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paediatrics > 2020 MCQ > Flashcards

2020 MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

which of the following is a possible sign of physical child abuse:

1 child taken for care soon after injury
2 history of injury matches clinical findings
3 injuries consistent with developmental age of child
4 multiple injuries around the mouth
5 parent concerned about the possible long term consequences of injury

A

4 multiple injuries around the mouth

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2
Q

which of the following is an indication for primary molar Endodontics:

1 age 12 or over
2 cardiac disease
3 cellulitis
4 good cooperation
5 pus in pulp chamber
A

4 good cooperation

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3
Q

what is the maximum dose of paracetamol for a healthy patient to take over a 24 hour period

1g
2g
3g
4g
5g
A

4g

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4
Q

what index is used to measure periodontal health for epidemiological purposes

1 CPITN
2 dmft/DMFT
3 IOTN
4 PAR
5 TF
A

1 CPITN

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5
Q

which of the following findings is most likely to be found on extra oral examination of lymph nodes of a patient who has recently had a throat infection

1 enlarged deep cervical nodes only
2 enlarged parotid nodes only
3 enlargement of submandibular nodes only
4 enlargement of the submental, submandibular and deep cervical nodes
5 generalised lymph node enlargement

A

1 enlarged deep cervical nodes

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6
Q

which of the following community F delivery initiatives are in place across Scotland

1 fluoridated milk in nurseries and schools
2 fluoridation of nursery and school water supply
3 fluoridation of the public water supply
4 F mouth rinsing regimes in schools and nurseries
5 F varnish schemes in nurseries and schools

A

5 F varnish in school and nurseries

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7
Q

which of the following can be defined as an individuals belief that they can succeed at a particular task or behaviour

1 compliance
2 external locus of control
3 reasoned action
4 self efficacy
5 subjective norms
A

4 self efficacy

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8
Q

at re-evaluation what circumstances would periodontal surgery be indicated

1 excellent OH and pockets 5mm or more
2 excellent OH and pockets of 3-4 mm and increased tooth mobility
3 pockets of 7mm or more, irrespective of OH
4 poor OH and pockets of 5mm or more
5 poor OH and pockets of 3-4mm

A

1 excellent OH and pockets of 5mm or more

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9
Q

what is the “inverse care law” used to describe

1 area level of healthcare needs but is unrelated to access to care
2 areas least in need of good healthcare are least likely to receive it
3 areas most in need of good healthcare are least likely to receive it
4 areas most in need of good health care are most likely to receive it
5 level of access to care but is unrelated to level of healthcare needs

A

3 areas most in need of good healthcare are least likely to receive it

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10
Q

the approximate dimension of the biological width in healthy teeth is

1 0.5mm

  1. 1mm
  2. 2mm
  3. 3mm
  4. 3.5mm
A
  1. 2mm
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11
Q

The property of occlusal forces that the dentist is most able to influence through careful design of occlusal surfaces is

1 direction
2 duration
3 frequency
4 velocity
5 magnitude
A

1 direction

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12
Q

what percentage phosphoric acid is normally used to etch enamel prior to placing composite

  1. 17%
  2. 27%
  3. 37%
  4. 47%
  5. 57%
A
  1. 37%
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13
Q

In the development of dentinal caries, which of the following is the earliest observed event

  1. beading of tubules
  2. initial demineralisation
  3. invasion of pioneer bacteria
  4. liquefaction foci
  5. plural necrosis
A

3 invasion of pioneer bacteria

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14
Q

a fast irregular pulse in a patient who is suddenly acutely breathless would suggest

1 atrial fibrillation
2 congestive heart failure
3 deep vein thrombosis
4 left heart failure
5 ventricular fibrillation
A

1 atrial fibrillation

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15
Q

In relation to complete dentures, one of the principle objectives of jaw registration is

1 to determine the intermaxillary relationship in the ICP
2 to determine the inter maxillary relationship in the resting face height position
3 to determine the inter maxillary relationship in the RCP
4 to record the denture space
5 to record the freeway space

A

3 to determine the intermaxillary relationship in the RCP

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16
Q

In relation to the research findings: “among those who’ve never drank alcohol, cigarette smoking was associated with an increased risk of head and neck cancer (Odds ratio 2.13, 95% CI = 1.52 to 2.98)”, which of the following is true:

