PAEDS MCQ

Question 1

What is the most appropriate restoration to use when restoring a primary molar following pulp therapy.

Select one:

a. Amalgam
b. Composite
c. Preformed metal crown
d. Compomer

Answer 1

c. Preformed metal crown

Question 2

Which of the following can be used as an intra-canal medicament following a pulpectomy on a primary molar?

Select one:

a. Vitapex
b. Vitabond
c. Vitramer
d. Vitrabond

Answer 2

a. Vitapex

Question 3

Which is the best material to fix a preformed metal crown onto a primary molar?

Select one:

a. Zinc phosphate cement
b. Sodium alginate cement
c. Glass ionomer cement
d. Harvard cement

Answer 3

c. Glass ionomer cement

Question 4

When would a pulpotomy be considered in a primary molar tooth?

Select one:

a. When there is a facial swelling
b. When caries extends more that half way across the dentine towards the pulp
c. When there is a very small draining sinus buccally
d. When there is a radiolucency at the root furcation

Answer 4

b. When caries extends more that half way across the dentine towards the pulp

Question 5

Which of the following is not a clinical indication for a pulpotomy on a primary molar?

Select one:

a. Symptoms of reversible pulpitis
b. Marginal ridge breakdown
c. Patient with congenital cardiac disease
d. Iatrogenic pulpal exposure

Answer 5

c. Patient with congenital cardiac disease

Question 6

Which material is best used to fill the pulp chamber following pulp therapy on a primary molar?

Select one:

a. Amalgam
b. Glass ionomer cement
c. Composite
d. Thick mix of zinc oxide eugenol cement

Answer 6

d. Thick mix of zinc oxide eugenol cement

Question 7

Which medicament is used in a vital pulpotomy of a primary molar tooth?

Select one:

a. Hydrochloric Acid
b. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Ferrous Sulphate
d. Ferric Sulphate

Answer 7

d. Ferric Sulphate

Question 8

When instrumenting a primary molar root canal how far away from the apex of the root should you instrument?

Select one:

a. 2mm
b. 4mm
c. At the radiological apex
d. 1mm

Answer 8

a. 2mm

Question 9

Which material seems to deliver the highest success rate in terms of restoration of primary teeth?

Select one:
A. Amalgam
B. Composite
C. Glass ionomer
D. Stainless steel (crowns)

Answer 9

D. Stainless steel (crowns)

Question 10

With regard to restorative materials in the primary dentition:

Select one:
A. Amalgam is the material of choice for pit and fissure caries
B. Approximal cavities without occlusal extension should be restored with amalgam
C. Stainless steal crowns are the most durable restorations for 2 surface cavities and endodontically treated teeth
D. Nursing caries is best treated with glass ionomer cement

Answer 10

C. Stainless steal crowns are the most durable restorations for 2 surface cavities and endodontically treated teeth

Question 11

What are the main advantages of composite in the primary dentition?

Select one:
A. Aesthetic and easy to use
B. Aesthetic and bonds to tooth tissue
C. Aesthetic and good wear resistance
D. Bond to tooth tissue and resistance to moisture

Answer 11

B. Aesthetic and bonds to tooth tissue

Question 12

Which of the following materials cannot be used to seal residual caries in a primary tooth?

Select one:
A. Amalgam
B. Composite
C. Compomer
D. Stainless steal (crowns)

Answer 12

A. Amalgam

Question 13

What material is used to cement stainless steal crowns?

Select one:
A. Composite
B. Compomer
C. Glass ionomer
D. Panavia

Answer 13

C. Glass ionomer

Question 14

Preventive resin restorations are a suitable treatment option for:

Select one:
A. Caries extending slightly into dentine
B. Caries deep into dentine
C. Caries extending onto 3 or more tooth surfaces
D. Unrestorable teeth

Answer 14

A. Caries extending slightly into dentine

Question 15

If a tooth presents signs of sepsis, which is/are the most appropriate treatment(s)?

Select one:
A. Restore and seal with a stainless steel crown
B. Pulpal therapy or extraction
C. Continued observation and monitoring with no active treatment
D. Atraumatic restorative technique (ART)

Answer 15

B. Pulpal therapy or extraction

Question 16

Which of the following caries management options always requires complete caries removal?

Select one:
A. Restoration with amalgam
B. Restoration with a stainless steel crown
C. Sealing caries with fissure sealants
D. Making a tooth self-cleansing (plus prevention)

Answer 16

A. Restoration with amalgam

Question 17

Which of these materials has the poorest longevity (assuming they are all optimally placed)?

