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Paeds all Flashcards

1
Q 
chickenpox:
- caused by?
incubation period?
what% of cases subclinical?
route of transmission?
recovery time?
A 
varicella zoster
14-21 days
50%
droplets, airbourne route
2-3 weeks
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2
Q

clinical features of chickenpox?

A 
ulcers
rash
cervical lymphadenitis
fever
malaise
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3
Q

shingles is a complication of chicken pox caused by?
affects what nerve?
associated with?

A

herpes zoster
trigeminal nerve
immunodeficiency

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4
Q

signs of shingles?

complication of shingles?

A

pain, rash, mouth ulcers

ramsay hunt syndrome - genilculate zoster - rash in ear, facial palsy and ulcers on ipsilateral soft palate

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5
Q

tx of shingles?

A

analgesics and aciclovir

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6
Q

PHG is a disease caused by?
systemic features?
oral features?

A

herpes simplex
fever, malaise, lymphadenopathy
painful erythematous and swollen gingiva with tiny vesicles on perioral skin and vermillion border on lips and OM

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7
Q

PHG most common between?
commonly mistaken for?
lesions heal when?
how are they treated?

A

6m to 6 years
teething
1-2 weeks
symptomatic tx

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8
Q

what are complications of PHG?

A

recurrent
herpes labialis
intra oral
herpetic whitlow

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9
Q 
what is Hand foot and mouth caused by?
occurs how?
oral lesions tend to be?
oral signs?
systemic signs?
lesions resolve when?
A 
coxackie
epidemics under 5 years
painful lesions
vesicles and ulcers anywhere orally
macules, papules on feet hands and toes
2 weeks
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10
Q

what is mumps?
incubation period?
signs?
differnetiate from what before diagnosing?

A

viral infection of salivary glands
14-21 days
bilateral swelling of parotid glands
obstructive/ bacterial sialadenitis

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11
Q

what are signs of measles?
incubation period?
high risk of?

A

highly contagious
systemic symptopms and skin rash
10-14 days
bacterial complications

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12
Q

what are oral signs of measles?

A

kopliks spots

small red macules with white necrotic centres

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13
Q

what is rubella?
how is it spread?
incubation period?
signs?

A

mild viral disease
droplet infection
14-21 days
rash on face, behind ears, mild fever, sore throat, enlarged lymph nodes

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14
Q

what is herpangina caused by?
signs?
resolves when?

A

vesicles on soft palate with fever, malaise, sore throat, hard to swallow
resolves in a week

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15
Q

what can febrile illness cause?

A

enamel hypoplasia

measles/chickenpox

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16
Q

what is enamel hypoplasia?

how is it caused?

A

incomplete or defective formation of enamel = alteration in form or colour
- results bc disturbance or damage to ameloblasts during enamel matrix formation

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17
Q

appearance of hypoplasia?

A

perm centrals/laterals/first molars
horizontal rows of pits transversing the tooth surface
varies with severity and extend of injury to ameloblasts

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18
Q

categories of impairment?

A

intellectual
physical
sensory

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19
Q

what is downs syndrome caused by?
susceptible to?
signs?
oral risks?

A

chromosomal disorder
caridac problems
large tongue, large fingers/hands
- delayed primary exfoliation, hypodontia, hypoplastic teeth, susceptible to perio

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20
Q

what is often the main problem impeding OH in downs syndrome pt?

A

access/ability to brush

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21
Q

what is fragile x syndrome?
commonly affects who?
effects?

A

genetic disorder
males
mental impairment/learning disabilities

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22
Q

what is the main issue with treating fragile x pt?

A

problems understanding or tolerating tx

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23
Q

what are common problems found with tx of autistic or schizophrenic pt?

A

communication/probs with relationship formation

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24
Q

ensure what re tx for autism or schizophrenia?

A

prevention
limit tx to what is tolerated
not too long a wait
short sessions

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25
Q

what is dyslexia?
what is the main problem faced by the pt?
what is the management?

A

usually causes problems with cognition
does not fully understand what is happening
rx at slow pace, explain in easy terms

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26
Q

what is the tx of an ADHD pt?

A

keep apps short
easy and short tasks
take lots of breaks

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27
Q

challenges faced with a physically impaired pt dentally?

A 
gag and cough reflex
hypoplastic teeth - sensitivity
access to mouth
manouvering wheelchair
lifting pt
excessive saliva flow
self inflicted intra oral wounds
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28
Q

how to manage physically impaired pt?

A 
aggressive prevention
operative intervention early
modify tx plan if necessary
pts may need sedation/GA
TB modification/electric TB
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29
Q

how to manage blind pt?

A

tell then do
low reassuring voice
relay info on how brush feels in mouth etc

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30
Q

how to manage a deaf pt?