1 smoking doubles the risk of head and neck cancer in those who have never drunk alcohol
2 cigarette smoking halves the risk of head and neck cancer in those who have never drunk alcohol
3 cigarette smoking is not associated with increased risk of head and neck cancer in those who have never drunk alcohol
4 drinking alcohol is not associated with increased risk of head and neck cancer in those who smoke cigarettes
5 never drinking alcohol halves the risk of head and neck cancer among those who smoke cigarettes

A

1 smoking doubles the risk of head and neck cancer in those who have never drunk alcohol

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17
Q

in terms of medical devices, which statement best defines sterility

1 an instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in a thousand
2 an instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in 10 thousand
3 an instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in 100 thousand
4 an instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in a million
5 an instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 10 in a thousand

A

4 an instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in a million

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18
Q

what’s the documented incidence of permanent neurosensory damage to the inferior alveolar nerve following extraction of a “low risk” wisdom tooth

  1. <1%
  2. <5%
  3. <10%
  4. <15%
  5. <20%
A
  1. <10%
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19
Q

if treating a patient with a 7mm overjet and deep traumatic overbite, what instructions would be included in lab prescription

1 flat anterior bite plane 4mm wide
2 flat anterior bite plane 7mm wide
3 flat anterior bite plane 10mm wide
4 inclined anterior bite plane 7mm wide
5 inclined anterior bite plane 10mm wide
A

3 flat anterior bite plane 10mm wide

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20
Q

which of the following would be described as a peri operative complication

1 dry socket
2 ecchymosis
3 fracture of alveolar plate
4 oedema
5 trismus
A

3 fracture of alveolar plate

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21
Q

which of the following statements is true for childhood leukaemia

1 40% are Acute Lymphoblast Leukaemia (A.L.L)
2 female more than male
3 may present with gingival bleeding
4 peak age is 9-12
5 presents with primary herpes
A

3 may present with gingival bleeding

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22
Q

in orthodontics, anterior bite planes are used for

1 facilitating correction of an anterior cross bite
2 increasing the over bite
3 protecting brackets of a fixed appliance on lower incisors from the occlusal force of upper incisors
4 reducing the over bite
5 reducing the over jet

A

4 reducing the over bite

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23
Q

deamination of amino acids

1 generates the corresponding keto acids
2 only occurs when amino acid concentration is low
3 occurs at low pH
4 produces amine
5 produces CO2
A

1 generates the corresponding keto acids

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24
Q

when thinking about the potential of post op bleeding following a tooth extraction, which of the following would be regarded as a systemic haemostatic agent that could be provided to help alleviate bleeding

1 adrenaline containing LA
2 fibrin foam
3 oxidised regenerated cellulose
4 thrombin paste and powder
5 tranexamic acid
A

5 tranexamic acid

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25
Q

In relation to the Spaulding classification for medical devices

1 critical devices are those that contact only intact mucous membranes and must be sterilized
2 critical devices are those that contact only intact skin and must be sterilized
3 non critical devices are those that contact only intact skin and must be sterilized
4 semi critical devices are those that contact normally sterile tissue and must be sterilized
5 semi critical devices are those that contact only intact mucous membranes and should be sterilized

A

5 semi critical devices are those that contact only intact mucous membranes and should be sterilized

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26
Q

synthesis of extracellular polysaccharide in plaque formation is greatest when which one of the following sugars is present within the diet

1 fructose
2 glucose
3 lactose
4 mannose
5 sucrose
A

5 sucrose

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27
Q

in radiographic localisation, the acronym SLOB stands for

1 same lingual opposite buccal
2 simply lingual or buccal
3 some lingual others buccal
4 stay lingual or buccal
5 sure lingual or buccal
A

1 same lingual opposite buccal

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28
Q

the probability of photoelectric absorption effects occurring in radiography is proportional to

1 atomic number^3 (Z^3)
2 film speed 
3 kilovoltage^3
4 patient size
5 x ray technique
A

1 atomic number^3 (Z^3)

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29
Q

which of the following materials has the best mechanical properties for the restoration of occlusal surfaces

1 amalgam
2 composite
3 glass ionomer
4 gold
5 porcelain
A

4 gold

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30
Q

osteoporosis is a common finding in the elderly and can result in

1 an increased risk in lower vertebral fractures
2 an increased risk of maxillary fractures
3 Atlanto-occipital instability
4 calcification of the bones leading to stress fractutes
5 the inability to walk without a stick

A

1 an increased risk in lower vertebral fractures

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31
Q

which of the following is the best method of retaining a core when placing a crown