Select one:
A. Amalgam
B. Composite
C. Glass ionomer
D. Stainless steal crowns

Answer 17

C. Glass ionomer

Question 18

The placement of stainless steal crowns without the use of local anaesthetic, caries removal or tooth preparation is known as:

Select one:
A. Atraumatic restorative technique
B. Interim therapeutic restoration
C. The Hall technique
D. Rapid restorative technique

Answer 18

C. The Hall technique

Question 19

When placing glass ionomer in a pre-cooperative child you could consider:

Select one:
A. Using preformed strips to shape the restoration
B. Providing the treatment under inhalation sedation
C. Providing the treatment under general anaesthetic
D. Using a “finger press” technique to place the restoration as a temporary measure

Answer 19

D. Using a “finger press” technique to place the restoration as a temporary measure

Question 20

Which two materials are used in the provision of a sealant restoration?

Select one:
A. Composite and fissure sealant
B. Amalgam and composite
C. Composite and glass ionomer
D. Stainless steal and glass ionomer

Answer 20

A. Composite and fissure sealant

Question 21

What factor is most likely to improve the oral health of all pre-school children?

Select one:

a. Water fluoridation
b. Fluoridation of fizzy drinks
c. Use of 1450ppm toothpaste
d. Use of 1000ppm toothpaste

Answer 21

a. Water fluoridation

Question 22

Which treatment is of the highest priority in the following plan?

Select one:

a. Restoration of pain free primary teeth
b. Oral hygiene instruction
c. Relief of pain
d. Restoration of pain free permanent teeth

Answer 22

c. Relief of pain

Question 23

When planning treatment which of the following should be carried out first?

Select one:

a. Simple restorations requiring LA in the lower jaw
b. Anterior tooth restoration requiring LA
c. Simple restorations requiring LA in the upper jaw
d. Pulpotomy in the upper jaw

Answer 23

c. Simple restorations requiring LA in the upper jaw

Question 24

What is not wanted from the parents/carers of a small child when treatment planning?

Select one:

a. Motivation toward appropriate dietary improvements
b. Showing the child that they are nervous
c. Willingness to help aid good oral hygiene
d. Consent

Answer 24

b. Showing the child that they are nervous

Question 25

Which factors do we not need to take into consideration when formulating a treatment plan for a child?

Select one:

a. Social background
b. Caries risk
c. Plan made for child’s best friend
d. Medical history

Answer 25

c. Plan made for child’s best friend

Question 26

Which of the following would not alter your treatment plan?

Select one:

a. Child has congenital cardiac disease
b. Need for General Anaesthetic
c. Allergy to latex
d. Need for prevention

Answer 26

d. Need for prevention

Question 27

Which of the following is not important in the social history of a child for dentistry?

Select one:

a. Year at school
b. If they have a best friend
c. Siblings
d. Age

Answer 27

b. If they have a best friend

Question 28

What factors do not need to be considered in the mixed dentition phase?

Select one:

a. Developing malocclusion
b. Development of all permanent teeth
c. Growth of the child
d. Size of the maxillary sinuses

Answer 28

d. Size of the maxillary sinuses

Question 29

What should form the first component of any treatment plan?

Select one:

a. Prevention
b. Relief of pain
c. Diet advice and oral hygiene instruction
d. Restorative Treatment

Answer 29

b. Relief of pain

Question 30

Which of the following is not a major factor in a preventive treatment plan for a child?

Select one:

a. Fluoride therapy
b. Water fluoridation
c. Oral hygiene instruction
d. Fissure sealing

Answer 30

b. Water fluoridation

Question 31

Which of the following would be a suspicious indicator of child abuse or neglect?

Select one:

a. Parent shows interest in the treatment of their child
b. There is a loving relationship between the parent and child
c. Delayed presentation of dental trauma
d. All dental appointments kept

Answer 31

c. Delayed presentation of dental trauma

Question 32

Your adult patient attend their appointment heavily under the influence of drugs or alcohol. You realise that they they have also brought a child along with them who is sitting in the waiting room. Which of the following would NOT be an appropraite course of action?

Select one:

a. Contact the localpolice station to help deal with the situation.
b. Call the duty social worker at the local social services department to see if they can look after the child as the parent is unfit to do so.
c. Let the child leave with the intoxicated parent, after all they are not your patient.
d. Find out if another family member or friend can pick up the child and care for them until the parent is able to do so.

Answer 32

c. Let the child leave with the intoxicated parent, after all they are not your patient.

Question 33

Which of the following in isolation would NOT be a suspicious indicator of child abuse/neglect?

Select one:

a. A torn upper labial fraenum
b. Late presentation of an injury
c. Multiple injuries in different locations
d. A child who is clearly dirty and smells of unwashed clothes first thing on a monday morning.

