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Blue Book > Paper 1 > Flashcards

Paper 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the units of measurement of radiant intensity

A

watts per steradian

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2
Q

What are the units of measurement of luminous intensity

A

candelas, i.e. lumens per steradian

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3
Q

In Gullstrand Schematic eye, how far behind the anterior cornea is P1

A

1.35

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4
Q

In Gullstrand Schematic eye, how far behind the anterior cornea is P2

A

1.60

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5
Q

In Gullstrand Schematic eye, how far behind the anterior cornea is N1

A

7.08

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6
Q

In Gullstrand Schematic eye, how far behind the anterior cornea is N2

A

7.33

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7
Q

In Gullstrand Schematic eye, how far behind the anterior cornea is F1

A

-15.7

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8
Q

In Gullstrand Schematic eye, how far behind the anterior cornea is F2

A

24.4

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9
Q

In the reduced eye, how far behind the anterior cornea is P

A

1.35

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10
Q

In the reduced eye, how far behind the anterior cornea is N

A

7.08

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11
Q

In the reduced eye, how far behind the anterior cornea is F1

A

-15.7

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12
Q

In the reduced eye, how far behind the anterior cornea is F2

A

24.13

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13
Q

What is manifest hypermetropia

A

the strongest convex lens correction accepted for clear distance vision.

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14
Q

How is prismatic jump minimised in bifocal lenses

A

if the optical centres of the two lenses lie at or near to the junction of the distance and near portions.

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15
Q

What are the 3 stages of Retinoscopy

A

Illumination stage
Reflex stage
Projection stage

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16
Q

What prism is used in the Javal Schiotz keratometer to double the image

A

Wollaston Prism

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17
Q

What are the properties of a panfundoscope image

A

a real, inverted image of the fundus.

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18
Q

What colour light is useful for inspecting the vitreous

A

Blue and green light is scattered more than red light, because red
light is of a longer wavelength. As the visibility of the vitreous
depends on the scattering of the incident light, this makes blue and
green (red-free) filters useful for inspecting the vitreous.

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19
Q

What bones make up the roof of the orbit

A

Orbital plate of frontal bone and lesser wing of sphenoid

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20
Q

What bones make up the medial wall of the orbit

A

Frontal process of maxilla, lacrimal bone, orbital plate of ethmoid, and body of sphenoid

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21
Q

What bones make up the floor of the orbit

A

Orbital plate of maxilla, orbital surface of zygomatic, and orbital process of palatine

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22
Q

What bones make up the lateral wall of the orbit

A

Zygomatic bone and greater wing of sphenoid

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23
Q

Which part of the eye is the lamina cribrosa part of

A

the sclera

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24
Q

How is the peripheral cornea supplied by oxygen

A

by diffusion from the anterior ciliary blood vessels

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25
Q

Which bone is the pituitary gland found in

A

pituitary fossa is an indentation in the roof of the body of sphenoid

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26
Q

What are the anterior and posterior boundaries of the pituitary fossa

A

anteriorly bound by the tuberculum sellae
posteriorly bound by the dorsum sellae.

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27
Q

Length of the intraocular segment of the optic nerve

A

1mm

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28
Q

Length of the intraorbital segment of the optic nerve

A

25mm

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29
Q

Length of the intracannalicular segment of the optic nerve

A

5mm

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30
Q

Length of the intracranial segment of the optic nerve

A

10mm

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31
Q

What kind of eye movements are type A muscle fibres useful for

A

Fast saccadic movements

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32
Q

What kind of eye movements are type B muscle fibres useful for

A

for smooth pursuit

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33
Q

Which day is the lens placode identified in embryological development

A

day 27

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34
Q

What is the thickness of the precorneal tear film

A

3.4 micrometres

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35
Q

What is the resting membrane potential of the dark adapted rod cell

A

-40mV

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36
Q

What is Bloch Law

A

assumes a monotonic increase in perceived contrast with increased duration, as the law states that the intensity of the threshold stimulus is inversely proportional to its duration.

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37
Q

What are the 3 stages of an action potential

A

resting stage,
depolarisation stage,
repolarisation stage

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38
Q

What are the hormones secreted by the Anterior pituitary gland

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH),
Luteinising hormone (LH),
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH),
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH),
Prolactin,
Endorphins,
Growth hormone (GH)

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39
Q

What does the posterior pituitary secrete

A

ADH
Oxytocin

40
Q

Euchromatin packing vs Heterochromatin packing

A

Euchromatin is less packed than heterochromatin.

41
Q

GAG found in the vitreous

A

Hyaluronan

42
Q

How is the movement of leucocytes controlled

A

By chemotaxis

43
Q

Where is scar tissue in the sclera derived from

A

episcleral fibroblasts

44
Q

Where is scar tissue in the choroid derived from

A

scleral fibroblasts.

45
Q

What happens to the goblet cells in Sjogren syndrome

A

a loss of goblet cells in the conjunctival epithelium and squamous metaplasia of the surface epithelium.

46
Q

In Vitelliform dystrophy, where does lipofuscin accumulate

A

in the retinal pigment epithelium and atrophy of the photoreceptor layer.

47
Q

Primary tumours with choroidal metastases

A

breast,
prostate,
lung,
gastrointestinal tract.

48
Q

What percentage of total white cells do neutrophils make up

A

25% representing the blood’s most abundant leucocytes.

49
Q

What are single celled Eukaryotes

A

Protozoa eg Acanthamoeba

50
Q

Which immune cells does the mononuclear phagocyte system include

A

Monocytes
macrophages
dendritic cells

51
Q

Which immune cells does the granulocyte series of cells include

A

mast cells,
basophils,
eosinophils.