1 place a direct prefabricated post
2 use of adhesion only
3 use of dentine pins
4 use an indirect cast post
5 using the pulp chamber and coronal root canal morphology to retain a plastic material
A

2 use of adhesion only

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32
Q

which of the following spaces would be most common for an acute abscess to track from an upper lateral incisor tooth

1 buccal
2 infraorbital
3 palatal
4 parapharyngeal
5 submental
A

1 buccal

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33
Q

during root canal instrumentation of a sclerosed canal, which one of the following provides greatest benefit in making exploration easier

1 APF
2 EDTA
3 sodium hypochlorite
4 sterline saline
5 water
A

2 EDTA

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34
Q

the correct degree of axial-tapering an ideal crown prep is

  1. 1 degree
  2. 7 degrees
  3. 12 degrees
  4. 15 degrees
  5. 20 degrees
A
  1. 7 degrees
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35
Q

the main supplement or drug taken to reduce disability associated with osteoarthritis is

1 bisphosphonates
2 calcium supplements
3 NSAIDs
4 prednisolone
5 Vit D
A

3 NSAIDs

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36
Q

the personnel involved in a dental radiographic exam occur in the following order

1 operator, practitioner, referrer
2 practitioner, operator, referrer
3 practitioner, referrer, operator
4 referrer, operator, practitioner
5 referrer, practitioner, operator
A

5 referrer, practitioner, operator

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37
Q

the most likely reason for an elderly patient to feel faint when made to sit rapidly from lying flat is

1 angiotensin II insensitivity
2 increased baroreceptor response
3 poorly maintained blood glucose
4 reduced baroreceptor response
5 reduced renal renin release
A

4 reduced baroreceptor response

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38
Q

which of the following is true in relation to IRMER17

1 a member of the DCPs, other than a dentist, may act as the referrer
2 exposures may be carried out without justification
3 the employer must justify every exposure
4 the operator refers only to one person
5 the practitioner must justify every exposure

A

5 the practitioner must justify every exposure

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39
Q

which of the following is the most downstream approach that could help reduce dental caries in the child population

1 delivery of dental practise based one to one chair side advice and clinical prevention
2 nursery and school based healthy food policies
3 universal nursery and school toothbrushing programmes
4 sugar tax
5 community based parenting groups supporting healthy eating and brushing

A

1 delivery of dental practise based one to one chair side advice and clinical prevention

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40
Q

a 25 year old with severe intellectual disability, attends your practice, accompanied by his carers. He needs several restorations and an extraction. under current SCOTTISH legislation who can consent on his behalf

1 assignee
2 carer
3 welfare guardian
4 either parent
5 welfare power of attorney
A

3 welfare guardian

41
Q

how would you classify a fracture of the facial bones that involves a segment of the alveolus as well as the associated teeth in that segment

1 avulsion
2 dentoavleolar fracture
3 extrusion
4 luxation
5 root fracture
A

2 dentoalveolar fracture

42
Q

which difference is NOT a varying temperature regulation in children compared to adults

1 brown fat metabolism
2 immature response to hypothermia
3 large head surface area and heat loss
4 low surface area to body weight ratio
5 require a higher temperature for a therm-neutral environment
A

4 low surface area to body weight ratio

43
Q

when preparing an upper first permanent molar for a metal ceramic crown, a functional cusp bevel should be placed on which cusp

1 cusp of carabelli
2 disto buccal
3 disto palatal
4 mesio buccal
5 mesio palatal
A

5 mesio palatal

44
Q

what is the correct colour of Rinn film holder to use when taking a conventional periapical radiograph of tooth 26

1 black
2 blue
3 green
4 red
5 yellow
A

5 yellow

45
Q

The fit surface of a porcelain laminate veneer is prepared with the following acid

1 citric
2 hydrochloric
3 hydrofluoric
4 phosphoric
5 nitric
A

3 hydrofluoric

46
Q

following dental trauma, the most likely place to find a missing tooth fragment is

1 in left main lung bronchi
2 in right main lung bronchi
3 in soft tissues
4 in stomach
5 out of body
A

3 in soft tissues

47
Q

haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of

1 factor V
2 factor VIII
3 factor IX
4 factor X
5 Vitamin K
A

2 factor VIII

48
Q

the process of blinding or masking the outcome assessor in a RCT helps to minimise

1 the confidence intervals
2 the risk of bias
3 the risk ratio
4 the sample size
5 variation between individuals
A