Answer 33

a. A torn upper labial fraenum

Question 34

The Criminal Justice (Scotland) Act has NOT made it illegal to:

Select one:

a. Hit a child with any kind of object
b. Smack a child
c. Hit a child anywhere on the head
d. Shake a child

Answer 34

b. Smack a child

Question 35

Who are the main agency concerned with coordinating child protection procedures?

Select one:

a. Health Visitors
b. General Medical Practitioners
c. Police
d. Social Services

Answer 35

d. Social Services

Question 36

All dental professionals who are registered with the general dental Council have a responsibility to….?

Select one or more:

a. Raise concerns about the possible abuse or neglect of children
b. Know who to contact for further advice about abuse or neglect of children.
c. Know how to refer concerns about abuse or neglect.
d. Diagnose abuse or neglect in children

Answer 36

a. Raise concerns about the possible abuse or neglect of children
b. Know who to contact for further advice about abuse or neglect of children.
c. Know how to refer concerns about abuse or neglect.

Question 37

Which of the following is the accepted definition of child protection?

Select one:

a. Activity undertaken to protect specific children who are suffering or are at risk of suffering significant harm
b. Ensuring children grow up in a safe and caring environment.
c. Measures taken to minimise the risk of harm to children
d. Preventing the impairment of children’s health

Answer 37

a. Activity undertaken to protect specific children who are suffering or are at risk of suffering significant harm

Question 38

Which of the following are the biggest three parenting capacity concerns that are contributing factors in child abuse/neglect cases?

Select one:

a. Domestic violence, drug/ alcohol misuse, poverty
b. Domestic violence, drug/ alcohol misuse, mental health problems
c. Poverty, mental health problems, unemployment
d. Step parents, drug/ alcohol misuse, mental health problems

Answer 38

b. Domestic violence, drug/ alcohol misuse, mental health problems

Question 39

How many children in Scotland are killed by a parent/ parent substitute?

Select one:

a. 80 per month
b. 10 per year
c. 1 - 2 per week
d. 52 per year

Answer 39

b. 10 per year

Question 40

Why is it possible that ‘neglect of neglect’ might occur?

Select one:

a. Because neglect is less incident focussed
b. Because children don’t die from neglect
c. Because neglect does not damage children
d. Because neglect is rare

Answer 40

a. Because neglect is less incident focussed

Question 41

Which of the following is NOT a long term effect for adults who were neglected as children?

Select one:

a. Greater incidence of arrest
b. Greater incidence of epilepsy
c. Greater incidence of heart disease
d. Greater incidence of diabetes

Answer 41

b. Greater incidence of epilepsy

Question 42

What 3 stages in managing dental neglect are suggested by “Child Protection and the Dental Team” website?

Select one:

a. Examination, diagnosis, review
b. Referral to local dental hospital, speak to child protection advisor, child protection referral
c. Preventive dental team management, preventive multi-agency management, child protection referral
d. Preventive dental team management, referral to local dental hospital, preventive multi-agency management

Answer 42

c. Preventive dental team management, preventive multi-agency management, child protection referral

Question 43

What proportion of serious head injuries in the first year of life are non-accidental?

Select one:

a. 60%
b. 5%
c. 95%
d. 10%

Answer 43

c. 95%

Question 44

What proportion of injuries in abuse cases are found on the head and neck areas?

Select one:

a. 10%
b. 60%
c. 5%
d. 95%

Answer 44

b. 60%

Question 45

Which of the following is NOT an indicator of dental neglect?

Select one:

a. Dental disease which has an impact on the child
b. Obvious dental caries
c. Children with dental disease where practical care has been offered and yet the child has not returned for treatment
d. Occult dental caries

Answer 45

d. Occult dental caries

Question 46

When reading clinical guidelines what does the strength of a strong key recommendation convey?

Select one:

1. Based on available information, weighing up balance of benefit versus risk, almost all individuals would choose this option.
2. Based on available information, weighing up balance of benefit versus risk, the majority of individuals would choose this option.
3. Based on available information, weighing up a finer balance of benefit versus risk, not all individuals would choose this option.
4. Based on available information, weighing up a finer balance of benefit versus risk, some individuals would choose this option.

Answer 46

1. Based on available information, weighing up balance of benefit versus risk, almost all individuals would choose this option.

Question 47

Which of the following is an aim when providing dental care for children:

Select one:

1. To keep the permanent dentition mainly free from disease
2. To reduce the risk of the child experiencing pain, infection or treatment induced anxiety
3. For the child to grow up feeling positive about their oral health but for medical health to be a priority
4. To safeguard dental neglect only and not to consider wellbeing

Answer 47

2. To reduce the risk of the child experiencing pain, infection or treatment induced anxiety

Question 48

A comprehensive assessment of the child does not include the following element for an effective plan to improve oral health:

Select one:

a. Carer Motivation and Responsibility only
b. Patient history
c. Clinical examination
d. Caries Risk Assessment

Answer 48

a. Carer Motivation and Responsibility only

Question 49

An assessment of lesion activity is essential for providing the appropriate level of caries prevention this includes:

Select one:

1. On one occasion using clinical assessment
2. One one occasion using radiographic assessment
3. Progression over time using clinical photographs
4. Using lesion colour as an indicator

Answer 49

3. Progression over time using clinical photographs

Question 50

The broad contact points of the primary dentition make diagnosis of proximal caries difficult using clinical examination alone.At what age should bitewing radiographs start to be taken as an adjunct to visual diagnosis?

