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oral pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements regarding carcinoma of the lip is true?

a. more common in lower lip
b. often caused by chewing betel nut
c. has a worse prognosis than intra-oral carcinoma
d. caused principally by alcohol consumption
e. occurs in pts with oral submucous fibrosis

A

A - more common in the lower lip

(mainly caused by UV light and has a better prognosis because it is more visible)

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2
Q

Which bacterium is more commonly isolated from root caries?

a. lactobacillus
b. actinomyces
c. strep mutans
d. strep mitior
e. clostridium

A

B - actinomyces

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3
Q

What is chronic hyperplastic pulpitis more commonly known as?

a. acute pulpitis
b. pulp polyp
c. chronic pulpitis
d. acute periapical periodontitis
e. chronic periapical pulpitis

A

B - pulp polyp

Has the appearance of a bright red soft tissue mass within a large carious cavity.

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4
Q

Which of the following is not a physical cause of non-carious tooth surface loss?

a. fracture
b. attrition
c. abrasion
d. vomiting
e. iatrogenic

A

D - vomiting

This is a form of chemical tooth surface loss.

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5
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of tooth surface loss on the palatal surfaces of maxillary central incisors?

a. chemotherapy
b. oesophageal reflux
c. anorexia
d. bulemia
e. pregnancy

A

C - anorexia

Anorexia just means reducing calorific intake whereas the rest involve vomiting.

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6
Q

Which of the statements is true regarding osteomyelitis?

a. affects the maxilla more than the mandible
b. always causes paraesthesia of the inferior dental nerve in the mandible
c. will not be apparent on radiographs for a month
d. usually causes sharp shooting pain
e. may cause loosening of teeth

A

E - may cause loosening of teeth

(more frequently occurs in the mandible and is associated with a throbbing pain)

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7
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding Paget’s disease?

a. hypercementosis occurs, leading to ankylosis and difficult extractions
b. pts with Paget’s are liable to post-extraction osteomyelitis
c. pts have problems with post-XLA haemorrhage
d. pts with Paget’s can have facial nerve paralysis
e. mandible is more frequently affected

A

E - mandible is more frequently affected

Disorder of bone turnover.

(this is because it is more common in weight bearing bones)

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8
Q

Which of the following statements regarding hairy leukoplakia is true?

a. only occurs in pts with HIV
b. caused by candida
c. commonly affects dorsal surface of the tongue
d. premalignant lesion
e. kollocyte-like cells in the prickle cell layer

A

E - kiollocyte-like cells in the prickle cell layer

  • can occur in pts who are immunocompromised
  • often secondarily infected with candida
  • not a premalignant lesion
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9
Q

Which of the following is true regarding salivary calculi?

a. may be asymptomatic
b. always visible on lower occlusal radiograph
c. most frequently occur in parotid gland
d. most frequently occur in sublingual gland
e. common cause of xerostomia

A

A - asymptomatic

  • most commonly occur in submandibular gland
  • don’t lead to xerostomia
  • may be seen on radiographs but sialography may be required to visualise
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10
Q

Which of the statements regarding osteosarcoma is false?

a. complication of paget’s disease
b. M > F
c. maxilla > mandible
d. presentation between 30-40 y/o
e. pts present with paraesthesia

A

C - maxilla > mandible

  • complication of paget’s disease
  • occurs in males between 30-40
  • presenting complaint is usually paraesthesia
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11
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with anti-basement membrane auto-antibodies?

a. erythema multiforme
b. steven’s-johnson syndrome
c. pemphigoid
d. pemphigus
e. herpes zoster

A

C - pemphigoid

(subepithelial vesiculo-bullous disorder occurring in women over 60)

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12
Q

How many days after fertilisation does the dental lamina form?

a. 23
b. 37
c. 51
d. 65
e. 79

A

B - dental lamina forms 37 days after fertilisation

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13
Q

An 18 year old female presents with a 3 week history of a sore throat, fever, malaise and enlarged lymph nodes.

What would be the most appropriate diagnosis?

a. carcinoma of the lungs
b. chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
c. epstein-barr virus infection
d. systemic lupus erythematosus
e. TB lymphadenitis

A

C - epstein-barr virus infection

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14
Q

A 45 year old smoker presents with 15kg weight loss and finger clubbing.

What would be the most appropriate diagnosis?

a. carcinoma of the lungs
b. chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
c. epstein-barr virus infection
d. systemic lupus erythematosus
e. TB lymphadenitis

A

A - carcinoma of the lung

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15
Q

A 25 year old Asian man presents with fever night sweats and a single cervical lymph node.

What would be the most appropriate diagnosis?

a. carcinoma of the lungs
b. chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
c. epstein-barr virus infection
d. systemic lupus erythematosus
e. TB lymphadenitis

A

E - TB lymphadenitis

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16
Q

A 65 year old man presents with a large spleen and raised WBC count.

