Paper 2

Question 1

What does a polarising light do to light rays

Answer 1

only transmit light rays which are vibrating in one plane

Question 2

What does a polarising medium do

Answer 2

reduces radiant intensity but does not affect spectral composition

Question 3

What do dichroic substances do

Answer 3

block transmission of light waves not aligned with its structure by absorption.

Question 4

If a plane mirror is rotated while light is incident upon the centre of rotation, how much is the reflected ray deviated by

Answer 4

2i

Question 5

What type of lenses are found in a Maddox rod

Answer 5

High powered convex cylindrical lenses mounted side by side in a trial lens

Question 6

What kind of movement does a concave lens create with respect to a cross

Answer 6

with movement

Question 7

What kind of movement does a convex lens create with respect to a cross

Answer 7

against movement

Question 8

What did recent systematic review by Wang and
colleagues (2018) with regards to IOL power in short eyes

Answer 8

Haigis formula

Question 9

What are features of PALs with hard designs

Answer 9

wider distance and near portions and a
narrower power progression corridor, near which aberrations can occur

Question 10

What are features of PALs with soft designs

Answer 10

a wider power progression corridor and smaller distance and nearer portions—these tend to be better tolerated

Question 11

Are individuals requiring a wider near portion likely to be satisfied by PAL’s

Answer 11

NO

Question 12

What orientation of prisms is the Wollaston prism made up of

Answer 12

The two constituent prisms are positioned such that their optical axes are perpendicular.

Question 13

What luminous intensity is produced by a laser light producing 5 lumens of light

Answer 13

a beam of luminous intensity equal to 500,000,000 candela.

Question 14

Which muscle is the frowning muscle

Answer 14

Corrugator supercilli

Question 15

What is the length of the lacrimal cannalicula

Answer 15

10mm long

Question 16

What is the length of the nasolacrimal duct

Answer 16

18mm long

Question 17

Where is the nasolacrimal duct narrower

Answer 17

narrower in the middle as compared to either end.

Question 18

Which bone does the foramen spinosum perforate

Answer 18

Greater wing of the sphenoid posterolateral to the foramen ovale

Question 19

At which points is the choroid thickest

Answer 19

thickest at the posterior pole and thinnest proximal to
the optic disc

Question 20

How thick is the retina at the ora serrata

Answer 20

0.1mm

Question 21

How thick is the retina at the optic disc

Answer 21

0.56mm

Question 22

What layers of the optic cup is the inner and outer retina derived from

Answer 22

Inner layer is derived from the inner layer of the optic
cup.
Outer layer is derived from the outer layer of the optic cup.

Question 23

Diameter of Gangion cells

Answer 23

10 to 30 micrometres

Question 24

Diameter of lens at birth vs adults

Answer 24

6.5 mm at birth
10 mm in adults.

Question 25

Which nerves does the Jugular foramen transmit

Answer 25

glossopharyngeal vagus accessory

Question 26

Which visceral motor nuclei provides the cranial outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system: Edinger Westphal nucleus

Answer 26

Occulomotor nerve

Question 27

Which visceral motor nuclei provides the cranial outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system: Superior salivatory and lacrimal nuclei

Answer 27

Facial nerve

Question 28

Which visceral motor nuclei provides the cranial outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system: inferior salivatory nucleus

Answer 28

Glossopharyngeal nerve

Question 29

Which visceral motor nuclei provides the cranial outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system: dorsal motor nucleus

Answer 29

Vagus nerve

Question 30

When does the lens vesicle separate from the surface ectoderm

Answer 30

Day 36

Question 31

Order of tear film layers, from innermost to outermost,

Answer 31

glycocalyx mucous aqueous lipid

Question 32

What happens to strength, stiffness, and toughness of the corneal stroma with age

Answer 32

Increases due to enzymatic maturation and glycation-induced crosslinking of collagen fibrils

Question 33

Primary structural protein in the lens zonules

Answer 33

Fibrillin

Question 34

Which muscles elevate the ribcage

Answer 34

External intercostals Anterior serrati Scaleni

Question 35

What do Merkel discs do

Answer 35

detect continuous contact of objects against the skin

Question 36

What do Meissner's corpuscles do

Answer 36

present in non-hairy areas of the skin.

Question 37

What do Ruffini nerve endings do

Answer 37

detect heavy prolonged touch and stretch.

Question 38

What do Pacinian corpuscles do

Answer 38

detect tissue vibration

Question 39

Examples of sites of Zonulae Occludens

Answer 39

blood–retinal barrier at the apex of the retinal pigment epithelium cell and at the blood–aqueous barrier of the ciliary body

Question 40

What are the 2 types of desmosomes

Answer 40

Spot desmosomes (single site), also known as macula adherens. Belt desmosomes (ring round the apex of the cell), also known as zonulae adherens.

Question 41

What are the major proteoglycans of the sclera

Answer 41

Proteodermatan sulphate and proteochondroitin sulphate. Others include aggrecan, decorin, biglycan, and proline–arginine–rich and leucinerich repeat (PRELP).