2 the risk of bias

49
Q

what is the recommended treatment for an extrusion injury in the primary dentition

1 extract the tooth
2 reposition the tooth with forceps and splint for 2 weeks
3 reposition the tooth with forceps and splint for 4 weeks
4 reposition the tooth with gentle finger pressure and splint for 2 weeks
5 reposition the tooth with gentle finger pressure and splint for 4 weeks

A

4 reposition the tooth with gentle finger pressure and splint for 2 weeks

50
Q

what is the first line blood test to check for presence of anaemia

1 FBC
2 intrinsic factor
3 liver function tests (LFT)
4 thyroid function tests (TFT)
5 Urea and Electrolytes (Us&Es)
A

1 FBC

51
Q

which of the following substance is active against bacteria, fungi, yeasts and viruses

1 amoxicillin
2 chlorhexidine
3 hydrated silica
4 metronidazole
5 stannous fluoride
A

2 chlorhexidine

52
Q

what study design provides the highest level of evidence for the following research question: is ibuprofen and paracetamol more effective than paracetamol alone in pain relief after surgical removal of lower wisdom teeth

1 case control
2 cohort
3 cross sectional
4 matched pair
5 randomised control trial
A

5 randomised control trial

53
Q

a 44 year old male reports that he consumes 14 units of alcohol per week. This is consumed over 2 days. What advice should you give him

1 he is consuming less than the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol and doesnt require cessation advice
2 he is consuming less than the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol but should be encouraged to spread his consumption out over five days with two alcohol free days
3 he is consuming more than the recommended maximum units of alcohol but should be encouraged to reduce his consumption
4 he is consuming the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol and doesnt require cessation advice
5 he is consuming the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol but should be encouraged to spread out these over five days with two alcohol free days

A

5 he is consuming the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol but should be encouraged to spread out these over five days with two alcohol free days

54
Q

when undertaking RCT, what inter visit regimen should generally be utilised within the root canal

1 gutta percha point
2 hard setting CaOH
3 Non setting CaOH
4 paper point with sterile saline
5 Zinc oxide and eugenol
A

3 non setting CaOH

55
Q

concerning prenatal facial and skull growth, which of the following statements is true

1 both the maxilla and mandible develop by endochondrial ossification and are preceded by a cartilaginous facial skeleton
2 meckel’s cartilage and the nasal capsule are considered secondary cartilages
3 ossification of the face and skull commence at about 8-9 weeks intra uterine
4 the neurocranium encases the brain and the viserocranium of the face
5 the vault of the skull is formed by endochondrial ossification

A

4 the neurocranium encases the brain and the viserocranium of the face

56
Q

elastomers can reproduce surface features of width

  1. 1um
  2. 2um
  3. 5um
  4. 10um
  5. 20um
A
  1. 20um
57
Q

you are a dentist at general practice and are required to provide a new upper denture for an 80 year old woman with dementia who lacks capacity to consent. You have attended an additional Section 47, AWI Course allowing you to complete section 47 AWI forms
How would you best proceed

1 complete a section 47 AWI form and provide treatment
2 consult the continuing power of attorney, complete a section 47 AWI form and provide treatment
3 consult the welfare Power of Attorney and provide Treatment
4 consult the welfare power of attorney, complete a section 47 AWI form and provide treatment
5 provide treatment

A

4 consult the welfare power of attorney, complete a section 47 AWI form and provide treatment

58
Q

an 68 year old female is taking alendronic acid for osteoporosis. This is the only medication she is prescribed and otherwise is fit and well. She attends general dental services and requires a non- surgical tooth extraction. How should this pt be managed

1 extract the tooth
2 extract the tooth and review the pt 4 weeks later
3 extract the tooth, prescribe post op antibiotics and review the patient 4 weeks later
4 prescribe antibiotics tube taken 1 week prior to the extraction, extract the tooth and review the pt 4 weeks later
5 refer the patient to a secondary care service

A

2 extract the tooth and review the pt 4 weeks later

59
Q

hypothyroid patients will usually be found to have

1 high T4 and high TSH
2 high T4 and low TSH
3 low T3 and low TSH
4 low T4 and high TSH
5 low T4 and low TSH
A

4 low T4 and high TSH

60
Q

when positioning a patient for a panoramic radiograph, which anatomical reference should be horizontal

1 ala tragus line
2 corner of mouth - angle of mandible
3 corner of mouth - tragus line
4 Frankfort plane
5 lower border of mandible
A

4 Frankfort plane

61
Q

how often should test film be exposed and processed in GDP for quality assurance

1 twice daily
2 daily
3 every two days
4 weekly
5 every two weeks
A

2 daily

62
Q

the primary aim of a clinical audit is to

1 ensure clinical Practice is based on traditional techniques
2 gather information on clinical care
3 improve health economics
4 improve pt care and outcomes
5 obtain evidence for use in disciplinary procedure

A

4 improve pt care and outcomes

63
Q

a 76 year old women fell in her garden and sustained a minor head injury. twelve days llater she has become increasingly confused and unable to walk. clinical imaging reveals an intracranial haemorrhage. Which of the following vessels is most likely to have bled

1 cavernous sinus
2 middle cerebral artery
3 middle meningeal artery
4 ophthalmic vein
5 superior cerebral vein
A

5 superior cerebral vein

64
Q

a class III antero-posterior relationship is defined as

1 the mandible is 2-3mm behind the maxilla
2 the mandible is 2-3mm in front of the maxilla
3 the mandible is less than 2-3mm behind the maxilla, or in front of the maxilla
4 the mandible is more than 2-3mm in front of the maxilla
5 the mandible is more than 2-3mm behind the maxilla

A

3 the mandible is less than 2-3mm behind the maxilla, or in front of the maxilla

65
Q

if a site has a probing depth of 7mm and the gingival margin is location 2mm coronal to the ACJ, the loss of attachment is equal to

  1. 2mm
  2. 3mm
  3. 5mm
  4. 7mm
  5. 9mm
A
  1. 5mm
66
Q

which statement is correct regarding children with cystic fibrosis

1 diabetes is an early complication of the condition
2 obstruction of the pancreatic duct prevents the movement on amylase into the intestine
3 they have a lower than average risk of developing dental erosion
4 they should not eat a carbohydrate risk diet
5 thick mucus prevents the proper movement of cilia in the respiratory tract

A

5 thick mucus prevents the proper movement of cilia in the respiratory tract

67
Q

a 42 year old female with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, who is dependent upon a wheelchair, wants to attend your dental practice for her oral healthcare. You work in a practice which is situated on the third level up from ground which is only accessible by stairs. How should you manage the situation

1 install a lift to facilitate access to the practice
2 refer the patient to another practice or the public dental service which has access for wheelchair users
3 tell a colleague in your practice that she must go and visit the patient as a domiciliary visit
4 tell the patient she will have to climb the stairs if she wishes to attend the practice
5 tell the patient that your practice would not be suitable for her

A

2 refer the patient to another practice or the public dental service which has access for wheelchair users

68
Q

a 60 year old male attends your dental practice 6 months after completing radiotherapy for his left tonsillar tumour. He is attending complaining of dry mouth. He wears a maxillary complete denture and has 10 mandibular teeth. You decide to prescribe a saliva substitute. Which of the following should you not prescribe to him

1 Biotene Oralbalance gel
2 BioXtra gel
3 Glandosane aerosol spray
4 Saliva Orthana spray
5 Xerotin oral spray
A

2 BioXtra gel

as it is the only one that contains sugar

69
Q

a 23 year old female with Type 1 Von Willebrand’s disease requires the extraction of 3 molar teeth. Which of the following medications will she require prior to removing these teeth

1 Desmopressin (DDAVP)
2 Factor eight inhibitor bypassing activity (FEIBA)
3 Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
4 Platelets
5 Vitamin K
A

1 desmopressin (DDAVP)

since type 1 is mild

70
Q

patients with rheumatoid arthritis can have difficulty in holding a toothbrush due to the destruction of the

1 cuneavicular joints
2 distal interphalangeal joints
3 metacarpaophalangeal joints
4 metatarsophalangeal joints
5 proximal interphalangeal joints
A

3 metacarpaophalangeal joints

71
Q

what dental problem is specifically associated in children with severe cerebral palsy

1 bruxism
2 good manual dexterity
3 hypodontia
4 laxity of the masticatory muscles
5 smaller than average tooth size
A

1 bruxism

72
Q

what is the most likely processing fault resulting in a radiographic image that is too dark

1 developer solution too dilute
2 temperature of fixer too low
3 temperature of developer too low
4 too much time in developer
5 too much time in fixer
A

