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general revision > paeds and orthodontics > Flashcards

paeds and orthodontics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of subluxation?

a. loss of a tooth from the socket which is then replaced within that socket
b. loosening of the tooth within the socket without any displacement
c. injury to the supporting tissues of a tooth without displacement
d. injury to supporting tissues of a tooth with displacement
e. trauma causing fracture of alveolar bone leading to displacement

A

B - subluxation is loosening of a tooth within the socket without any displacement.

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2
Q

A panicking mother informs you that her 3 year old’s upper central has been avulsed.
What advice would you give her?

a. store the tooth in milk and bring to surgery immediately
b. store the tooth in cold water and bring child to the surgery
c. advise to reinsert the tooth into the socket, apply pressure and attend the surgery
d. attend the surgery immediately with the tooth but with no special precautions with storage
e. store the tooth in chlorhexidine mouthwash and attend the surgery

A

D - attend the surgery with no special precautions for storage of the tooth.

This is because you don’t re-implant primary teeth but it is important to check that the entire tooth has been avulsed and if there has been any other injuries.

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3
Q

A 13 year old presents with a retained ULC where the successor is not palpable.
What would be the most appropriate investigation?

a. OPG and PA
b. PA
c. vitality test of deciduous canine
d. OPG
e. lateral cephalogram

A

A - OPG and PA

Known as the parallax technique, enables you to assess whether the missing tooth is placed buccally or palatally.

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4
Q

Which of the following describes the Frankfort plane?

a. distance between upper and lower incisors in the vertical plane
b. line joining porion (superior aspect of the EAM), with orbitale (lowermost point of bony orbit)
c. distance between the upper and lower incisors in horizontal plane
d. line joining nasion (most anterior point on frontonasal suture) with orbitale (lowermost point of bony orbit)
e. line joining porion (superior aspect of EAM) with naison (most anterior point on frontonasal suture)

A

B - line between porion and orbitale

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5
Q

A child presents with a mid-third root fracture on his UR1. You choose to splint this tooth and the mother asks how long the splint will be on the teeth.

You reply:

a. 1 week
b. 1 month
c. 2-3 months
d. 6 months
e. 1 year

A

C - 2-3 months

The fracture is unlikely to have calcified by 1 month and if left on for more than 3 months, chance of ankylosis is increased.

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6
Q

Which of the following statements regarding deciduous vs permanent molars is correct?

a. deciduous have thinner enamel, less bulbous crowns and larger pulp horns
b. deciduous have thinner enamel, more bulbous crowns and smaller pulp horns
c. deciduous have thinner enamel, less bulbous crowns and smaller pulp horns
d. deciduous have thicker enamel, less bulbous crowns and larger pulp horns
e. deciduous have thinner enamel, more bulbous crown and larger pulp horns

A

E - thinner enamel, more bulbous crowns and large pulp horns

(think the greater bulbousity makes it more difficult to place a matrix band)

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7
Q

Failure of fusion of which of the following leads to formation of a cleft LIP?

a. lateral palatal shelves and primary nasal process
b. maxillary processes and median nasal process
c. maxillary process and lateral palatal shelves
d. mandibular processes and maxillary processes
e. lateral palatal shelves and median nasal processes

A

B - max process and MEDIAN nasal process

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8
Q

Pts with cleft palate often have which skeletal relationship?

a. class I
b. class II div 1
c. class II div 2
d. class II div 1 or class II div 2
e. class III

A

E - class III

Due to the failure of the maxilla to grow in proportion with the rest of the face.

(maxilla is often smaller than the mandible - think oliver looks like isaac)

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9
Q

A 15 year old patient who is still a thumb sucker attends your surgery for an ortho assessment.
Which malocclusion is she likely to have?

a. posterior open bite
b. anterior open bite
c. increased overbite
d. median diastema
e. class III skeletal relationship

A

B - anterior open bite

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10
Q

At which age should you try to locate the upper canines?

a. 6 years
b. 8 years
c. 10 years
d. 13 years
e. 16 years

A

C - 10 y/o

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11
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of a median diastema?

a. normal development
b. microdontia
c. hypodontia
d. lingual frenum
e. midline supernumerary

A

D - lingual frenum

(as this has no impact on upper incisors)

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12
Q

Which of the following is a side effect of phenytoin?

a. staining
b. gingival hyperplasia
c. mental retardation
d. taurodontism
e. hutchinson’s incisors

A

B - gingival hyperplasia

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13
Q

What is the angulation of the Frankfort plane?