Select one:

1. Age three and above
2. Age four and above
3. Age five and above
4. Age six and above

Answer 50

2. Age four and above

Question 51

When assessing toothbrushing and recording visible plaque levels at each examination, a score of eight out of ten indicates:

Select one:

1. Perfectly clean tooth
2. Plaque line around the cervical margin
3. Cervical third of the crown covered
4. Middle third covered

Answer 51

2. Plaque line around the cervical margin

Question 52

Motivational Interviewing is used to translate knowledge into behaviour change, this process involves:

Select one:

1. Seek permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective learning, Summarising
2. Self permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, Summarising
3. Seek permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, Summarising
4. Self permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, Summarising

Answer 52

3. Seek permission, Open Questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, Summarising

Question 53

Standard prevention for all children includes the following at least once a year:

Select one:

1. Toothbrushing demonstration on the child and age appropriate toothpaste advice
2. spit, don’t rinse and information on supervision of their brushing habits until age nine years old
3. Brush thoroughly twice daily, including first thing in the morning and appropriate amount of toothpaste
4. information on supervision of their brushing habits until age nine years old and spit, don’t rinse

Answer 53

1. Toothbrushing demonstration on the child and age appropriate toothpaste advice

Question 54

Enhanced prevention for children at increased risk of caries should include the following at each recall visit:

Select one:

1. Standard prevention and hands on toothbrushing to child only at each recall visit
2. Standard prevention and 1350-1500 ppmF advice for children up to 9 years old
3. Standard prevention and 2800 ppmF advice for children aged 9-16 years old
4. Standard prevention and hands on toothbrushing to child and parent/carer at each recall visit

Answer 54

4. Standard prevention and hands on toothbrushing to child and parent/carer at each recall visit

Question 55

Standard prevention for all children should include the following at least once per year:

Select one:

1. Restricting sugar containing food and drinks x4 per day and drink only flavoured water or milk between meals
2. Restricting sugar containing food and drinks x3 per day and drink only water or milk between meals
3. Snack on sugar free foods such as digestive biscuits and be aware of hidden sugars in foods
4. Snack on sugar free foods such as oatcakes and be aware if acid content of drinks

Answer 55

4. Snack on sugar free foods such as oatcakes and be aware if acid content of drinks

Question 56

Enhanced prevention for children at increased risk of caries should include the following dietary actions:

Select one:

1. Patients only may require more-in-depth support to change dietary habits, such as motivational interviewing
2. Carer only may require more-in-depth support to change dietary habits, such as motivational interviewing
3. Utilise community/home support for dietary change that is available locally
4. Patients and parent/carer only may require more-in-depth support to change dietary habits, such as motivational interviewing

Answer 56

4. Patients and parent/carer only may require more-in-depth support to change dietary habits, such as motivational interviewing

Question 57

Enhanced prevention includes fissure sealant of the following tooth and surface if assessed as likely to be beneficial:

Select one:

a. Cs cusp tip
b. 2’s palatal pits
c. Third permanent molar
d. As & Bs palatal pits

Answer 57

b. 2’s palatal pits

Question 58

Standard prevention for All children includes the following:

Select one:

1. Sodium fluoride varnish (3%) twice a year to ALL children over 2 years of age
2. Sodium fluoride varnish (5%) twice a year to ALL children over 4 years of age
3. Sodium fluoride varnish (5%) twice a year to ALL children over 3 years of age
4. Sodium fluoride varnish (5%) twice a year to ALL children over 2 years of age

Answer 58

4. Sodium fluoride varnish (5%) twice a year to ALL children over 2 years of age

Question 59

Which method of fluoride delivery does the patient not administer?

Select one:
A. Fluoride supplements
B. Fluoride mouthrinse
C. Fluoride toothpaste
D. Fluoride varnish

Answer 59

D. Fluoride varnish

Question 60

Which of the following is not suitable for use in any 10-year-old child?

Select one:
A. Fluoride Mouthwash after dinner
B. 1,450 ppm fluoride toothpaste
C. 22,600 fluoride varnish
D. 5,000 ppm fluoride toothpaste

Answer 60

D. 5,000 ppm fluoride toothpaste

Question 61

Which of the following is not one of the take home messages from the Marimho 2008 review of the evidence for topical fluorides?

