general dentistry Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following requirements must be satisfied when gaining informed consent from a patient?

a. the pt has a chaperone
b. consent is voluntary
c. written list of warnings must be given to the pt
d. pt understands the treatment plan
e. pt is over 18

A

B and D - consent is voluntary and pt understands the tx plan.

(over 18 isn’t a requirement because of Gillick’s competence)

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2
Q

Which of the following are responsibilities of the GDC?

a. registration of dentists
b. registration of dental practices
c. protection of the public
d. professional indemnity
e. ensuring CPD

A

A, C and E - registration of dentists, public protection and ensuring CPD.

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3
Q

Which of the following must be included in the written practice protocols?

a. disposal of hazardous waste
b. disposal of sharps
c. annual leave entitlements
d. radiation protection
e. autoclaving

A

A, B, D and E - hazardous waste disposal, sharps, radiation protection and autoclaving.

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4
Q

Who may be given access to a patient’s dental records without their permission?

a. spouse/partner
b. employer
c. insurance/defence organisation investigating an allegation of negligence
d. court of law
e. parents

A

C and D - insurance/defence organisation and court of law.

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5
Q

Which of the following conditions must be met in order to prove dental negligence?

a. the pt was not happy with the tx as it was of a poor standard.
b. dentist had a duty of care to the pt
c. pt was overcharged for tx
d. duty of care was breached
e. breach of care resulted in damage

A

B, D and E - dentist had a duty of care, duty was breached and this resulted in damage.

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6
Q

Which of the following regarding fluoride is true?

a. fluoride has an effect on enamel only if given whilst the tooth is forming
b. fluoride is absorbed mainly from the duodenum and is excreted by the kidneys
c. fluoride is absorbed mainly from the stomach and is excreted by the kidneys
d. fluoride is more effective at decreasing pit and fissure caries than smooth surface caries
e. fluoride is more effective at decreasing smooth surface caries than pit and fissure caries

A

C and E - absorbed from the stomach and excreted by the kidneys, more effective for smooth surface caries than pit and fissure.

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7
Q

Which of the following cross-infection control measures should be adopted by all dental personnel?

a. immunisation against hepatitis B
b. immunisation against hepatitis C
c. immunisation against hepatitis A
d. wearing of gloves when treating patients
e. wearing of eye protection

A

A, D and E - immunisation for hepatitis B, wearing gloves and eye protection.

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8
Q

Which of the following are risk factors for oral cancer?

a. tobacco consumption
b. social deprivation
c. alcohol consumption
d. high levels of stress
e. previous trauma to the site

A

A, B and C - tobacco, social deprivation and alcohol.

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9
Q

Which of the following food/drinks contain fluoride not added by the manufacturer??

a. coffee
b. tea
c. salt
d. bony fish
e. wine

A

B and D - tea and bony fish contain naturally occurring fluoride.

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10
Q

Deposition of LA close to the left lingula of the mandible is likely to anaesthetise the:

a. left side of the anterior aspect of the tongue
b. labial gingivae on the LHS
c. buccal gingivae of the left lower molars
d. left side of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue
e. pulp of the lower molars on the left

A

A, B and E - left side of the anterior aspect of the tongue, labial gingivae on the LHS and pulp of the LL molars.

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11
Q

Clinical records for adults should be kept for:

a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 11 years
e. 15 years

A

D - 11 years

(for children, they should be kept until the pt is 25 or for 11 years, whichever is longer)

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12
Q

If a person has undergone a course of vaccination against hepatitis B, which of the following antibody levels would imply they have responded to the vaccination and are protected against catching the infection?

a. HbsAb > 1mlU/ml
b. HbsAb > 10 mlU/ml
c. HbsAb > 100 mlU/ml
d. HbsAb > 1000 mlU/ml
e. none of the above

A

C and D - protection usually occurs when HbsAg antibody levels are greater than 100 mlU/ml

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13
Q

Which of the following are essential features of cariogenic bacteria?

a. ability to attach to smooth surfaces of teeth
b. ability to produce acid with an appropriate pH (pH > 6) to decalcify tooth substance
c. ability to survive in stagnant areas
d. ability to form insoluble glucans
e. ability to metabolise sugar alcohols (polyols)

A

A and D - attach to smooth surfaces and form insoluble glucans.