a. 91º
b. 97º
c. 109º
d. 119º
e. 126º

A

C - 109º

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14
Q

At what age is the maxillary first permanent premolar expected to erupt?

a. 5-6 years
b. 6-7 years
c. 10-11 years
d. 11-12 years
e. 12-13 years

A

C - 10-11 years

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15
Q

At what age is the maxillary first permanent molar expected to erupt?

a. 5-6 years
b. 6-7 years
c. 10-11 years
d. 11-12 years
e. 12-13 years

A

B - 6-7 years

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16
Q

At what age is the mandibular second premolar expected to erupt?

a. 5-6 years
b. 6-7 years
c. 10-11 years
d. 11-12 years
e. 12-13 years

A

D - 11-12 years

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17
Q

At what age is the mandibular first permanent molar expected to erupt?

a. 5-6 years
b. 6-7 years
c. 10-11 years
d. 11-12 years
e. 12-13 years

A

A - 5-6 years

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18
Q

At what age is the mandibular second permanent molar expected to erupt?

a. 5-6 years
b. 6-7 years
c. 10-11 years
d. 11-12 years
e. 12-13 years

A

E - 12-13 years

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19
Q

At what age is the maxillary deciduous central incisor expected to erupt?

a. 6-7 months
b. 7-8 months
c. 12-15 months
d. 15-18 months
e. 24-36 months

A

A - 6-7 months

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20
Q

At what age is the mandibular deciduous lower canine expected to erupt?

a. 6-7 months
b. 7-8 months
c. 12-15 months
d. 15-18 months
e. 24-36 months

A

D - 15-18 months

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21
Q

At what age is the maxillary deciduous lateral incisor expected to erupt?

a. 6-7 months
b. 7-8 months
c. 12-15 months
d. 15-18 months
e. 24-36 months

A

B - 7-8 months

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22
Q

At what age is the mandibular deciduous first molar expected to erupt?

a. 6-7 months
b. 7-8 months
c. 12-15 months
d. 15-18 months
e. 24-36 months

A

C - 12-15 months

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23
Q

At what age is the maxillary deciduous second molar expected to erupt?

a. 6-7 months
b. 7-8 months
c. 12-15 months
d. 15-18 months
e. 24-36 months

A

E - 24-26 months

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24
Q

The loss of a tooth from its socket, which is replaced in the same socket.

a. concussion
b. intrusion
c. reimplantation
d. subluxation
e. transplantation

A

C - reimplantation

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25
Q

The removal of a tooth from its socket which is then placed in another position within the mouth.

a. concussion
b. intrusion
c. reimplantation
d. subluxation
e. transplantation

A

E - transplantation

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26
Q

The loosening of a tooth within its socket without any displacement.

a. concussion
b. intrusion
c. reimplantation
d. subluxation
e. transplantation

A

D - subluxation

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27
Q

Injury to the supporting tissues without any displacement of the tooth.

a. concussion
b. intrusion
c. reimplantation
d. subluxation
e. transplantation

A

A - concussion

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28
Q

The displacement of a tooth into its socket.

a. concussion
b. intrusion
c. reimplantation
d. subluxation
e. transplantation

A

B - intrusion

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29
Q

In the event of the extrusion of a maxillary permanent central incisor, how long would the tooth be splinted for?

a. 1-2 weeks
b. 2-3 weeks
c. 3-5 weeks
d. 9-12 weeks
e. do not splint

A

A - 1-2 weeks

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30
Q

In the event of an avulsion of a maxillary deciduous central incisor, how long would you splint the tooth for?

a. 1-2 weeks
b. 2-3 weeks
c. 3-5 weeks
d. 9-12 weeks
e. do not splint

A

E - do not splint

(deciduous teeth aren’t splinted)

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31
Q

In the event of the luxation of a mandibular permanent canine, how long would the tooth be splinted for?

a. 1-2 weeks
b. 2-3 weeks
c. 3-5 weeks
d. 9-12 weeks
e. do not splint

A

B - 2-3 weeks

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32
Q

In the event of the subluxation of a mandibular permanent lateral incisor with associated alveolar bone fracture but no comminution, how long should the tooth be splinted for?

a. 1-2 weeks
b. 2-3 weeks
c. 3-5 weeks
d. 9-12 weeks
e. do not splint

A

C - 3-5 weeks

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33
Q

How long would a maxillary permanent central incisor be splinted for if it had suffered a middle 1/3 root fracture?