Select one:
A. Fluride toothpaste prevents dental caries
B. The higher the caries rate, the greater the preventive effect of topical fluorides
C. Additional topical fluorides (e.g. mouthwash, varnish, tablets) used as well as toothpaste further reduce the occurence of caries
D. Fluoride varnish is the most important method of delivering topical fluoride

Answer 61

D. Fluoride varnish is the most important method of delivering topical fluorid

Question 62

The least amount of fluoride in toothpaste that should be recommended for a 2-year-old child is?

Select one:
A. 1450ppmF
B. 2800ppmF
C. 500ppmF
D. 1000ppmF

Answer 62

D. 1000ppmF

Question 63

What is the strength of fluoride in duraphat varnish?

Select one:
A. 22,800 ppm
B. 27,600 ppm
C. 12,600 ppm
D. 22,600 ppm

Answer 63

D. 22,600 ppm

Question 64

When should topical fluorides (other than toothpaste) be taken?

Select one:
A. With a drink of milk
B. Instead of toothbrushing
C. At a different time from toothbrushing 
D. Along with meals

Answer 64

C. At a different time from toothbrushing

Question 65

Which is the correct drug information that should be written on a prescription to allow a tube of Duraphat 2,800ppm toothpaste to be dispensed?

Select one:
A. 1.1% Sodium Fluoride toothpaste
B. Duraphat toothpaste 2,800ppm 
C. Duraphat toothpaste 5mg/Kg
D. Sodium Fluoride 0.619% toothpaste

Answer 65

D. Sodium Fluoride 0.619% toothpaste

Question 66

From when should a parent be using a toothbrush for their child?

Select one:
A. When they are born
B. When their first tooth erupts 
C. When they start eating solids
D. When they start consuming sugars

Answer 66

B. When their first tooth erupts

Question 67

For a 6-month-old child at low risk of caries, which of the following brushing regimes would you recommend?

Select one:
A. Small pea size amount of 500ppm for twice daily brushing
B. Small pea size amount of 1000ppm for twice daily brushing
C. Smear of 500ppm toothpaste for twice daily brushing
D. Smear of 1000 ppm toothpaste for twice daily brushing

Answer 67

D. Smear of 1000 ppm toothpaste for twice daily brushing

Question 68

A parent calls your surgery to advise that their child has ingested some toothpaste. Which of the following is not an essential question for you to ask?

Select one:

a. Amount of toothpaste
b. Colour of toothpaste
c. Strength of toothpaste
d. Age/weight of child

Answer 68

b. Colour of toothpaste

Question 69

How is the minimum fluoride concentration that would provide a probable toxic dose?

Select one:
A. 1mg/Kg body weight
B. 6.5mg/Kg body weight
C. 5mg/Kg body weight 
D. 2mg/Kg body weight

Answer 69

C. 5mg/Kg body weight

Question 70

Which statement below is not associated with behaviour shaping or positive reinforcement

Select one:

1. Shifting the chid’s attention to another situation/action
2. A child centred empathetic specific response
3. Social stimuli such as positive facial expression or verbal praise
4. stickers or badges at the end of a successful appointment

Answer 70

1. Shifting the chid’s attention to another situation/action

Question 71

Identify the term which is now inaccurate and not used to describe child co-operation

Select one:

1. Pre co-operative
2. Potentially co-operative
3. co-operative
4. unco-operative

Answer 71

4. unco-operative

Question 72

Which of the following is not associated with physiological and somatic sensations associated with dental anxiety?

Select one:

1. Feelings of unease
2. Breathlessness
3. Nasal Blockage
4. Perspiration

Answer 72

3. Nasal Blockage

Question 73

Which of the following is the most effective technique to help a child cope when they have a blunting coping style?

Select one:

1. Show the child in great detail the equipment you will use.
2. Complete the treatment giving lots of explanations
3. Explain what will happen and then use distraction techniques.
4. Explain the treatment to the child in great detail

Answer 73

3. Explain what will happen and then use distraction techniques.

Question 74

Which of the following non verbal communications techniques have been shown to be ineffective?

Select one:

1. Smiling
2. Reinforcement
3. Child friendly environment
4. Reassurance non specific

Answer 74

4. Reassurance non specific

Question 75

Which following term should not be used while talking to children about their dental treatment?

Select one:

1. “tooth pillow”
2. “princess crown/robot tooth”
3. ” a wee jag”
4. superhero toothpaste

Answer 75

3. ” a wee jag”

Question 76

Which of the following is not associated with causing child dental anxiety?

