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NBCE Part II/III. Diagnostic Imaging (Irene Gold Associates) > Pages: 6-8 (Types of Fractures, Fractures and Dislocations) > Flashcards

Pages: 6-8 (Types of Fractures, Fractures and Dislocations) Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of fracture causes a portion of bone torn away by muscle or ligament tractional force?

A

avulsion fracture

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2
Q

Which type of fracture is caused by an insufficiency or repetitive trauma to the bone?

A

stress/fatigue fracture

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3
Q

Which type of fracture is associated with having more than two fragments?

A

comminuted fracture

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4
Q

Which type of fracture is clinically evident but not seen on x-ray?

A

occult fracture

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5
Q

Which type of fracture is associated with displacement or separation of a slightly moveable joint?

A

diastasis

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6
Q

Which type of fracture is considered an incomplete fracture, because only one side of the cortex is affected?

A

torus/buckling fracture

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7
Q

Which type of fracture causes the skin to rupture and expose the bone?

A

compound/open fracture

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8
Q

Which type of fracture is associated with bone fragments driven into one another?

A

impaction fracture

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9
Q

Which type of fracture is considered an incomplete fracture in children?

A

greenstick/hickory fracture

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10
Q

How long will it take an Occult Fracture to show up radiographically?

A

7-10 days from the day of injury

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11
Q

This is a fracture of the 1st metacarpal, which extends into the carpometacarpal joint?

a. ) Rolando’s
b. ) Boxer’s
c. ) Bennett’s
d. ) Jones

A

c.) Bennett’s

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12
Q

This is a comminuted intra-articular fracture through the base of the first metacarpal bone?

a. ) Rolando’s
b. ) Boxer’s
c. ) Bennett’s
d. ) Jones

A

a.) Rolando’s

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13
Q

This is a fracture of the 2nd or 3rd metacarpal?

a. ) Bar room
b. ) Boxer’s
c. ) Bennett’s
d. ) Jones

A

b.) Boxer’s

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14
Q

This is a fracture of the 4th or 5th metacarpal?

a. ) Bar room
b. ) Boxer’s
c. ) Bennett’s
d. ) Jones

A

a.) Bar room

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15
Q

This is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?

a. ) Lunate
b. ) Trapezium
c. ) Trapezoid
d. ) Scaphoid

A

d.) Scaphoid

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16
Q

This is a fracture of the proximal ulna?

a. ) Colles
b. ) Monteggia
c. ) Galeazzi
d. ) Nightstick
e. ) Smith’s

A

d.) Nightstick

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17
Q

This is a fracture of the ulna with radial head displacement?

a. ) Colles
b. ) Monteggia
c. ) Galeazzi
d. ) Nightstick
e. ) Smith’s

A

b.) Monteggia

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18
Q

This is a fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement of the distal fragment?

a. ) Colles
b. ) Monteggia
c. ) Galeazzi
d. ) Nightstick
e. ) Smith’s

A

a.) Colles

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19
Q

This is a fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement of the distal fragment?

a. ) Colles
b. ) Monteggia
c. ) Galeazzi
d. ) Nightstick
e. ) Smith’s

A

e.) Smith’s (aka: “Reverse Colles Fracture”)

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20
Q

This is a fracture of the distal 1/3 of the radius with dislocation of the distal radio-ulnar joint?

a. ) Colles
b. ) Monteggia
c. ) Galeazzi
d. ) Nightstick
e. ) Smith’s

A

c.) Galeazzi

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21
Q

This is a stress fracture of the 2nd, 3rd, of 4th metatarsals?

a. ) Dancer’s
b. ) Jones
c. ) March
d. ) Sander’s

A

c. ) March
- Named after the “Military” March b/c of the high population of soldiers who obtained this fx from marching miles during war.

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22
Q

This is a transverse fracture at the proximal fifth metatarsal?

a. ) Dancer’s
b. ) Jones
c. ) March
d. ) Sander’s

A

b.) Jones

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23
Q

This is a avulsion fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal?

a. ) Dancer’s
b. ) Jones
c. ) March
d. ) Sander’s

A

a.) Dancer’s

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24
Q

This is a fracture of the calcaneus?

a. ) Dancer’s
b. ) Jones
c. ) March
d. ) Sander’s

A

d.) Sander’s

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25
Q

This is an avulsion fracture of the spinous process, most commonly found at C6-T1?

a. ) Hangman’s
b. ) Jefferson Bursting
c. ) Clay Shoveler’s
d. ) Chance

A

c.) Clay Shoveler’s

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26
Q

This is a bilateral pedicle fracture of C2 due to a hyper-extension injury?

a. ) Hangman’s
b. ) Jefferson Bursting
c. ) Clay Shoveler’s
d. ) Chance

A

a.) Hangman’s

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27
Q

This is a fracture through the anterior and posterior arches of atlas due to axial compression?