a. 1-2 weeks
b. 2-3 weeks
c. 3-5 weeks
d. 9-12 weeks
e. do not splint

A

D - 9-12 weeks

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34
Q

The process of influencing behaviour towards a desired ideal.

a. behaviour shaping
b. desensitisation
c. modelling
d. reinforcement
e. tell, show, do

A

A - behaviour shaping

35
Q

Describing the treatment to be performed, visually demonstrating it, following by performing the treatment on the child.

a. behaviour shaping
b. desensitisation
c. modelling
d. reinforcement
e. tell, show, do

A

E - tell, show, do

36
Q

The strengthening of a pattern of behaviour which increases the probability that the behaviour will be displayed in the future.

a. behaviour shaping
b. desensitisation
c. modelling
d. reinforcement
e. tell, show, do

A

D - reinforcement

37
Q

A 3 stage process: first training the patient to relax, second constructing a hierarchy of fear producing stimuli related to the patient’s principal fear and then introducing the stimulus in the relaxed patient until it causes no fear.

a. behaviour shaping
b. desensitisation
c. modelling
d. reinforcement
e. tell, show, do

A

B - desensitisation

38
Q

Letting a child watch another child have dental treatment to show that there is nothing for them to fear.

a. behaviour shaping
b. desensitisation
c. modelling
d. reinforcement
e. tell, show, do

A

C - modelling

39
Q

The most prominent point over the frontal bone.

a. glabella
b. gnathion
c. maxillary plane
d. point A
e. point B
f. sella

A

A - glabella

40
Q

The most anterior and inferior point on the bony chin.

a. glabella
b. gnathion
c. maxillary plane
d. point A
e. point B
f. sella

A

B - gnathion

41
Q

The plane though the anterior nasal spine and the posterior nasal spine.

a. glabella
b. gnathion
c. maxillary plane
d. point A
e. point B
f. sella

A

C - maxillary plane

42
Q

The midpoint of the sella turcica.

a. glabella
b. gnathion
c. maxillary plane
d. point A
e. point B
f. sella

A

F - sella

43
Q

The deepest point on the mandibular profile between pogonion and the alveolar crest.

a. glabella
b. gnathion
c. maxillary plane
d. point A
e. point B
f. sella

A

E - point B

44
Q

The projection on a lateral skull radiograph of the posterior outline of the condylar process on the inferior outline of the cranial base.

a. articulare
b. frankfort plane
c. gonion
d. mandibular plane
e. porion

A

A - articulare

45
Q

The most posterior and inferior point at the angle of the mandible.

a. articulare
b. frankfort plane
c. gonion
d. mandibular plane
e. porion

A

C - gonion

46
Q

The plane though menton which forms a tangent to the inferior border of the angle of the mandible.

a. articulare
b. frankfort plane
c. gonion
d. mandibular plane
e. porion

A

D - mandibular plane

47
Q

The plane passing though orbitale and porion.

a. articulare
b. frankfort plane
c. gonion
d. mandibular plane
e. porion

A

B - frankfort plane

48
Q

The uppermost point on the EAM.

a. articulare
b. frankfort plane
c. gonion
d. mandibular plane
e. porion

A

E - porion

49
Q

An enamel-lined invagination sometimes present on the palatal surface of upper incisors.

a. dens in dente
b. microdontia
c. oligodontia
d. supernumerary teeth
e. supplemental teeth

A

A - dens in dente

50
Q

Abnormally small teeth, often the last of a series.

a. dens in dente
b. microdontia
c. oligodontia
d. supernumerary teeth
e. supplemental teeth

A

B - microdontia

51
Q

The developmental absence of a number of teeth.

a. dens in dente
b. microdontia
c. oligodontia
d. supernumerary teeth
e. supplemental teeth

A

C - oligodontia

52
Q

Teeth in excess of the usual number, usually of abnormal form.

a. dens in dente
b. microdontia
c. oligodontia
d. supernumerary teeth
e. supplemental teeth

A

D - supernumerary teeth

53
Q

Supernumerary teeth resembling normal teeth.

a. dens in dente
b. microdontia
c. oligodontia
d. supernumerary teeth
e. supplemental teeth

A

E - supplemental teeth

54
Q

Which toothbrushing technique does the following describe:

Pointing the brush apically, parallel to the long axis of the teeth, roll the brush occlusally maintaining contact with the gingivae, then with the tooth surface.