Select one:

1. A difficult medical experience whilst receiving medical treatment or attending a medical appointment
2. A difficult dental experience whilst receving dental treatment or whilst attending the dentist
3. Parental dental anxiety
4. School Achievements

Answer 76

4. School Achievements

Question 77

Which of the following techniques requires further training prior to its use?

Select one:

1. Hypnosis
2. Enhanced control
3. Magic tricks
4. Systematic desensitisation

Answer 77

1. Hypnosis

Question 78

Which of the following helps to improve communication with a child?

Select one:

1. Getting down to the child’s level
2. Standing with your arms crossed
3. Talking only with the parent
4. Wearing goggles and a mask

Answer 78

1. Getting down to the child’s level

Question 79

Which following statement is true?

Select one:

1. A 4-year-old is unwilling to accept change
2. A 3-year-ols’s favourite word is “why”
3. A 5-year-old does not respond the flattery
4. A 2-year-old’s favourite word is “yes”

Answer 79

4. A 2-year-old’s favourite word is “yes”
   OR
5. A 3-year-ols’s favourite word is “why”

Question 80

Identify the correct order for needle desensitisation

Select one:

1. Explain L.A, Practice L.A., Teach Relaxation, Deliver L.A.
2. Practice L.A, Teach Relaxation, Explain L.A., Deliver L.A.
3. Teach Relaxation, Practice L.A, Explain L.A., Deliver L.A
4. Teach Relaxation, Explain L.A., Practice L.A. Deliver L.A.

Answer 80

4. Teach Relaxation, Explain L.A., Practice L.A. Deliver L.A.

Question 81

For a conventional light-cured resin fissure sealant which substance is used to etch the surface of the enamel prior to placement?

Select one:
A. Hydrogen Peroxide
B. 10% Nitric Acid
C. 18% Hydrochloric Acid
D. 35% Ortho-phosphoric Acid

Answer 81

D. 35% Ortho-phosphoric Acid

Question 82

How is isolation for moisture control best achieved whilst placing a fissure sealant?

Select one:
A. By use of rubber dam 
B. By use of a parotid shield
C. By use of a saliva ejector
D. By use of cotton wool rolls

Answer 82

A. By use of rubber dam

Question 83

When is the ideal time to fissure seal a first permanent molar?

Select one:
A. As soon as the tooth erupts
B. Between the ages of 8 and 10-years-old
C. When the tooth has erupted sufficiently to allow for adequate isolation/moisture control
D. When caries develops in other primary or permanent teeth

Answer 83

C. When the tooth has erupted sufficiently to allow for adequate isolation/moisture control

Question 84

Which of the following is not part of a preventive programme along with fissure sealing?

Select one:
A. Oral hygiene measures
B. Dietary advice/monitoring
C. Fluoride application
D. Preventive resin restorations

Answer 84

D. Preventive resin restorations

Question 85

Which is the most common material used for fissure sealant placement?

Select one:
A. BIS-GMA resins 
B. Glass ionomer cement
C. Resin modified glass ionomer
D. Amalgam

Answer 85

A. BIS-GMA resins

Question 86

Which factor does not need to be taken into account when deciding to place a fissure sealant on a first permanent molar in a 6-year-old?

Select one:
A. Clinical findings
B. Parental Dental Anxiety
C. Patient’s caries risk 
D. Radiographic findings

Answer 86

B. Parental Dental Anxiety

Question 87

Which of the following patient groups require regular fissure sealant placement?

Select one:
A. Children with caries in their primary dentition
B. Children with compromised medical histories
C. Children at risk of caries development
D. All of the above

Answer 87

D. All of the above

Question 88

After placement, fissure sealants should be checked for:

Select one:
A. Air bubbles 
B. Flash
C. Non-adherence
D. All of the above

Answer 88

D. All of the above

Question 89

How often should fissure sealants placed in a child of high caries risk be radiographically reviewed?

Select one:
A. Every 6 months 
B. Every 12 months
C. Every 18 months
D. Every 24 months

Answer 89

A. Every 6 months

Question 90

What is the major advantage of using a glass ionomer fissure sealant?

Select one:
A. It is more aesthetic
B. It sets quicker
C. It does not releases fluoride
D. It is easier to handle when moisture control is not ideal

Answer 90

D. It is easier to handle when moisture control is not ideal

Question 91

Which of the following should be used to clean the tooth prior to fissure sealant placement?

Select one:
A. Air and water
B. Pumice and water 
C. Diamond polishing paste
D. Toothpaste

Answer 91

B. Pumice and water

Question 92

How should the occlusal surface of the tooth appear after adequate acid-etching and drying?

Select one:
A. Smooth and shiny
B. Mottled
C. Blue
D. Chalky-white/frosted

Answer 92

D. Chalky-white/frosted

Question 93

Which instrument should be used to check the seal after placement?

