of Choroidal melanoma
younger patients smaller tumours, choroid location, tumours composed only of spindle cells, and aberrations/numerical gain of chromosome 6p.
51
Which adenoviral serotypes cause PKC
1, 2, 3, 5, 7, and 14
52
Which adenoviral serotypes cause EKC
3, 7, 8, and 19.
53
Does duration and degree of exposure to drug affect severity of Steven Johnson syndrome
YES
54
What effect does a partial agonist have
a ligand with both agonist and antagonist properties, thus it has a lower maximal effect than a pure agonist.
55
By what percentage aqueous reduction do beta blockers achieve
50%
56
Where does corticosteroids work and what do they inhibit
act on cytosolic receptors and block the transcription of cytokine genes
57
What is the mechanism of action of Ciclosporin
Ciclosporin inhibits calcineurin and nuclear factor of activated T cells (NFAT) thereby inhibiting interleukin-2 production
58
What is the mechanism of action of Azathioprine
inhibits purine synthesis.
59
QISS AND QIQ
Q: alpha 1 I: Alpha 2 S: Beta 1 S: Beta 2 Q: M1 I: M2 Q: M3
60
What do Beta 3 receptors do
found in adipose tissue—they regulate lipolysis and thermogenesis.
61
What is Ciproxifan
a histamine receptor antagonist that acts on H3 receptors.
62
Which Histamine receptor Cetirizine, loratadine, and diphenhydramine act on
H1
63
Which histamine receptor does Ranitidine and cimetidine act on
H2
64
Which histamine receptor does Thioperamide act on
H4
65
How much DNA does the human haploid genome comprise
3x10 power 9 base pairs of double stranded DNA
66
Which amino acids are only encoded by one codon
Methionine (AUG) Tryptophan (TGG)
67
What is the degree of chromosome inversion in Inversions
180 degrees
68
Which HLA is weakly associated with acute anterior uveitis
HLA B25
69
Which mutation is associated with congenital stationary night blindness.
GPR 179
70
Which mutation is associated with Axenfeld Rieger syndrome
PITX2
71
Which stereo tests use glasses
TNO (polaroid) Titmus (red-green glasses)
72
Which tests do not need glasses
Lang (intrinsic cylindrical lenses) Frisby (intrinsic plate thickness)
73
What percentage of people with tilted disc syndrome may develop superior bitemporal visual field defects
20%
74
Between anterior and posterior segment OCT, which one uses more longer wavelength light
anterior segment OCT
75
What are the phases of FFA
choroidal (pre-arterial), arterial, capillary, venous, and late
76
In ICG what causes leakage of dye
choroidal neovascularisation
77
In ICG what causes abnormal blood vessels
Choroidal haemangioma
78
In ICG what causes window defect
RPE defect
79
Differences between ocular USG and orbital USG
higher-frequency ultrasonic transducer (8–10 MHz) is used in ocular ultrasonography (US), Lower frequency permits enhanced depth penetration in orbital US, which can be used to assess orbital tumours and orbital disease such as thyroid eye disease
80
What is ocular A-scan used for
useful for measuring axial length, anterior chamber depth, and intraocular mass thickness.
81
What is Ocular USG (B scan) used for
detecting posterior segment pathology where media opacity (e.g. dense cataract, vitreous haemorrhage) obstructs fundal view, characterising intraocular masses, localising intraocular foreign bodies, and diagnosing calcified optic disc drusen.
82
Is higher frequency better for depth or not good
High frequency is shorter wavelength so NOT GOOD for depth
83
What is UBM
higher-frequency transducer (35–50 MHz) than standard ocular ultrasonography (8–10 MHz). UBM achieves higher-resolution imaging, typically achieving axial resolution of 30 micrometres and transverse resolution of 60 micrometres. However, depth penetration is less, making UBM suitable for anterior segment imaging.
84
Is retinal toxicity in the use of chloroquine/HCQ dose dependent
Yes
85
What is an early sign of chloroquine/HCQ toxicity in the multifocal ERG
Due to functional loss of the parafovea. Depression of the response amplitude in Ring 2 with relative preservation of the central response in Ring 1.
86
What degree plane does the eye move over in EOG
intermittently follows targets moving left to right over a 30° horizontal plane

Blue Book (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions