Pain-FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mechanism of action of NSAIDs?

A

They inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, reducing prostaglandin synthesis.

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2
Q

What is the difference between COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes?

A

COX-1 regulates gastric protection, platelet aggregation, and kidney function, while COX-2 is upregulated in inflammation.

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3
Q

What are selective COX-2 inhibitors?

A

Drugs like Celecoxib that selectively inhibit COX-2 to reduce inflammation with fewer GI side effects.

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4
Q

What is the primary function of aspirin (ASA)?

A

It irreversibly inhibits COX-1, reducing platelet aggregation and providing cardiovascular protection.

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5
Q

Why should aspirin be avoided in children with viral infections?

A

It can cause Reye’s syndrome, leading to liver damage and encephalopathy.

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6
Q

What are common NSAIDs used for pain and inflammation?

A

Ibuprofen, naproxen, diclofenac, ketorolac, and celecoxib.

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7
Q

What is the primary use of Acetaminophen (Tylenol)?

A

Pain relief and fever reduction without significant anti-inflammatory effects.

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8
Q

What is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?

A

N-acetylcysteine (NAC), which replenishes glutathione stores in the liver.

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9
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Methotrexate?

A

It inhibits folic acid metabolism, reducing cytokine production and immune activation.

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10
Q

What are the major adverse effects of Methotrexate?

A

Mucosal ulcers, nausea, hepatotoxicity, and bone marrow suppression.

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11
Q

What is Hydroxychloroquine used for?

A

Treatment of early, mild rheumatoid arthritis and malaria.

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12
Q

What is a major adverse effect of Hydroxychloroquine?

A

Ocular toxicity, including irreversible retinal damage.

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13
Q

What is Leflunomide used for?

A

RA treatment via inhibition of pyrimidine synthesis, reducing autoimmune lymphocyte proliferation.

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14
Q

What are the adverse effects of Leflunomide?

A

Diarrhea, liver toxicity, weight loss, and teratogenicity.

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15
Q

What is the function of Sulfasalazine?

A

Treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and inflammatory bowel disease.

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16
Q

What are common side effects of Sulfasalazine?

A

GI upset, nausea, leukopenia, and headache.

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17
Q

What are TNF-alpha inhibitors used for?

A

They reduce inflammation in RA, Crohn’s disease, psoriasis, and ankylosing spondylitis.

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18
Q

What are examples of TNF-alpha inhibitors?

A

Adalimumab (Humira), Infliximab (Remicade), Etanercept (Enbrel), Golimumab (Simponi), Certolizumab (Cimzia).

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19
Q

What are risks associated with TNF-alpha inhibitors?

A

Increased infection risk, malignancy risk, and worsening heart failure.

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20
Q

What is Abatacept (Orencia) used for?

A

RA treatment by inhibiting T-cell activation via CD80/CD86 interaction blockade.

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21
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Rituximab?

A

It depletes B-cells by targeting CD20, reducing autoimmune response in RA and lymphoma.

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22
Q

What are IL-6 inhibitors used for?

A

Tocilizumab (Actemra) and Sarilumab (Kevzara) block IL-6 to reduce inflammation in RA.

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23
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Xeljanz (Tofacitinib)?

A

It is a Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitor that modulates immune cell activity in RA.

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24
Q

What are the risks of JAK inhibitors like Xeljanz?

A

Anemia, neutropenia, infection risk, and malignancies.

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25
Q

What are Prostaglandin analogs used for?

A

Treatment of open-angle glaucoma by increasing uveoscleral outflow.

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26
Q

What are examples of Prostaglandin analogs?

A

Latanoprost, Bimatoprost, Tafluprost, Travoprost.

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27
Q

What is the role of Prostacyclin analogs?

A

They act as potent pulmonary vasodilators used to treat pulmonary hypertension.

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28
Q

What are examples of Prostacyclin analogs?

A

Epoprostenol, Iloprost, Treprostinil.

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29
Q

What is the primary use of Misoprostol?

A

Prevent NSAID-induced gastric ulcers and induce labor (off-label).

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30
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Lubiprostone?

A

It activates chloride channels in the intestine, increasing fluid secretion and easing constipation.

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31
Q

What is the primary function of opioids?

A

To relieve severe pain, reduce anxiety before anesthesia, control coughing or diarrhea, and treat opioid addiction.

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32
Q

What are common weak opioid analgesics?

A

Codeine, Hydrocodone, Tramadol.

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33
Q

What are common strong opioid analgesics?

A

Morphine, Hydromorphone, Fentanyl, Methadone, Oxycodone.

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34
Q

What opioid is commonly used for opioid addiction treatment?

A

Methadone.

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35
Q

Which opioid has the highest potency relative to morphine?

A

Fentanyl (approximately 100 times more potent).

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36
Q

What is the antidote for opioid overdose?

A

Naloxone (Narcan).

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37
Q

Which opioid has a ceiling effect due to Tylenol combination?

A

Hydrocodone (Vicodin, Lortab).

38
Q

Which opioid should be avoided due to toxic metabolite accumulation?

A

Meperidine (Demerol).

39
Q

What opioid antagonist is used for opioid-induced constipation?

A

Methylnaltrexone (Relistor).

40
Q

What are the key side effects of opioids?

A

Respiratory depression, constipation, sedation, nausea, urinary retention.

41
Q

Which opioid has both opioid and NMDA receptor effects?

A

Methadone.

42
Q

What is the mechanism of action of NSAIDs?

A

They inhibit COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes to reduce prostaglandin synthesis.

43
Q

Which NSAID is a selective COX-2 inhibitor?

A

Celecoxib (Celebrex).