Select one:
A. Flat plastic
B. Micro-brush
C. A sharp probe 
D. 3-in-1 tip

Answer 93

C. A sharp probe

Question 94

The IADT definition of ‘Concussion’ is:

Select one:
A. An injury to the tooth-supporting structures with displacement of the tooth and with pain to percussion
B. An injury to the tooth-supporting structures without increased mobility or displacement of the tooth and without pain to precussion
C. An injury to the tooth-supporting structures with increased mobility but no displacement of the tooth and with pain to precussion
D. An injury to the tooth-supporting structures without mobility or displacement of the tooth, but with pain to percussion

Answer 94

D. An injury to the tooth-supporting structures without mobility or displacement of the tooth, but with pain to percussion

Question 95

When examining a patient with dental trauma, which of the following is not a sign of brain injury requiring medical assessment?

Select one:
A. No Loss of consciousness 
B. Nausea
C. Amnesia
D. Vomitting

Answer 95

A. No Loss of consciousness

Question 96

When considering treatment of an avulsed primary tooth which of the following are true?

Select one:
A. The permanent successor is always damaged by the injury to a primary tooth
B. The patient requires to be followed up until eruption of the permanent successor
C. It should be reimplanted
D. Healing after avulsion is not dependent upon good oral hygiene

Answer 96

B. The patient requires to be followed up until eruption of the permanent successor

Question 97

A permanent tooth that has been subluxated if mobile should be?

Select one:
A. Splinted for 2 weeks 
B. Moved to another position
C. Extracted
D. Left to heal without treatment

Answer 97

A. Splinted for 2 weeks

Question 98

Treatment guidelines for an avulsed permanent tooth advise that:

Select one:
A. If a tooth cannot be reimplanted immediately, it should be stored in water
B. If a tooth cannot be reimplanted immediately, it should be stored in milk
C. Tap water should not be used to clean the tooth before it is reimplaned
D. It should only be handled by the root whilst preparing to reimplant the tooth

Answer 98

B. If a tooth cannot be reimplanted immediately, it should be stored in milk

Question 99

Treatment of the avulsed permanent tooth depends upon:

Select one:
A. What the tooth was stored in
B. How long the tooth was dry before being reimplanted
C. All of the these options
D. Whether the root apex is open or closed

Answer 99

C. All of the these options

Question 100

Treatment of a greater than 1 mm enamel-dentine-pulp fracture is best managed with a pulpotomy. Which of these is NOT part of this pulpotomy procedure?

Select one:
A. Apply calcium hydroxide or MTA
B. Access the pulp via the fracture site
C. Use of local anaesthesia
D. Remove all coronal pulp

Answer 100

D. Remove all coronal pulp

Question 101

Regarding the prognosis for a permanent tooth with an enamel-dentine-pulp fracture with a newly formed root, when looking at the statistical review, which of these is true 10 years after injury?

Select one:
A. The risk of tooth loss is 100%
B. The risk of tooth loss is 34% 
C. The risk of tooth loss is 12%
D. The risk of tooth loss is 0%

Answer 101

D. The risk of tooth loss is 0%

Question 102

Regarding the prognosis for a permanent tooth with a lateral luxation injury with stage 2 root formation and no associated crown fracture, when looking at the statistical review, which of these is true at 10 years after injury?

Select one:
A. The risk of surface resorption is 0%
B. The risk of pulp necrosis is 4.7%
C. The risk of bone loss is 11.2%
D. The risk of tooth loss is 3.4%

Answer 102

B. The risk of pulp necrosis is 4.7%

Question 103

Which following primary tooth injury has a clinical review time of 6 months?

Select one:

a. Avulsion
b. Concusion
c. Intrusive luxation
d. Subluxation

Answer 103

c. Intrusive luxation

Question 104

Which of the following permanent tooth injuries has a splinting time of 4 weeks?

Select one:

a. Extrusion
b. Root fracture (cervical 1/3)
c. Avulsion
d. Lateral luxation

Answer 104

d. Lateral luxation

Question 105

Which of the following is true of teeth with pulp canal obliteration?

Select one:

a. Avulsion injuries have a high rate of pulp canal obliteration
b. It usually indicates the presence of necrotic tissue
c. It occurs more freqenly in tooth which have suffered a mild luxation injury
d. It occurs more frequently in teeth with open apices

Answer 105

d. It occurs more frequently in teeth with open apices

Question 106

The Hall Technique is a novel method of managing carious primary molars. The technique involves cementing preformed metal crowns onto primary molars, please select which of the following is also involved with this technique:

Select one:
A. No use of local anaesthetic or caries removal with tooth preparation
B. No use of local anaesthetic or tooth preparation with caries removal
C. No use of local anaesthetic, caries removal or tooth preparation
D. No caries removal or tooth preparation with local anaesthetic

Answer 106

C. No use of local anaesthetic, caries removal or tooth preparation

Question 107

The Hall Technique requires careful case selection, which should be supplemented with the following full and effective caries prevention plan. Please select the correct preventive regime.