a. ) Hangman’s
b. ) Jefferson Bursting
c. ) Clay Shoveler’s
d. ) Chance

A

b.) Jefferson Bursting

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28
Q

This is a horizontal fracture through a single body and posterior arch most commonly found at L1-L3?

a. ) Hangman’s
b. ) Jefferson Bursting
c. ) Clay Shoveler’s
d. ) Chance

A

d. ) Chance

- aka: Seatbelt fracture

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29
Q

Which type of odontoid fracture is an avulsion of the tip of the dens?

a. ) Type I
b. ) Type II
c. ) Type III
d. ) Type IV

A

a.) Type I

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30
Q

Which type of odontoid fracture is through the body of C2?

a. ) Type I
b. ) Type II
c. ) Type III
d. ) Type IV

A

c.) Type III

31
Q

Which type of odontoid fracture is through the base of the dens?

a. ) Type I
b. ) Type II
c. ) Type III
d. ) Type IV

A

b.) Type II

32
Q

This is an avulsion fracture of the anterior inferior aspect of the vertebral body from a hyperextension trauma, most commonly at C2?

a. ) Hangman’s
b. ) Type III Odontoid fracture
c. ) Jefferson Bursting
d. ) Teardrop

A

d.) Teardrop

33
Q

A fracture through any open growth plate is termed what?

A

Salter-Harris

34
Q

Which type of Salter-Harris fracture is a Horizontal fracture through the Growth Plate?

a. ) Type I
b. ) Type II
c. ) Type III
d. ) Type IV
e. ) Type V

A

a.) Type I

35
Q

Which type of Salter-Harris fracture is a Compression deformity of the Growth Plate?

a. ) Type I
b. ) Type II
c. ) Type III
d. ) Type IV
e. ) Type V

A

e.) Type V

36
Q

Which type of Salter-Harris fracture is a fracture through the Growth Plate and Metaphysis?

a. ) Type I
b. ) Type II
c. ) Type III
d. ) Type IV
e. ) Type V

A

b.) Type II

37
Q

Which type of Salter-Harris fracture is a fracture through the Growth Plate, Metaphysis and Epiphysis?

a. ) Type I
b. ) Type II
c. ) Type III
d. ) Type IV
e. ) Type V

A

d.) Type IV

38
Q

Which type of Salter-Harris fracture is a fracture through the Growth Plate and Epiphysis?

a. ) Type I
b. ) Type II
c. ) Type III
d. ) Type IV
e. ) Type V

A

c.) Type III

39
Q

Which type of Salter-Harris fracture is the most common?

a. ) Type I
b. ) Type II
c. ) Type III
d. ) Type IV
e. ) Type V

A

b.) Type II

40
Q

Which type of Salter-Harris fracture is the most severe?

a. ) Type I
b. ) Type II
c. ) Type III
d. ) Type IV
e. ) Type V

A

e.) Type V

41
Q

Which type of Salter-Harris fracture is associated with a Thurston-Holland sign?

a. ) Type I
b. ) Type II
c. ) Type III
d. ) Type IV
e. ) Type V

A

b.) Type II

42
Q

What mechanism of injury causes a Clay Shoveler’s fracture?

a. ) Hyper-flexion
b. ) Hyper-extension
c. ) Lateral flexion
d. ) Axial compression

A

a.) Hyper-flexion

43
Q

What mechanism of injury causes a Hangman’s fracture?

a. ) Hyper-flexion
b. ) Hyper-extension
c. ) Lateral flexion
d. ) Axial compression

A

b.) Hyper-extension

44
Q

What mechanism of injury causes a Jefferson Bursting fracture?

a. ) Hyper-flexion
b. ) Hyper-extension
c. ) Lateral flexion
d. ) Axial compression

A

d.) Axial compression

45
Q

What mechanism of injury causes a Teardrop fracture?

a. ) Hyper-flexion
b. ) Hyper-extension
c. ) Lateral flexion
d. ) Axial compression

A

b.) Hyper-extension

46
Q

Which type of fracture is associated with acute anterior cervical cord syndrome?

a. ) Hangman’s
b. ) Type III Odontoid fracture
c. ) Jefferson Bursting
d. ) Teardrop

A

d.) Teardrop

47
Q

This is an avulsion fracture of the ischial tuberosity?

a. ) Chance
b. ) Teardrop
c. ) Jones
d. ) Rider’s Bone

A

d.) Rider’s Bone

48
Q

This is a fracture through the pars interarticularis without slippage?

a. ) Spondyloptosis
b. ) Spondylolysis
c. ) Spondylolisthesis
d. ) Spondylodidymia

A

b.) Spondylolysis

49
Q

This is a slippage of the vertebral body with or without a fracture?

a. ) Spondyloptosis
b. ) Spondylolysis
c. ) Spondylolisthesis
d. ) Spondylodidymia