4 too much time in developer

73
Q

a fit and healthy patient attends your practice for the first time. He presents with poor plaque control, generalised gingival erythema and bleeding on gentle probing. There is no evidence of attachment loss. the most appropriate first line of treatment would be

1 OHI
2 prescribe CHX mouthwash
3 prescribe metronidazole
4 root surface debridement
5 scale and polish
A

1 OHI

74
Q

when positioning a patient for an upper anterior oblique occlusal radiograph, which anatomical reference is used to assess the occlusal plane

1 ala tragus line
2 corner of mouth-angle of mandible
3 corner of the mouth-tragus line
4 Frankfort plane
5 inter pupillary line
A

1 ala tragus line

anatomical reference that best represents the occlusal plane

75
Q

a 17 year old man has sustained a deep cut over the posterior part of the body of the mandible on the left side of his face. The facial artery and the submandibular salivary gland were not damaged. The wound has been sutured. which of the following clinical tests would be the most appropriate to carry out:
Ask the patient to

1 elevate shoulders
2 protrude tongue
3 say "Ahh"
4 test sensation of the face
5 whistle
A

4 test sensation of the face

76
Q

what is Christensen’s phenomenon

1 a gap that appears between the anterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when the mandible is protruded
2 a gap that appears between the posterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when the mandible is protruded
3 a gap that appears in between posterior teeth in the retruded contact positon
4 a gap that appears in the natural dentition between the anterior teeth when the mandible is protruded
5 a gap that appears in the natural dentition between posterior teeth when the mandible is protruded

A

2 a gap that appears between the posterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when the mandible is protruded

77
Q

A lateral cephalometric radiograph is taken for a patient requiring the following orthodontic treatment

1 a simple removable appliance
2 correcting unilateral crossbite
3 functional appliance therapy
4 moving a buccal placed canine into the arch
5 moving and upper lateral incisor over the bite

A

3 functional appliance therapy

78
Q

the principal radiographic sign of occlusal trauma is

1 fracture of the tooth root
2 horizontal bone loss
3 narrowing of the PDL space
4 vertical bone loss
5 widening of the PDL space
A

5 widening of the PDL space

79
Q

what would be the most appropriate post surgical advice to a patient who has just had a tooth extraction

1 avoid eating until the effect of the anaesthetic has worn off
2 heavy manual work can be performed on the day
3 pain killers will always be required
4 smoking has no significant effect on the healing process
5 start rinsing within six hours of the extraction with warm salty water

A

1 avoid eating until the effect of the anaesthetic has worn off

80
Q

a patient returns to the clinic one week following removal of a lower wisdom tooth. They describe a sharp, shooting, painful sensation affecting their lower lip. Which of the following terms describes this

1 anaesthesia
2 dyaesthesia
3 hyperaesthesia
4 hypoaesthesia
5 paraesthesia
A

2 dyaesthesia

81
Q

a patient previously prescribed warfarin has now been prescribed a medication which directly inhibits thrombin
he requires extraction of teeth 44, 45, 46 and 47. he has an appointment on Monday at 0900 to have all of these teeth removed. what instructions would you give him in relation to his medication

1 delay your scheduled morning dose of apixaban until 4 hours after haemostatis has been achieved, then take you normal evening dose
2 delay your scheduled morning dose of dabigatran until 4 hours after haemostats has been achieved and then take your normal evening dose
3 delay your scheduled morning dose of rivaroxiban and take the medication 4 hours after haemostasis has been achieved
4 miss your scheduled morning dose of apixaban and take the medication as normal in the evening
5 miss your scheduled morning dose of dabigatran and take the medication as normal in the evening

A

5 miss your scheduled morning dose of dabigatran and take the medication as normal in the evening

(evening dose should be at least 4 hours after haemostasis has been achieved)

82
Q

select the statement that best describes alcohol hand rubs/gels

1 are effective against spores of C difficile
2 can be used as a substitute for glove wearing
3 commonly cause adverse reactions
4 has no effect on transient microorganisms
5 only effective when hands are visibly clean

A

5 only effective when hands are visibly clean

83
Q

which of the following micro-organisms is most common responsible for venous cannula related infections

1 herpes simplex virus
2 salmonella typhimurium
3 staphylococcus epidermis
4 streptococcus aureus
5 streptococcus mutans
A

3 staphylococcus epidermis

84
Q

a 31 year old male with cerebral palsy requires two restorations. he uses a wheelchair and is unable to weight bear. To facilitate his access to a dental chair which would be the most suitable adjuvant to use

