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Blue Book > Paper 2 > Flashcards

Paper 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does a polarising light do to light rays

A

only transmit light rays which are vibrating in one plane

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2
Q

What does a polarising medium do

A

reduces radiant intensity but does not affect spectral composition

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3
Q

What do dichroic substances do

A

block transmission of light waves not aligned with its structure by absorption.

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4
Q

If a plane mirror is rotated while light is incident upon the centre of rotation, how much is the reflected ray deviated by

A

2i

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5
Q

What type of lenses are found in a Maddox rod

A

High powered convex cylindrical lenses mounted side by side in a trial lens

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6
Q

What kind of movement does a concave lens create with respect to a cross

A

with movement

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7
Q

What kind of movement does a convex lens create with respect to a cross

A

against movement

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8
Q

What did recent systematic review by Wang and
colleagues (2018) with regards to IOL power in short eyes

A

Haigis formula

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9
Q

What are features of PALs with hard designs

A

wider distance and near portions and a
narrower power progression corridor, near which aberrations can occur

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10
Q

What are features of PALs with soft designs

A

a wider power progression corridor and smaller distance and nearer portions—these tend to be better tolerated

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11
Q

Are individuals requiring a wider near portion likely to be satisfied by PAL’s

A

NO

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12
Q

What orientation of prisms is the Wollaston prism made up of

A

The two constituent prisms are positioned such that their optical axes are perpendicular.

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13
Q

What luminous intensity is produced by a laser light producing 5 lumens of light

A

a beam of luminous intensity equal to 500,000,000 candela.

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14
Q

Which muscle is the frowning muscle

A

Corrugator supercilli

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15
Q

What is the length of the lacrimal cannalicula

A

10mm long

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16
Q

What is the length of the nasolacrimal duct

A

18mm long

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17
Q

Where is the nasolacrimal duct narrower

A

narrower in the middle as compared to either end.

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18
Q

Which bone does the foramen spinosum perforate

A

Greater wing of the sphenoid posterolateral to the foramen ovale

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19
Q

At which points is the choroid thickest

A

thickest at the posterior pole and thinnest proximal to
the optic disc

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20
Q

How thick is the retina at the ora serrata

A

0.1mm

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21
Q

How thick is the retina at the optic disc

A

0.56mm

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22
Q

What layers of the optic cup is the inner and outer retina derived from

A

Inner layer is derived from the inner layer of the optic
cup.
Outer layer is derived from the outer layer of the optic cup.

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23
Q

Diameter of Gangion cells

A

10 to 30 micrometres

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24
Q

Diameter of lens at birth vs adults

A

6.5 mm at birth
10 mm in adults.

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25
Q

Which nerves does the Jugular foramen transmit

A

glossopharyngeal
vagus
accessory

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26
Q

Which visceral motor nuclei provides the cranial outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system: Edinger Westphal nucleus

A

Occulomotor nerve

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27
Q

Which visceral motor nuclei provides the cranial outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system: Superior salivatory and lacrimal nuclei

A

Facial nerve

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28
Q

Which visceral motor nuclei provides the cranial outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system: inferior salivatory nucleus

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

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29
Q

Which visceral motor nuclei provides the cranial outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system: dorsal motor nucleus

A

Vagus nerve

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30
Q

When does the lens vesicle separate from the surface ectoderm

A

Day 36

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31
Q

Order of tear film layers, from innermost to outermost,

A

glycocalyx
mucous
aqueous
lipid

32
Q

What happens to strength, stiffness, and toughness of the corneal stroma with age

A

Increases due to enzymatic maturation and glycation-induced crosslinking of collagen fibrils

33
Q

Primary structural protein in the lens zonules

A

Fibrillin

34
Q

Which muscles elevate the ribcage

A

External intercostals
Anterior serrati
Scaleni

35
Q

What do Merkel discs do

A

detect continuous contact of objects against the skin

36
Q

What do Meissner’s corpuscles do

A

present in non-hairy areas of the skin.

37
Q

What do Ruffini nerve endings do

A

detect heavy prolonged touch and stretch.

38
Q

What do Pacinian corpuscles do

A

detect tissue vibration

39
Q

Examples of sites of Zonulae Occludens

A

blood–retinal barrier at the apex of the retinal pigment epithelium cell and at the blood–aqueous barrier of the ciliary body

40
Q

What are the 2 types of desmosomes

A

Spot desmosomes (single site), also known as macula adherens.
Belt desmosomes (ring round the apex of the cell), also known as zonulae adherens.

41
Q

What are the major proteoglycans of the sclera

A

Proteodermatan sulphate and proteochondroitin sulphate.

Others include
aggrecan, decorin, biglycan, and proline–arginine–rich and leucinerich repeat (PRELP).