A

c.) Spondylolisthesis

50
Q

Which type of spondylolisthesis is a fracture through the pars?

a. ) Dysplastic
b. ) Traumatic
c. ) Degenerative
d. ) Isthmic
e. ) Pathological

A

d.) Isthmic (Type II)

51
Q

Which type of spondylolisthesis is fracture through the pedicle?

a. ) Dysplastic
b. ) Traumatic
c. ) Degenerative
d. ) Isthmic
e. ) Pathological

A

b.) Traumatic (Type IV)

52
Q

Which type of spondylolisthesis is caused by DJD of the facet joint?

a. ) Dysplastic
b. ) Traumatic
c. ) Degenerative
d. ) Isthmic
e. ) Pathological

A

c. ) Degenerative (Type III)

- aka: Pseudospondylolisthesis

53
Q

Which type of spondylolisthesis is a congenital defect?

a. ) Dysplastic
b. ) Traumatic
c. ) Degenerative
d. ) Isthmic
e. ) Pathological

A

a.) Dysplastic (Type I)

54
Q

Which type of spondylolisthesis is occurs most commonly at L5?

a. ) Dysplastic
b. ) Traumatic
c. ) Degenerative
d. ) Isthmic
e. ) Pathological

A

d.) Isthmic (Type II)

55
Q

Which type of spondylolisthesis is occurs most commonly at L4?

a. ) Dysplastic
b. ) Traumatic
c. ) Degenerative
d. ) Isthmic
e. ) Pathological

A

c. ) Degenerative (Type III)

- aka: Pseudospondylolisthesis

56
Q

What special diagnostic test is helpful for spondylolisthesis?

a. ) MRI
b. ) CT
c. ) SPECT
d. ) Bone scan

A

c.) SPECT (single-photon emission computed tomography)

57
Q

An inverted Napoleon Hat sign is associated with what grades of spondylolisthesis?

A

Grade 3 and more

58
Q

This is total forward displacement of the L5 vertebral body beyond the sacral promontory?

a. ) Spondyloptosis
b. ) Spondylolysis
c. ) Spondylolisthesis
d. ) Spondylodidymia

A

a.) Spondyloptosis

59
Q

What type of radiographic views are helpful in analyzing stability?

a. ) Oblique
b. ) Lateral
c. ) Flexion and extension
d. ) All the above

A

c.) Flexion and extension

60
Q

What condition is associated with tibial apophysitis, most commonly seen in ages 10-16 y/o will pinpoint pain and swelling?

A

Osgood Schlatter’s

61
Q

What type of brace is used to help with Osgood Schlatter’s?

a. ) Milwaukee brace
b. ) Charleston brace
c. ) Boston brace
d. ) Cho-Pat brace

A

d.) Cho-Pat brace

62
Q

This the the most commonly dislocated carpal bone?

a. ) Scaphoid
b. ) Pisiform
c. ) Lunate
d. ) Trapezium

A

c.) Lunate

63
Q

What “sign” is associated with a Lunate Dislocation?

A

Pie sign

64
Q

What “sign” is associated with a Scaphoid Dislocation?

A

Terry Thomas sign

Signet Ring sign

65
Q

Chronic dislocation of this joint may present with a Bankhart and/or Hill-Sachs/Hatchet Deformity?

a. ) Radio-ulnar
b. ) Talofibular
c. ) Tibiofibular
d. ) Glenohumeral

A

d.) Glenohumeral

66
Q

This is a glenoid labral tear associated with instability?

a. ) Bankhart
b. ) Hill-Sachs
c. ) Hatchet deformity
d. ) SLAP

A

d. ) SLAP

- Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior

67
Q

Which type of Salter-Harris injury is SCFE?

a. ) Type I
b. ) Type II
c. ) Type III
d. ) Type IV
e. ) Type V

A

a.) Type I

68
Q

Which of the following is associated with a Dancer’s fracture?

a. ) Peroneous tertius
b. ) Peroneous longus
c. ) Peroneous brevis
d. ) Achilles tendon

A

c.) Peroneous brevis

69
Q

What is the most common location for a Teardrop fracture?

A

C2

  • On Part 3 you will have an image of a Teardrop fracture at C4 on a vignette.
70
Q

How is Tibial apophysitis treated?

A

Cho-Pat brace

71
Q

What orthopedic test is indicative of a spondylolisthesis?

A

(+) Stork’s test

72
Q

What type of radiographs do you take for a person with Spondylolisthesis?

A

Flexion/Extension or Traction films

73
Q

Which type of spondylolisthesis occurs most commonly at C2?

a. ) Dysplastic
b. ) Traumatic
c. ) Degenerative
d. ) Isthmic
e. ) Pathological

A

b.) Traumatic (Type IV)

***Hangman’s fracture = bilateral pedicle fracture

NBCE Part II/III. Diagnostic Imaging (Irene Gold Associates) (12 decks)

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