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Blue Book > Paper 3 > Flashcards

Paper 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of the wavelength

A

the distance between two symmetrical parts of the wave motion, i.e. the distance over which the wave’s shape repeats.

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2
Q

At what distance is the wirt fly test performed at

A

40cm

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3
Q

What range of Stereoacuity does the wirt fly test

A

from 3000 to 40 seconds of arc

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4
Q

When writing out toric lens prescriptions what is in the numerator and what is in the denominator

A

numerator: spherical power
denominator: cylindrical power

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5
Q

What type of Glass does the geneva lens calibrate for

A

Crown glass

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6
Q

Why is green light used during focimetry

A

To eliminate chromatic aberration

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7
Q

What is the effective power of the crystalline lens in situ

A

+15D

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8
Q

What is the spectacle magnification

A

ratio between corrected image size and uncorrected image size.

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9
Q

What is the relative spectacle magnification

A

the ratio between corrected ametropic image size and emmetropic image size.

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10
Q

What is the tear lens

A

an optical lens comprising the tear film between the anterior surface of the cornea and posterior surface of the contact lens.

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11
Q

In which direction of magnification do bar shaped convex cylindrical lenses produce when used as reading aids

A

Vertical magnification

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12
Q

In direct ophthalmoscopy is the field of view larger in myopic or hypermetropic eye

A

Hypermetropic eye

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13
Q

What does it mean when the area of contact of the GAT is 3.06mm

A

the surface tension and corneal rigidity cancel each other out and the force of application of the tonometer is proportional to the intraocular pressure

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14
Q

What range of wavelengths can enter the eye

A

400 to 1400nm

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15
Q

What does corneal arcus result from

A

phospholipid and cholesterol deposits in the peripheral corneal stroma

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16
Q

How long is each eyelid margin

A

30mm long

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17
Q

What is the Lockwood ligament made up of

A

a blending of the sheath of the inferior oblique and inferior rectus muscles.

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18
Q

What type of immune cells are present in the peripheral corneal epithelium

A

Langerhans cells (immunocompetent dendritic cells) are present in the peripheral corneal epithelium but typically absent in the central epithelium.

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19
Q

Which bone does foramen rotundum, ovale and spinosum perforate

A

Sphenoid bone

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20
Q

Which bone does foramen lacerum perforate

A

the apex of the petrous temporal bone,

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21
Q

Does the anterior or posterior surface of the ciliary body produce aqueous humour

A

anterior

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22
Q

How wide is the ciliary body temporally

A

6.5mm

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23
Q

How wide is the ciliary body nasally

A

5.5mm

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24
Q

Which layer of the retina divides the retina into the inner and outer
halves

A

Outer plexiform layer

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25
Q

Is the anterior or posterior surface of the lens more convex

A

Posterior surface

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26
Q

Where is the lens capsule thickest anatomically

A

thickest on its anterior and posterior surfaces near the equator (approximately 20 micrometres)

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27
Q

Where is the lens capsule thinnest anatomically

A

thinnest at the posterior pole (approximately 3 micrometres)

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28
Q

Anatomically where does the IO muscle originate from

A

originates from the orbital floor posterior to the orbital margin and lateral to the nasolacrimal canal

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29
Q

What week is defined as the end of the embryonic period

A

End of week 8

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30
Q

Which cells make the glycocalyx

A

Stratified squamous cells of the corneal and conjunctival epithelium

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31
Q

In which age group does WTR astigmatism occur

A

Children

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32
Q

In which age group does ATR astigmatism occur

A

occurs with ageing and is more common among the elderly.

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33
Q

What percentage volume of the eye comprises vitreous humour

A

80%

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34
Q

In the fovea how many photoreceptor cells does each RPE interact with

A

23

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35
Q

At what age does vernier acuity reach its highest level of function

A

14

36
Q

How long does rhodopsin regeneration take following a period of dark adaptation

A

30 mins

37
Q

What shape are RBC

A

biconcave

38
Q

How much is inspiratory reserve volume in the average adult male

A

3000mls

39
Q

Do prostaglandins and substance P excite pain receptors

A

NO
they merely enhance their sensitivity

40
Q

Which area of the nephron becomes permeable to water in the presence of ADH

A

Collecting duct

41
Q

What percentage of the tear film does the aqueous layer contribute

A

60%

42
Q

Are choroidal blood vessels fenestrated

A

Yes

43
Q

What are examples of chronic inflammatory cells

A

lymphocytes, plasma cells, and histiocytes

44
Q

Which types of BCC are associated with a low risk of recurrence

A

The nodular and superficial growth patterns

45
Q

Which types of BCC are associated with a high risk of recurrence

A

infiltrative (which encompasses micronodular, sclerosing, and infiltrating growth patterns) and basosquamous growth patterns are associated with a high risk of
recurrence.