A

visual aids where necessary
sit directly in front of
no masks obscuring face

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31
Q

how may tooth formation be affected?

A

genetically determined
local/systemic factors
both

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32
Q

what teeth are commonly missing?

A

8’s, 5’s, 2’s

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33
Q

missing perm teeth are seen in what % of pts with missing primary teeth?

A

30-50%`

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34
Q

patients with supernumerary teeth have what chance of being followed by SN in perm dentition?

A

30-50%

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35
Q

mesioden is?
paramolar/distomolar is?
maxilla:mandible ratio?
what can SN’s be associated with?

A

ant maxilla SN
molar region SN
5:1
cleidocranial dysplasia

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36
Q

what is megadontia?

A

teeth larger than normal

pituitary gigantism

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37
Q

what is microdontia?
lateral incisors affected called?
other teeth commonly affected?
more common in?

A

teeth smaller than normal
peg shaped
max third molars
females

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38
Q

short roots common in?
long roots common in?
also poss caused by?

A

oriental
african
irradiation of jaws, chemo during root formation
poss ortho tx

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39
Q

what are double teeth/gemination?

A

developmental seperation of a single tooth germ to produce 2 seperate teeth
unknown cause
rare
ants and deciduous commonly affected

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40
Q

what are double teeth/fusion?

A

union of two normally separated adjacent tooth germs
poss hereditary
primary dentition common

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41
Q

what is concresence?

A

joining of two teeth one of which could be a SN by cementum
trauma/crowding/root surfaces in close proximity
max molars commonly affected

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42
Q

tooth formation disorders tend not to be treated in the primary dentition, tx in permanent?

A

tx dependent on
space available in arch
morphology of pulp chamber/canals
degree of attachment between tooth

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43
Q

what is an invaginated tooth?

A

infolding on palatal surface of the crown of the tooth and lined with enamel, sometimes extending into root
aka dens in dente
normal tooth tissue in abnormal form
deepened pit or crevice in cingulum

44
Q

tx of invaginated teeth?

A

FS after eruption
vitality test/radiograph
endo tx if pulp involved
small tuberlce on occlusal surface of premolar in central part of fissure

45
Q

what a talon cusp?

A

a horn like projection of the cingulum of the maxillary incisor teeth which may reach and contact the incisal edge of the tooth

46
Q

what is the tx of talon cusp?

A

FS margins
poss pulpotomy
no tx if no interfernece with occlusion

47
Q

tx of a evagninated teeth?

A

xrays to determine any pulpal involvement

remove tubercle and limited pulpotomy may be required

48
Q

what is taurodontism?

A

bull like teeth where pulp chamber of teeth is vertically enlarged at expense of roots

49
Q

what is amelogenesis imperfecta?

A

generalized enamel defects affecting all of teeth of primary and secondary dentitions
genetic or inherited

50
Q

what are the classifications of amelogenesis imperfecta?

A

hypoplasia or hypomineralisation?

51
Q

describe hypoplasia?

A 
deficient enamel matrix resulting in:
thinner enamel
grooved or pitted
glossy
hard or translucent
52
Q

describe hypomineralisation?

A 
defect in mineralisation
norm thickness but v soft
discoloured yellow brown
opaque/chalky
prone to caries/weak enamel
enamel chips easy
53
Q

what is the management of amelogenesis imperfecta? - localised
generalised?

A

localised - preformed crowns
generalised - aesthetics, senstive to thermal and mechanical stimuli
poor oh and staining

54
Q

what is dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A

inherited disorder of dentine which may not be associated with osteogenesis
- primary and perm teeth affected
- opalescent/grey or brown
- enamel flakes off because poor adhesion
- pulpal exposure likely
molars have short roots and canal obliteration
perm dentition generally less affected

55
Q

how can syphillis affect deciduous teeth?

A

treponema pallidium in the dental follicle transmited via the placenta, associated with blindness deafness or paralysis

56
Q

what anomalies occur with congenital syphillis?

A

hutchinsons incisors
mulberry molars
moons molars

57
Q

describe hutchinsons incisors?

A

affects upper central incisors
notch in incisal edge
MD narrowing of incisal portion of the crown
may lead to ant open bite

58
Q

what are mulberry molars?

A

first perm molars affected
occlusal surfaces rough and pitted
compressed nodules instead of cusps
similar in appearance to a raspberry or mulberry

59
Q

what are moons molars?

A

affects perm molars

round or dome shaped

60
Q

what is an enameloma?

A

small spherical projection on a root surface
abnormal displacement of ameloblasts abnormally dispalced during tooth formation
max molars commonly affected
attached to cementum near root bifurcation area

61
Q

how does primary tooth pulp therapy differ to RCT?