44
Q

What is the major risk of NSAIDs in cardiovascular patients?

A

Increased risk of heart attack and stroke.

45
Q

Which NSAID is used for acute migraine treatment?

A

Diclofenac (Cambia).

46
Q

What is the first-line treatment for mild to moderate pain?

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol).

47
Q

What is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?

A

N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).

48
Q

Which medication is used to protect the stomach when taking NSAIDs?

A

Misoprostol (Cytotec).

49
Q

Which triptan is the prototype for migraine treatment?

A

Sumatriptan (Imitrex).

50
Q

Which migraine medication should not be used in patients with cardiovascular disease?

A

Ergotamine (Cafergot).

51
Q

What medication is used for refractory migraines?

A

Dihydroergotamine (DHE).

52
Q

What is the first-line prophylactic treatment for migraines?

A

Beta-blockers (Propranolol, Metoprolol).

53
Q

What newer class of biologic drugs is used for migraine prevention?

A

CGRP inhibitors (Erenumab - Aimovig).

54
Q

Which antidepressants are commonly used for chronic pain management?

A

Tricyclic antidepressants (Amitriptyline, Nortriptyline).

55
Q

Which anticonvulsants are used for neuropathic pain?

A

Gabapentin, Pregabalin (Lyrica), Topiramate.

56
Q

What medication is used for opioid withdrawal management?

A

Buprenorphine (Subutex, Suboxone).

57
Q

Which opioid is commonly used in patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pumps?

A

Morphine or Hydromorphone.

58
Q

Which opioid is commonly used in transdermal patches for chronic pain?

A

Fentanyl (Duragesic patch).

59
Q

What is the major contraindication for triptans?

A

Uncontrolled hypertension, coronary artery disease, recent stroke.

60
Q

What drug is used to treat serotonin syndrome?

A

Cyproheptadine.

61
Q

What is the primary cause of gout?

A

High levels of uric acid in the blood leading to sodium urate crystal deposits in tissues, joints, and kidneys.

62
Q

What triggers acute gout attacks?

A

Excess alcohol consumption, purine-rich diet, renal disease.

63
Q

What are the first-line treatments for acute gout?

A

NSAIDs (Indomethacin preferred), steroids, and Colchicine.

64
Q

When should preventative therapy for gout be considered?

A

For patients with 2+ attacks per year, CKD, renal stones, or tophi.

65
Q

What are the main types of chronic gout therapy?

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors (Allopurinol, Febuxostat) and uricosurics (Probenecid).

66
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Colchicine?

A

It binds to tubulin, preventing neutrophil migration and reducing inflammation in gout.

67
Q

What are the side effects of Colchicine?

A

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, myopathy, neutropenia, aplastic anemia, alopecia.

68
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Allopurinol?

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor that decreases uric acid production.

69
Q

What are the adverse effects of Allopurinol?

A

Skin rashes (higher risk in renal impairment), hypersensitivity reactions.

70
Q

How does Febuxostat differ from Allopurinol?

A

It is a non-purine xanthine oxidase inhibitor with lower risk of hypersensitivity but higher CV risk.

71
Q

What is the function of Probenecid?

A

A uricosuric agent that promotes uric acid excretion by inhibiting reabsorption in the kidneys.

72
Q

Why is Pegloticase used for gout?

A

It is a recombinant uricase enzyme that converts uric acid into allantoin for excretion.

73
Q

What are common side effects of Pegloticase?

A

Infusion reactions, anaphylaxis (patients should be premedicated with antihistamines and steroids).

74
Q

Which medication is first-line for preventing recurrent gout attacks?

A

Allopurinol or Febuxostat.

75
Q

What is the mechanism of action of muscle relaxants?

A

They reduce muscle spasms by acting on the CNS or directly on skeletal muscles.

76
Q

Which muscle relaxant is commonly used for spasticity in MS?

77
Q

What is the primary treatment for drug-induced serotonin syndrome?

A

Cyproheptadine.

78
Q

Which medications are commonly abused as stimulants?

A

Cocaine, amphetamines, MDMA, synthetic cathinones.

79
Q

What are the effects of cocaine toxicity?

A

Psychiatric complaints, hyperthermia, convulsions, chest pain, and cardiac complications.

80
Q

What is cocaethylene and why is it dangerous?

A

A cardiotoxic metabolite formed when cocaine is used with alcohol.

81
Q

What is the primary treatment for stimulant toxicity?

A

Benzodiazepines (Lorazepam) for agitation, cooling measures for hyperthermia.

82
Q

What are the risks of synthetic cannabinoids?

A

Severe hallucinations, psychosis, seizures, acute kidney injury, and death.

83
Q

What is the mechanism of action of alcohol?

A

Enhances GABA inhibition, increases opioid release, and alters serotonin/dopamine levels.

84
Q

What are symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?

A

Tachycardia, sweating, tremors, hallucinations, seizures, anxiety.

85
Q

Which medications are used to treat alcohol dependence?

A

Disulfiram (Antabuse), Naltrexone (ReVia/Vivitrol), Acamprosate (Campral).

86
Q

What is the role of Disulfiram in alcohol cessation?

A

It blocks aldehyde dehydrogenase, leading to unpleasant reactions if alcohol is consumed.

87
Q

What is the role of Naltrexone in alcohol dependence?

A

It is an opioid antagonist that reduces cravings and reward response to alcohol.

88
Q

What is the role of Acamprosate in alcohol cessation?

A

Regulates NMDA-mediated glutamate activity to reduce cravings.

89
Q

Which opioid is most commonly abused?

A

Fentanyl and its derivatives.

90
Q

What is the antidote for opioid overdose?

A

Naloxone (Narcan).