Select one:
A. Hygiene Phase Therapy, fluoride tablets, fissure sealants and diet advice
B. Brushing, fluoride tablets, fissure sealants and diet advice
C. Brushing, topical fluoride varnish, fissure sealants and diet advice
D. Hygiene phase therapy, topical fluoride varnish, fissure sealants and diet advice

Answer 107

C. Brushing, topical fluoride varnish, fissure sealants and diet advice

Question 108

Almost all caries begins at sites which collectively make up a tiny proportion of the total enamel available for colonisation. Please choose the correct sites:

Select one:
A. The base of fissures and just below the contact point of proximal surfaces
B. The top of the fissure and just above the contact point of proximal surfaces
C. The base of fissures and just above the contact point of the proximal surfaces
D. The top of the fissures and just below the contact point of proximal surfaces

Answer 108

A. The base of fissures and just below the contact point of proximal surfaces

Question 109

Which aspects of the Hall Crown Technique ensures it is effective for managing carious primary molars?

Select one:
A. The enamel/dentine junction has reparative potential and the inital seal helps plaque lose its cariogenic potential
B. The dentine/pulp complex has reparative potential and the inital seal helps plaque lose its cariogenic potential
C.
The dentine/pulp complex has reparative potential and a maintained seal helps plaque lose its cariogenic potential
D. The enamel/dentine junction has reparative potential and a maintained seal helps plaque lose its cariogenic potential

Answer 109

C.

The dentine/pulp complex has reparative potential and a maintained seal helps plaque lose its cariogenic potential

Question 110

What is the clinical evidence you would look for to confirm caries has arrested?

Select one:
A. A colour change to dark brown/black and soft to probe
B. A colour change to dark brown/black and hard to probe
C. A colour change to yellow/light brown and hard to probe
D. A colour change to yellow/light brown and soft to probe

Answer 110

B. A colour change to dark brown/black and hard to probe

Question 111

Indications for appropriate use of The Hall Technique include:

Select one:
A. Pulpal involvement
B. Bitewing radiographs 
C. Limited tooth structre remains
D. Poorly co-operative

Answer 111

B. Bitewing radiographs

Question 112

Which tools are classified as essential when using The Hall technique?

Select one:
A. Mirror, striaght probe, excavator, elastoplast, cotton wool roll
B. Mirror, straight probe, excavator, flat plastic and cotton wool roll
C. Mirror, excavator, flat plastic, gauze and cotton wool roll
D. Mirror, straight probe, flat plastic, gauze and cottol wool roll

Answer 112

B. Mirror, straight probe, excavator, flat plastic and cotton wool roll

Question 113

Which description below describes the correct design of The FICTION trial?

Select one:
A. Multicentre, 3 arm, split mouth, unblinded RCT
B. Multicentre, 3 arm, parallel group unblinded RCT
C. Multicentre, 2 arm, parallel groups, blinded RCT
D. Multicentre, 2 arm, split mouth, blinded RCT

Answer 113

Multicentre, 3 arm, parallel group unblinded RCT

Question 114

Which of the following are the correct methods to employ which enhance the safety of The Hall technique?

Select one:
A. Place the child in the upright position, use gauze and secure the crown with an elastoplast
B. Place the child in the supine position, use gauze and secure the crown with floss
C. Place the child in the upright position, use gauze and secure the crown with floss
D. Place the child in the supine position, use a gauze swab and secure the crown with an elastoplast

Answer 114

A. Place the child in the upright position, use gauze and secure the crown with an elastoplast

Question 115

What is recommended if the pre formed metal crown does not seat fully upon cementation?

Select one:
A. Use finger pressure and if this does not work adice it should seat fully eventually
B. Send the child home and advice it will hopefully fully seat eventually
C. Remove the crown immediately using a large excavator which is ready and within reach
D. Wait for the cement to set and then section the pre formed metal crown using a high speed

Answer 115

C. Remove the crown immediately using a large excavator which is ready and within reach

Question 116

What was the conclusion from The FICTION trial?

Select one:
A. A biological plus best practice prevention is less effective than best practice prevention or best practice prevention alone
B. A conventional plus best practice prevention is more effective then best pracice prevention alone or biologcal with best practice prevention
C. Best practice prevention alone is less effective than both biological and conventional techniques used in combination with best practice prevention
D. Best practice prevention alone is as effective as both biological and conventional techniques used in combination with best practice prevention

Answer 116

D. Best practice prevention alone is as effective as both biological and conventional techniques used in combination with best practice prevention