Question 42

In diabetic retinopathy which growth factor synthesis is increased

Answer 42

VEGF and PIGF (angiogenic)

Question 43

In diabetic retinopathy which growth factor synthesis is decreased

Answer 43

Pigment epithelium-derived growth factor (PEDF) is decreased (anti-angiogenic)

Question 44

How long does panophthalmitis take to complete

Answer 44

48 hours

Question 45

What type of infiltrate appears around the long and short ciliary nerves in herpes zoster ophthalmicus.

Answer 45

lymphocytic infiltrate

Question 46

Which genes are implicated in the pathogenesis of POAG

Answer 46

Myocillin- role in the contractility of trabecular meshwork cells. Optineurin

Question 47

Which gene mutation is implicated in Stargadt's disease

Answer 47

ABCA4

Question 48

What happens to the retina in end Stage Stargadt's disease

Answer 48

the gliotic retina fuses with Bruch’s membrane, as the outer retinal layer is lost

Question 49

Most common yeast responsible for corneal infections

Answer 49

Candida Albicans

Question 50

Moulds responsible for corneal infections

Answer 50

Aspergillus, Fusarium, and Penicillium

Question 51

What condition is also known as river blindness

Answer 51

Onchocheriasis Live microfilariae cause minimal tissue damage to the eyes and skin

Question 52

What is the size of monocytes

Answer 52

12-20 micrometres in size. Can feature round, oval, notched, or horseshoe-shaped nuclei.

Question 53

What percentage of people with acute anterior uveitis are HLA-B27 positive

Answer 53

50%

Question 54

What is an accurate way to assess drug efficiency

Answer 54

Estimation of drug clearance from the circulation rather than drug half life

Question 55

What does an ectropion do to the residence time of drug in the fornix

Answer 55

Reduce it

Question 56

What do photosensitizing agents do

Answer 56

absorb visible and ultraviolet radiation, thereby generating free radicals.

Question 57

Examples of photosensitizing agents

Answer 57

Amiodarone

Question 58

Which drugs work on H1 receptors

Answer 58

Cetirizine, loratadine, and diphenhydramine

Question 59

Which drugs work on H2 receptors

Answer 59

Ranitidine and cimetidine

Question 60

Which drug works on H3 receptors

Answer 60

Ciproxifan

Question 61

What are the 5 subdivisions of prophase 1

Answer 61

Leptotene—chromosomes begin to condense. Zygotene—chromosomes pair and form bivalents. Pachytene—main stage of chromosomal thickening. Diplotene—bivalents begin to separate. Diakinesis—bivalents separate and coil tightly.

Question 62

What is aneuploidy

Answer 62

when paired chromosomes fail to disjoin, or is due to delayed movement during anaphase.

Question 63

What can aneuploidy result in

Answer 63

trisomy (extra chromosome) or monosomy (missing chromosome).

Question 64

What is HLADR4 associated with

Answer 64

SO and VKH

Question 65

What is the function of Ubiquitin

Answer 65

role in destroying phosphorylated cyclins and cyclin inhibitors.

Question 66

What is the Maddox wing used for

Answer 66

Near Phorias

Question 67

What is the double Maddox rod used for

Answer 67

Torsional phorias

Question 68

What is the Hirschberg test used for

Answer 68

detect manifest deviation and simply involves asking the patient to fix on a pen-torch at 33 cm, then assessing the corneal reflection.

Question 69

What is the equivalence of 1mm deviation in prism dioptres

Answer 69

15PD

Question 70

What are the stages of ICG angiography

Answer 70

Early phase: 2–60 seconds; prominent filling of choroidal arteries. Early mid-phase: 1–3 minutes; increased prominence of choroidal veins. Late mid-phase: 3–15 minutes; diffuse hypofluorescence (due to diffusion of dye from choriocapillaris). Late phase: 15–30 minutes; dye leaves choroidal and retinal circulations but may remain in neovascular tissue.

Question 71

What conditions cause a normal a wave and reduced scotopic b wave on full field ERG

Answer 71

termed an ‘electronegative’ response X-linked retinoschisis, central retinal artery/vein occlusion (CRAO/CRVO), congenital stationary night blindness (CSNB) (Xlinked and autosomal recessive, complete and incomplete forms), quinine toxicity, melanoma-associated retinopathy, and CLN3 (juvenile Batten) disease.

Question 72

What conditions cause a reduced a and b wave

Answer 72

Total retinal detachment and rod-cone dystrophy compromise the photoreceptors and so can cause reduced a-waves and consequently b-waves.

Question 73

What is an acceptable power of a study

Answer 73

>80%

Question 74

How many people in the world have a near or distance vision impairment

Answer 74

at least 2.2 billion people

Question 75

What is lead time bias

Answer 75

occurs when earlier diagnosis of a disease falsely makes it seem like affected patients are surviving longer.

Question 76

What is recency bias

Answer 76

occurs due to the tendency to favour recent events over older events.

Question 77

What is detection bias

Answer 77

occurs due to systematic differences between groups in how outcomes are determined