52
Q

What is Fick’s law of diffusion

A

drugs cross a cell membrane at a rate directly proportional to the concentration gradient across the membrane and the diffusion coefficient, and inversely proportional to the membrane thickness.

53
Q

What is Sherrington’s law of reciprocal innervation

A

a muscle will relax when its opposite muscle contracts.

54
Q

What does Frank Starling law represent

A

postulates that the force developed in a muscle fibre is dependent on how much the fibre is stretched.

55
Q

What is Poiseuille’s law

A

the flow of fluid through a tube (e.g. blood vessel) is related to the viscosity of the fluid (blood), the pressure gradient across the tube (vessel), and the length and diameter of the tube (vessel).

56
Q

What is the approximate natural tear volume

A

7-8 microlitres

57
Q

How does Phenylephrine work

A

non-selective an α-agonist.

58
Q

How does Apraclonidine work

A

α2 partial agonist.

59
Q

How does Brimonidine work

A

selective α2-agonist

60
Q

How does cocaine work

A

inhibits the uptake of noradrenaline at nerve endings.

61
Q

What is the structure of local anaesthetic

A

comprise an aromatic residue linked to an amide or basic side chain; the aromatic residue is hydrophobic and the amide group hydrophilic.

62
Q

Why is mitochondrial inheritance exclusively maternal

A

The acrosome of the sperm is lost during fertilisation,

63
Q

Which mutation is associated with Juvenile X-linked retinoschisis

A

RS1

64
Q

What kind of eye movements is the Maddox rod used to assess

A

Phorias

65
Q

Conditions which cause a central scotoma

A

macular lesions,
optic neuritis,
optic atrophy,
occipital cortex lesions

66
Q

In keratometry what diameter of the cornea is used in measurements

A

central 3mm

67
Q

Relative contraindications to FFA

A

Fluorescein allergy,
renal impairment,
pregnancy

68
Q

Contraindications to ICG

A

Allergy to iodine or shellfish
Pregnancy

69
Q

What percentage is ICG bound to proteins

A

98%

70
Q

Axial and transverse resolution of Ultrasound

A

Axial-150 microns
Transverse- 450 microns

71
Q

How does a pattern reversal VEP work

A

using a reversing black-and-white chequerboard (prVEP)

72
Q

How does a pattern offset/onset VEP work

A

where a chequerboard is abruptly exchanged with a grey background;

73
Q

What does a pattern VEP reflect?

A

reflects the central macular visual field and macular pathway function

74
Q

Which type of VEP has the most consistent timing and waveform amongst individuals

A

prVEP (pattern VEP)

75
Q

Which type of VEP varies the most amongst individuals

A

Flash VEP but it is useful for inter-ocular comparison and for patients with limited cooperation such as young infants

76
Q

What are the features of pattern VEP

A

a negative deflection at 75 milliseconds (N75)
followed by a positive deflection at 100 milliseconds (P100),
followed by another negative deflection at 135 milliseconds (N135).

77
Q

What is transoccipital crossed asymmetry in VEP testing

A

In albinism, trans-occipital crossed asymmetry can occur where the VEP is largest on one hemisphere for the right eye and the other hemisphere for the left eye.

78
Q

What is the definition of the p value

A

the probability of obtaining the observed data or data that were more extreme due to chance if the null hypothesis (H0) were true.

79
Q

What is the power of a study

A

Power = 1 − β where β is the probability of a type II error.
A power of 80% or greater is generally considered acceptable in study design, although
many investigators would aim for higher than this.

80
Q

What does CONSORT stand for

A

Consolidated Standards of Reporting Randomised Trials. (RCT)

81
Q

What does STROBE stand for

A

Strengthening the Reporting of Observational Studies in Epidemiology.

82
Q

What does STARD stand for

A

Standards for Reporting of Diagnostic accuracy studies

83
Q

What does PRISMA stand for

A

Preferred Reporting Items for Systematic Reviews and Meta-Analyses

84
Q

Quantitative vs Categorical data

A

Quantitative data are obtained by measurement and can be subclassified as
continuous or discrete

Data that are not obtained by measurement are termed categorical.

85
Q

Binary vs Ordinal vs Nominal data

A

If only two possible categories exist (e.g. dead or alive) this is subclassified as binary (or dichotomous).
If the data can be placed in order (e.g. A-level grades) they are termed ordinal eg Likert scale
If the data cannot be placed in order (e.g. eye colour), they are termed nominal

86
Q

Continuous outcome–> Parametric–> Paired data

A

Paired t test

87
Q

Continuous outcome–> Parametric–> Unpaired data

A

Unpaired t test

88
Q

Continuous outcome–> Parametric–> More than 2 groups

A

ANOVA

89
Q

Continuous outcome–> Non Parametric–> Paired data

A

Wilcoxon signed rank test

90
Q

Continuous outcome–> Non Parametric–> Unpaired data

A

Mann Whitney U test

91
Q

Continuous outcome–> Non Parametric–> More than 2 groups data skewed

A

Kruskal Wallis test

92
Q

Categorical outcome–> Non parametric–> Paired data

A

McNemar test

93
Q

Categorical outcome–> Non parametric–> Unpaired data

A

Chi Squared test/Fisher’s exact test

94
Q

Correlation–>Parametric–> Linear correlation

A

Pearson correlation coefficient

95
Q

Correlation–> Non- Parametric–> Rank correlation

A

Spearman Rank correlation coefficient

Blue Book (5 decks)

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