42
Q

In diabetic retinopathy which growth factor synthesis is increased

A

VEGF and PIGF (angiogenic)

43
Q

In diabetic retinopathy which growth factor synthesis is decreased

A

Pigment epithelium-derived growth factor (PEDF) is decreased (anti-angiogenic)

44
Q

How long does panophthalmitis take to complete

A

48 hours

45
Q

What type of infiltrate appears around the long and short ciliary nerves in herpes zoster ophthalmicus.

A

lymphocytic infiltrate

46
Q

Which genes are implicated in the pathogenesis of POAG

A

Myocillin- role in the contractility of trabecular meshwork cells.
Optineurin

47
Q

Which gene mutation is implicated in Stargadt’s disease

A

ABCA4

48
Q

What happens to the retina in end Stage Stargadt’s disease

A

the gliotic retina fuses with Bruch’s membrane, as the outer retinal layer is lost

49
Q

Most common yeast responsible for corneal infections

A

Candida Albicans

50
Q

Moulds responsible for corneal infections

A

Aspergillus, Fusarium, and Penicillium

51
Q

What condition is also known as river blindness

A

Onchocheriasis
Live microfilariae cause minimal tissue damage to the eyes and skin

52
Q

What is the size of monocytes

A

12-20 micrometres in size.
Can feature round, oval, notched, or horseshoe-shaped nuclei.

53
Q

What percentage of people with acute anterior uveitis are HLA-B27 positive

A

50%

54
Q

What is an accurate way to assess drug efficiency

A

Estimation of drug clearance from the circulation rather than drug half life

55
Q

What does an ectropion do to the residence time of drug in the fornix

A

Reduce it

56
Q

What do photosensitizing agents do

A

absorb visible and ultraviolet radiation, thereby generating free radicals.

57
Q

Examples of photosensitizing agents

A

Amiodarone

58
Q

Which drugs work on H1 receptors

A

Cetirizine, loratadine, and diphenhydramine

59
Q

Which drugs work on H2 receptors

A

Ranitidine and cimetidine

60
Q

Which drug works on H3 receptors

A

Ciproxifan

61
Q

What are the 5 subdivisions of prophase 1

A

Leptotene—chromosomes begin to condense.
Zygotene—chromosomes pair and form bivalents.
Pachytene—main stage of chromosomal thickening.
Diplotene—bivalents begin to separate.
Diakinesis—bivalents separate and coil tightly.

62
Q

What is aneuploidy

A

when paired chromosomes fail to disjoin, or is due
to delayed movement during anaphase.

63
Q

What can aneuploidy result in

A

trisomy (extra chromosome) or monosomy (missing chromosome).

64
Q

What is HLADR4 associated with

A

SO and VKH

65
Q

What is the function of Ubiquitin

A

role in destroying phosphorylated cyclins and cyclin
inhibitors.

66
Q

What is the Maddox wing used for

A

Near Phorias

67
Q

What is the double Maddox rod used for

A

Torsional phorias

68
Q

What is the Hirschberg test used for

A

detect manifest deviation and simply involves asking the patient to fix on a pen-torch at 33 cm, then assessing the corneal reflection.

69
Q

What is the equivalence of 1mm deviation in prism dioptres

A

15PD

70
Q

What are the stages of ICG angiography

A

Early phase: 2–60 seconds; prominent filling of choroidal arteries.
Early mid-phase: 1–3 minutes; increased prominence of choroidal veins.
Late mid-phase: 3–15 minutes; diffuse hypofluorescence (due to diffusion of dye from choriocapillaris).
Late phase: 15–30 minutes; dye leaves choroidal and retinal circulations but may remain in neovascular tissue.

71
Q

What conditions cause a normal a wave and reduced scotopic b wave on full field ERG

A

termed an ‘electronegative’ response
X-linked retinoschisis, central retinal artery/vein occlusion (CRAO/CRVO), congenital stationary night blindness (CSNB) (Xlinked and autosomal recessive, complete and incomplete forms), quinine toxicity, melanoma-associated retinopathy, and CLN3
(juvenile Batten) disease.

72
Q

What conditions cause a reduced a and b wave

A

Total retinal detachment and rod-cone dystrophy compromise the photoreceptors and so can cause reduced a-waves and consequently b-waves.

73
Q

What is an acceptable power of a study

A

> 80%

74
Q

How many people in the world have a near or distance vision impairment

A

at least 2.2 billion people

75
Q

What is lead time bias

A

occurs when earlier diagnosis of a disease falsely makes it seem like affected patients are surviving longer.

76
Q

What is recency bias

A

occurs due to the tendency to favour recent events over older events.

77
Q

What is detection bias

A

occurs due to systematic differences between groups in how outcomes are determined

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