46
Q

What are the three steps of PCR in order

A

Denaturation
Annealing
Extension

47
Q

How many cycles are carried out during one cycle of PCR

A

20-40

48
Q

Does AP thickening of the lens displace the pupillary or peripheral zone of the iris

A

Pupillary

49
Q

ARN vs PORN in immunocompetent individuals

A

ARN

50
Q

Examples of favourable features of Choroidal melanoma

A

younger patients
smaller tumours,
choroid location,
tumours composed only of spindle cells,
and aberrations/numerical gain of chromosome 6p.

51
Q

Which adenoviral serotypes cause PKC

A

1, 2, 3, 5, 7, and 14

52
Q

Which adenoviral serotypes cause EKC

A

3, 7, 8, and 19.

53
Q

Does duration and degree of exposure to drug affect severity of Steven Johnson syndrome

A

YES

54
Q

What effect does a partial agonist have

A

a ligand with both agonist and antagonist properties, thus it has a lower maximal effect than a pure agonist.

55
Q

By what percentage aqueous reduction do beta blockers achieve

A

50%

56
Q

Where does corticosteroids work and what do they inhibit

A

act on cytosolic receptors and block the transcription of cytokine genes

57
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Ciclosporin

A

Ciclosporin inhibits calcineurin and nuclear factor of activated T cells (NFAT) thereby inhibiting interleukin-2 production

58
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Azathioprine

A

inhibits purine synthesis.

59
Q

QISS AND QIQ

A

Q: alpha 1
I: Alpha 2
S: Beta 1
S: Beta 2

Q: M1
I: M2
Q: M3

60
Q

What do Beta 3 receptors do

A

found in adipose tissue—they regulate lipolysis and thermogenesis.

61
Q

What is Ciproxifan

A

a histamine receptor antagonist that acts on H3 receptors.

62
Q

Which Histamine receptor Cetirizine, loratadine, and diphenhydramine act on

A

H1

63
Q

Which histamine receptor does Ranitidine and cimetidine act on

A

H2

64
Q

Which histamine receptor does Thioperamide act on

A

H4

65
Q

How much DNA does the human haploid genome comprise

A

3x10 power 9 base pairs of double stranded DNA

66
Q

Which amino acids are only encoded by one codon

A

Methionine (AUG)
Tryptophan (TGG)

67
Q

What is the degree of chromosome inversion in Inversions

A

180 degrees

68
Q

Which HLA is weakly associated with acute anterior uveitis

A

HLA B25

69
Q

Which mutation is associated with congenital stationary night blindness.

A

GPR 179

70
Q

Which mutation is associated with Axenfeld Rieger syndrome

A

PITX2

71
Q

Which stereo tests use glasses

A

TNO (polaroid)
Titmus (red-green glasses)

72
Q

Which tests do not need glasses

A

Lang (intrinsic cylindrical lenses)
Frisby (intrinsic plate thickness)

73
Q

What percentage of people with tilted disc syndrome may develop superior bitemporal visual field defects

A

20%

74
Q

Between anterior and posterior segment OCT, which one uses more longer wavelength light

A

anterior segment OCT

75
Q

What are the phases of FFA

A

choroidal (pre-arterial),
arterial,
capillary,
venous, and
late

76
Q

In ICG what causes leakage of dye

A

choroidal neovascularisation

77
Q

In ICG what causes abnormal blood vessels

A

Choroidal haemangioma

78
Q

In ICG what causes window defect

A

RPE defect

79
Q

Differences between ocular USG and orbital USG

A

higher-frequency ultrasonic transducer (8–10 MHz) is used in
ocular ultrasonography (US),

Lower frequency permits enhanced depth penetration in orbital US, which can be used to assess orbital tumours and orbital disease such as thyroid eye disease

80
Q

What is ocular A-scan used for

A

useful for measuring axial length, anterior chamber depth, and intraocular mass thickness.

81
Q

What is Ocular USG (B scan) used for

A

detecting posterior segment pathology where media opacity (e.g. dense cataract, vitreous haemorrhage) obstructs fundal view, characterising intraocular masses, localising intraocular foreign bodies, and diagnosing calcified optic disc drusen.

82
Q

Is higher frequency better for depth or not good

A

High frequency is shorter wavelength so NOT GOOD for depth

83
Q

What is UBM

A

higher-frequency transducer (35–50 MHz) than standard ocular ultrasonography (8–10 MHz). UBM achieves higher-resolution imaging, typically achieving axial resolution of 30 micrometres and transverse resolution of 60 micrometres. However, depth penetration is less, making UBM suitable for anterior segment imaging.

84
Q

Is retinal toxicity in the use of chloroquine/HCQ dose dependent

A

Yes

85
Q

What is an early sign of chloroquine/HCQ toxicity in the multifocal ERG

A

Due to functional loss of the parafovea.
Depression of the response amplitude in Ring 2 with relative preservation of the central response in Ring 1.

86
Q

What degree plane does the eye move over in EOG

A

intermittently follows targets moving left to right over a 30° horizontal plane

Blue Book (5 decks)

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