(pH drops to < 5.5)

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14
Q

With respect to CPD, a dentist must carry out:

a. 75 hrs of CPD which 25 must be certified over a year
b. 150 hours of CPD which 50 must be certifiable over a year
c. 200 hours of CPD of which 75 must be certifiable over a 5-year period
d. 250 hours of CPD of which 75 must be certifiable over a 5-year period
e. CPD is left up to the individual dentist’s needs

A

D - 250 hours of CPD of which 75 must be certifiable over a 5 year period.

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15
Q

With regard to dental nomenclature systems:

a. an UR6 may be written as 26 using the FDI system
b. an UR6 may be written as 16 using the FDI system
c. a LLC may be written as 33 using the FDI system
d. a LLC may be written as 43 using the FDI system
e. a LLC may be written as 3C using the FDI system

A

B - UR6 written as 16 using the FDI system.

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16
Q

Which of the following are examples of special waste?

a. blood-stained gauze
b. radiology fixer solution
c. alginate impression
d. half a cartridge of 2% lidocaine 1:80000 adrenaline
e. mercury

A

B, D and E - radiology fixer, lidocaine and mercury.

17
Q

What is the difference between sterilisation and disinfection?

A
  • Sterilisation is the removal of all living micro-organisms and their pathogenic products.
  • Disinfection removes some of the microorganisms (usually pathogenic ones) but not all.
18
Q

Outline how a complaints procedure should be carried out.

A
  1. make a copy of the complaints procedure available to the pt at the time of their complaint.
  2. send an acknowledgement within 3 working days.
  3. respond in writing no later than 10 working days with the outcome of the investigations.
  4. signpost to an independent review panel or healthcare commission and if they are still not happy, NHS ombudsman.
  • pt has 12 months of the event/learning of the problem to complain
19
Q

What are the 6 stages of an audit cycle?

A
  1. identify the procedure or treatment method to be audited.
  2. set the standards.
  3. measure the performance against the set standards.
  4. analyse the results to see if the standards have been met/clarify any problems and changes to be introduced to rectify.
  5. implement change.
  6. re-measure the performance following implementation
20
Q

Where should the complaints procedure be kept?

A

Where pts can see it and they shouldn’t have to ask.

(e.g; on reception)

21
Q

What is meant by duty of candor?

A

Requirements that providers must follow in the case of tx going wrong - e.g: informing the pt, being truthful, apologising and providing support.

22
Q

A pt has a clicking TMJ with anterior disc displacement.

Which muscle is in excess function?

A

lateral pterygoid - helps control movements of the TMJ

23
Q

What MCDAS score does a pt have to have in order to qualify for treatment under IV sedation?

A

over 25

24
Q

What is your diagnosis?

Significant pain on mastication, no radiographic changes, pain on TTP.

A

acute apical periodontitis

25
Q

What is your diagnosis?

No/mild symptoms with no response to sensibility testing, no/mild TTP and a well defined apical radiolucency.

A

pulp necrosis with chronic apical periodontitis and an apical cyst

26
Q

What is your diagnosis?

Swelling with significant pain, radiolucent lesion with no response to sensibility testing and pain on TTP.

A

acute apical abscess

27
Q

What is your diagnosis?

Draining sinus with a radiolucent lesion, no response to sensibility testing or TTP.

A

chronic apical abscess with a necrotic pulp

28
Q

What is your diagnosis?

May have a response to thermal stimulus, no PA changes, responds to pulp test, no TTP and responds to analgesics.

A

reversible pulpitis

29
Q

What is your diagnosis?

Spontaneous pain which keeps pt up at night, no PA radiolucency, significant response to pulp testing, may or may not be TTP.

A

irreversible pulpitis