What would be the most appropriate diagnosis?

a. carcinoma of the lungs
b. chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
c. epstein-barr virus infection
d. systemic lupus erythematosus
e. TB lymphadenitis

A

B - chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

17
Q

A 30 year old woman presents with a bilateral facial rash, fever and joint pain.

What would be the most appropriate diagnosis?

a. carcinoma of the lungs
b. chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
c. epstein-barr virus infection
d. systemic lupus erythematosus
e. TB lymphadenitis

A

D - systemic lupus erythematosus

18
Q

In an osteosarcoma, which cells are most commonly abnormal?

a. osteoclasts
b. osteoblasts
c. fibroblasts

A

B - osteoblasts

19
Q

Which bone do osteosarcomas usually affect?

a. maxilla
b. mandible
c. frontal
d. temporal

A

B - mandible

20
Q

Where do osteosarcomas usually metastasise to?

a. kidneys
b. brain
c. lungs
d. liver

A

C - lungs

21
Q

Which virus is the causative organism for Kaposi’s Sarcoma?

A

HHV8 (human herpes virus)

22
Q

Which virus is HHV8 associated with?

A

HIV/AIDS

23
Q

What colour would a Kaposi’s Sarcoma be in the mouth?

a. red
b. yellow
c. pink
d. purple

A

D - purple plaque

24
Q

Which tissue is Kaposi’s Sarcoma a tumour of?

a. epithelial
b. endothelial
c. bone
d. muscle

A

B - endothelial

25
Q

In ectodermal dysplasia:

a. there are often supernumerary teeth
b. hair is usually scanty
c. sex-linked recessive trait is usually the cause
d. anhydrous is refers to the type of hair present
e. teeth are peg shaped

A

B, C and E - scanty hair, sex-linked recessive trait with peg shaped teeth.

(anhydrous = inability to sweat)

26
Q

Hyperparathyroidism:

a. characterised by raised plasma calcium levels
b. presents with giant cell lesions
c. jaw lesions commonly present
d. pts present with enlargement of the skull
e. most commonly secondary to chronic renal failure

A

A, B and E - raised plasma calcium levels, giant cell lesions and secondary to chronic renal failure.

27
Q

In which gland do salivary calculi most commonly occur in and why?

A

Submandibular Gland

due to the composition of saliva produced and the length/anatomy of the duct.

28
Q

Describe the symptoms of salivary calculi.

A

Meal Time Syndrome

  • pain and swelling in the region of the gland on seeing, smelling or tasting food.
  • swelling gradually subsides over time.
  • gland may also become infected.
29
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta is also known as ______ ______ disease. It is usually inherited as an ___________ _____________ condition. It is due to defective synthesis of type ___ collagen. Patients may have a _____ sclera and bones grow to _______ length but can be distorted by multiple fractures to result in dwarfism.

A
  1. brittle bone disease
  2. autosomal dominant
  3. type 1 collagen
  4. blue
  5. normal
30
Q

What is Nikoisky’s Sign?

A

When a vesicle appears on gently stroking the mucosa or skin.

31
Q

Most salivary gland tumours occur in the _______ gland and tend to be ______.
Salivary gland tumours in the ____________ gland are more often _________ than those in the submandibular gland.

A
  1. parotid
  2. benign
  3. sublingual
  4. malignant
32
Q

Regarding Odontomes:

a. they are hamartomas (benign mass of disorganised tissue)
b. usually present around the age of 30
c. they can undergo malignant transformation
d. most commonly present in the anterior maxilla
e. composed of cementum embedded in fibrous tissue and a surrounding capsule

A

A and D - hamartomas (benign lesions) and most commonly present in the anterior maxilla.

Usually present between 10-20 years old, found in the anterior maxilla and posterior mandible.

Benign tumour formed by the overgrowth of complete dental tissue - composed of pulp, dentine, enamel and cementum (think complete dental tissue)

33
Q

What is the main cause of mottled teeth?

A

Fluorosis

34
Q

What is the Bowie-Dick test used for?

A

To check the autoclave is working - partial or no colour change = failure.

35
Q

pH of cementum?

A

6.7

36
Q

Which condition is likely to cause ulcers in the mouth, red eyes, stomach pain and diarrhoea?

(think sam)

A

chron’s disease

37
Q

How would you differentiate between amelogenesis imperfecta and enamel hypoplasia?

A

Amelogenesis Imperfecta impacts ALL TEETH whereas hypomineralisation impacts JUST 1st MOLARS

38
Q

What does dentinogenesis imperfecta look like on an x-ray?

A
  • bulbous crown
  • short roots
  • pulp canal obliteration (none there)
39
Q

Which type of cyst develops from Hertwig’s Root Sheath?

A

Radicular Cysts

general revision (11 decks)

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