a. bass
b. fones
c. modified stillman
d. roll
e. stillman

A

D - roll

55
Q

Which toothbrushing technique does the following describe:

Pointing the brush apically, at 45º to the long axis of the tooth vibrate the brush, not changing the position of the bristles.

a. bass
b. fones
c. modified stillman
d. roll
e. stillman

A

A - bass

56
Q

Which toothbrushing technique does the following describe:

Pointing the brush apically, at 45º to the long axis of the tooth, apply pressure to blanch the gingivae. Repeat several times and slightly rotate the brush occlusally during the procedure.

a. bass
b. fones
c. modified stillman
d. roll
e. stillman

A

E - stillman

57
Q

Which toothbrushing technique does the following describe:

Pointing the brush apically, at 45º to the long axis of the tooth, make the gingivae blanch but at the same time vibrate the brush and move it occlusally.

a. bass
b. fones
c. modified stillman
d. roll
e. stillman

A

C - modified stillman

58
Q

Which toothbrushing technique does the following describe:

Pointing the brush horizontally with the teeth in occlusion move the brush in a rotary motion against the maxillary and mandibular teeth surface and the gingival margin.

a. bass
b. fones
c. modified stillman
d. roll
e. stillman

A

B - fones

59
Q

A 6 year old boy presents with a small carious lesion in a lower right second molar. He is cooperative and his first permanent molars have erupted.

What is the most appropriate treatment?

a. extraction under GA
b. non vital pulpotomy
c. simple restoration and fissure sealant
d. topical fluoride and prevention
e. vital pulpotomy

A

C - simple restoration and fissure sealants

60
Q

A 4 year old presents with 6 first and second molars that cannot be restored.

What is the most appropriate treatment?

a. extraction under GA
b. non vital pulpotomy
c. simple restoration and fissure sealant
d. topical fluoride and prevention
e. vital pulpotomy

A

A - extraction under GA

61
Q

A 2 year old child presents with a single tiny pit caries lesion in an upper first molar.

What is the most appropriate treatment?

a. extraction under GA
b. non vital pulpotomy
c. simple restoration and fissure sealant
d. topical fluoride and prevention
e. vital pulpotomy

A

D - topical fluoride and prevention

62
Q

A 5 year old presents with caries in his lower left first molar which is causing the tooth to throb. The tooth is vital.

What is the most appropriate treatment?

a. extraction under GA
b. non vital pulpotomy
c. simple restoration and fissure sealant
d. topical fluoride and prevention
e. vital pulpotomy

A

E - vital pulpotomy

63
Q

A 7 year old presents with a non-vital lower left second molar.

What is the most appropriate treatment?

a. extraction under GA
b. non vital pulpotomy
c. simple restoration and fissure sealant
d. topical fluoride and prevention
e. vital pulpotomy

A

B - non-vital pulpotomy

64
Q

Sodium valproate is used to treat:

a. asthma
b. eczema
c. epilepsy
d. herpetic gingivostomatitis
e. impetigo

A

C - epilepsy

65
Q

Aciclovir is used to treat:

a. asthma
b. eczema
c. epilepsy
d. herpetic gingivostomatitis
e. impetigo

A

D - herpetic gingivostomatitis

66
Q

Flucloxacillin is used to treat:

a. asthma
b. eczema
c. epilepsy
d. herpetic gingivostomatitis
e. impetigo

A

E - impetigo

(contagious bacterial skin infection)

67
Q

Hydrocortisone is used to treat:

a. asthma
b. eczema
c. epilepsy
d. herpetic gingivostomatitis
e. impetigo

A

B - eczema

68
Q

Salbutamol is used to treat:

a. asthma
b. eczema
c. epilepsy
d. herpetic gingivostomatitis
e. impetigo

A

A - asthma

69
Q

Choose the most appropriate age for a child who has:

All teeth fully erupted except 2nd permanent molars which are PE.

a. 6 months
b. 7-8 years
c. 9-10 years
d. 11-12 years
e. 13-14 years

A

E - 13-14 years

70
Q

Choose the most appropriate age for a child who has:

Her very first deciduous teeth erupting.

a. 6 months
b. 7-8 years
c. 9-10 years
d. 11-12 years
e. 13-14 years

A

A - 6 months

71
Q

Choose the most appropriate age for a child who has:

Maxillary permanent canines erupting.

a. 6 months
b. 7-8 years
c. 9-10 years
d. 11-12 years
e. 13-14 years

A

D - 11-12 years

72
Q

Choose the most appropriate age for a child who has:

Mandibular permanent canines erupting.

a. 6 months
b. 7-8 years
c. 9-10 years
d. 11-12 years
e. 13-14 years

A

C - 9-10 years

73
Q

Choose the most appropriate age for a child who has:

Mandibular permanent lateral incisors erupting.

a. 6 months
b. 7-8 years
c. 9-10 years
d. 11-12 years
e. 13-14 years

A

B - 7-8 years

74
Q

Anodontia could be caused by:

a. amelogenesis imperfecta
b. cleidocranial dysplasia
c. ectodermal dysplasia
d. local infection
e. tetracycline

A

C - ectodermal dysplasia

75
Q

An exaggerated transverse diameter of the cranium, delayed fontanelle closure, hypoplastic teeth, hypomineralisation, hypoplastic clavicles are all symptoms of:

a. amelogenesis imperfecta
b. cleidocranial dysplasia
c. ectodermal dysplasia
d. local infection
e. tetracycline

A

B - cleidocranial dysplasia

76
Q

A single tooth with a brown hypoplastic crown (turner tooth) could be caused by:

a. amelogenesis imperfecta
b. cleidocranial dysplasia
c. ectodermal dysplasia
d. local infection
e. tetracycline

A

D - local infection

77
Q

All teeth hypoplastic, brown-yellow enamel, soft and easily chipped teeth can be caused by:

a. amelogenesis imperfecta
b. cleidocranial dysplasia
c. ectodermal dysplasia
d. local infection
e. tetracycline

A

A - amelogenesis imperfecta

78
Q

Yellow/brown/green hyperpigmentation of teeth in children who have recurrent ear and chest infections could be caused by:

a. amelogenesis imperfecta
b. cleidocranial dysplasia
c. ectodermal dysplasia
d. local infection
e. tetracycline

A

K - tetracycline

79
Q

Which of the following could cause a crossbite?

a. thumb sucking habit
b. skeletal discrepancy
c. cleft lip and palate
d. amelogenesis imperfects
e. osteogenesis imperfects

A

A, B and C - thumb sucking, skeletal discrepancy, cleft lip and palate.

(anything that may alter the normal max-mand relationship may cause a crossbite)

80
Q

In which of the following would fissure sealing be appropriate management?

a. deciduous molars of a child with extensive caries in their deciduous teeth
b. on permanent molars of a child with extensive caries in their deciduous teeth
c. in a caries-free child
d. in a child with an impairment
e. only within 24 months of the eruption of the tooth in question

A

B and D - permanent molars when primary teeth have had caries and in a child with an impairment.

Guidance for Placement:
- children who have had extensive caries in primary molars
- children with impairments
- children whose general health would be jeopardised by the development of oral disease/need for dental tx

81
Q

A 14 year old boy arrives with an absent UR3. The UL3 erupted 12 months ago.

Which of the following observations would suggest that the UR3 was buccally impacted?

a. palpable bulge in the anterior palate on the right
b. proclined permanent UR2
c. buccally situated upper canine on the other side
d. retroclined UR2
e. buccal bulge in the alveolus in the region of the UR3

A

B and E - proclined UR2 and buccally situated 3 on the other side.

(majority of impacted canines are palatal and unilateral)

82
Q

Regarding the pulp treatment of primary teeth:

a. pulpotomy means the removal of the entire coronal and radicular pulp
b. beechwood creosote is used for 1-visit pulpotomies on vital pulp
c. formocrescol is used for vital pulpotomies
d. 15.5% ferric sulphate can be used instead of beechwood creosote
e. cvek’s pulpotomy is done for vital pulp

A

C - formocrescol is used for vital pulpotomies

(pulpectomy is the complete removal of coronal and radicular pulp)

83
Q

Regarding eruption dates:

a. deciduous maxillary upper central incisors erupts at about 7 months
b. deciduous mandibular canines erupt around 12-16 months
c. deciduous mandibular second molars erupt around 21-30 months
d. deciduous maxillary second molars erupt around 30-34 months
e. permanent maxillary first premolars erupt around 10-11 years

A

A, C and E - upper As erupt around 7 months, lower Es erupt 21-30 months and upper 4s erupt around 10-11 years.

  • lower Cs erupt at 16-20 months
  • upper and lower Es erupt around 21-30 months
84
Q

What is ankylosis or replacement root resorption a common complication of?

A

reimplantation of an avulsed tooth

general revision (11 decks)

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