1 banana board
2 sling and hoist
3 sling and stand aid
4 treat the patient in his own wheelchair
5 turn table
A

2 sling and hoist

85
Q

a 60 year old male presents to your general dental practice. he has been living with a diagnosis of myeloma for 3 years. He presents to your clinic with an area of exposed bone in the lower right posterior aspect of the mandible which has been present for 10 weeks following a tooth extraction. What is the most likely diagnosis

1 medication induced oral ulceration
2 medication related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ)
3 odontogenic keratocyst
4 osteomyelitis of the mandible
5 radiation induced osteonecrosis of the jaw (ORN)

A

5 radiation induced osteonecrosis of the jaw (ORN)

86
Q

the ideal detergent for use in a washer disinfector should have a pH closest to

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9
  5. 10
A
  1. 7
87
Q

an 83 year old woman was eating salmon and thinks that a fish bone has stuck in her throat. She is able to speak, and no bone is visible on oral examination. At which site is the fishbone most likely to have lodged

1 glottis
2 opening of the auditory tube
3 pharyngeal recess
4 piriform fossa
5 tonsillar fossa
A

4 piriform fossa

88
Q

a dental radiograph shows the pterygoid hamulus. Of which bone is the pterygoid hamulus a component

1 maxilla
2 palatine
3 sphenoid
4 temporal
5 vomer
A

3 sphenoid

89
Q

In the most common form of dementia, which protein is though to have a key pathological role

1 collagen
2 elastin
3 fibrin
4 tau protein
5 tubulin
A

4 tau protein

90
Q

intra oral charge coupled devide (CCD) digital x ray sensors

1 are less sensitive to X rays than F speed film
2 are more sensitive to X rays than F speed film
3 must always be protected from red safelight
4 must always be protected from white light
5 typically demonstrate wide lattitude

A

2 are more sensitive to X rays than F speed film

91
Q

which of these bacteria is associated with periodontitis

1 eschericha coli
2 pasteurella multocida
3 porphyromonas gingivalis
4 staphylococcus aureus
5 streptococcus oralis
A

3 porphyromonas gingivalis

92
Q

which of the following statements is correct

1 Candida albicans biofilms are sensitive to caspofungin
2 candida elaborate biofilms are sensitive to itraconazole
3 porphyromonas gingivalis biofilms are sensitive to fluconazole

A

1 Candida albicans biofilms are sensitive to caspofungin

93
Q

which of the following would be considered an intravenous bisphosphonate drug that may cause complications following a routine dental extraction

1 alendronic acid
2 disodium etitdronate
3 risedronate sodium
4 sodium clodronate
5 zoledronic acid
A

5 zoledronic acid

94
Q

which of the following applies to flap design

1 smaller flap should be used as they heal quicker
2 the apex of the flap should be wider than the base
3 the base of the flap should be wider than the apex
4 the height of the flap should always exceed that of the base
5 there should always be two vertical incisions

A

3 the base of the flap should be wider than the apex

95
Q

all healthcare workers, including members of the dental team, should be immunised against

1 hepatitis B
2 hepatitis C
3 human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
4 herpes simplex virus (HSV)
5 herpes zoster virus (HZV)
A

1 hepatitis B

96
Q

in addition to using mercury vapour suppressant, how would you safely dispose of waste amalgam

1 aspirate into the central suction unit
2 dispose of in yellow sharps container
3 double wrap and place in clinical waste bag
4 flush down the sink or toilet
5 place in spill proof, leak proof container

A

5 place in spill proof, leak proof container

97
Q

what is the correct colour of Rinn film holder to use when taking bitewing radiographs

1 black
2 blue
3 green
4 red
5 yellow
A

4 red

98
Q

weakness of the lower facial muscles and upper limb on the same side starting suddenly during treatment would suggest that the patient has had a

1 bells palsy
2 hypoglycaemic episode
3 myocardial infarction
4 transient ischaemic attack
5 vasovagal attack
A

4 transient ischaemic attack

99
Q

in dental panoramic radiography, which of the following statements is true

1 a protective lead apron should be worn by the patient
2 horizontal distortion of the teeth is not influenced by a patient positioning
3 patient positioning is facilitated by ear rods
4 the x ray beam is aimed upwards approximately 8 degrees
5 the X ray tube head passes around the front of the patient’s head

A

4 the x ray beam is aimed upwards approximately 8 degrees

paediatrics (8 decks)

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