A
  • increased no of accessory canals foramina and porosity increased
  • canals more ribbon like
  • fine filamentous pulp system
  • more difficult canal debridement
  • complete extirpation of pulp remnants
  • increased perforation
62
Q

causes of irriversible pulpitis?

A

caries
trauma
wear

63
Q

if the marginal ridge is broken down even if the radiograph is relatively unaffected what is likely to be happening?

A

irriversible pulptitis

64
Q

what is a carious exposure?

A

point where communication exists between pulp and oral cavity
symptoms similar to irriverisible pulpitis
could be symptom free/pulp polyp

65
Q

contraindications to pulp therapy?

A

unrestorable tooth long term
pt un cooperative
medically compromised
ortho xla

66
Q

tx options for vital primary teeth?

A

pulp capping
pulpotomy
desensitising pulp therapy

67
Q

what type of pulp capping is unsuitable for primary teeth?

A

direct

68
Q

what is a pulpotomy?

A

removing the diseased coronal portion of pulp only and applying medicaments to the remaining pulp tissues = continued function
- greater success than pulp capping

69
Q

contraindications to pulpotomy?

A

abscess - infected/inflamed radicular pulp
excessive bleeding upon access to pulp chamber
no bleeding on access to pulp chamber

70
Q

describe formocresol?

A

tricesol - antiseptic
formalin - tissue fixative
binds bacterial and pulp tissue proteins
bacteriocidal and devitalising agent
tissue fixed and rendered inert and resistant to breakdown by bacterial enzymes

71
Q

side effetcs of formocresol?

A 
mutagenic and carcinogenic 
fast absorption in kidneys/liver
local soft tissue damage if formocresol passes through foramen
superficial tissue devitalisation
80-90% of pulps become non vital
72
Q

how to use formocresol?

A

small amount on blotted cotton pledget
isolation of tooth
well sealed restoration margins to prevent leakages

73
Q

describe ferric sulphate?

A

excellent haemostatic agent
not a fixative
antimicrobial qualitites unknown
15% to pulp stiumps for 15 secs

74
Q

describe gluteraldehyde?

A

aqueous sol 2-4%
powerful fixative agent
toxic effects

75
Q

describe calcium hydroxide?

A

internal resorption = problem
equal efficacy with formocresol when used in pure powder form - analytical grade
encourages new dentine formation from pulp
dentine bridge formed remaining pulp tissue now has an effective barrier against bacterial invasion
allows pulp to heal rather than fixing

76
Q

clinical technique of pulpotomy?

A

LA, isolate
outline form to access caries - remove all caries prior to pulp access
large access cavity - remove entire roof of pulp chamber with SS bur + care not to damage floor of pulp chamber
remove contents of chamber
saline irrigation
apply medicaments

77
Q

if after medicament stage in pulpotomy there is still uncontrolled bleeding what could be the next step?

A

desensitising pulp therapy

pulpectomy

78
Q

what is a tooth having undergone a pulpotomy restored with?

A

hard setting calcium hydroxide
backfill with zinc oxide and eugenol
perm SSC

79
Q

what is desensitising pulp therapy?

A

used in order to reduce pulpal inflammation/or symptoms in order to facilitate pulpotomy or pulpectomy

80
Q

indications for desensitising pulp therapy?

A

carious pulp exposure - no signs or symptoms of vitality loss
hyperaemic pulp during attempted pulpotomy
hyperalgesic pulp

81
Q

technique of desensitising pulp therapy?

A

open and gain access to pulp chamber
cotton pledget with ledermix over exposure site
well sealed temp dressing
rev 2 weeks, proceed with pulpotomy or pulpectomy

82
Q

what is the tx for non vital pulp tx?

how does it differ to pulp amputation?

A

pulpectomy

aim is not to preserve viable tissue but not to remove necrotic tissue and obturate canals

83
Q

differs in pulpectomy to RCT?

A

apical foramina wider = damage to perm tooth germ easy
root canals rbbon shaped harder instrument
root canal walls thin = prone to perforate
teeth resorb = material must be resorbable

84
Q

phases of pulpectomy?

A

1 - canal debridement

2 - obturation

85
Q

phase 1 of pulpectomy?

A

LA
isolate
large access cavity
necrotic tissue removed from pulp chamber
irrigate with sodium hypochlorite
canal instrumentation
files kept short of apex
file canal walls, remove debris, irrigate
dry canal walls with paper points or cotton pledget
place temp dressing - l=kalzinol/ledermix, non setting caoh
review 7-10 days

86
Q

phase 2 of pulpectomy?

A 
remove temp dressing
irrigate and dry canals
place resorbable root filler
zinc oxide eugenol/caoh
pack densly but take care around foramen
fill zinc oxide and eugenol
perm restoration
87
Q

what reviews should be done following pulp therapy?

A

rev at 6 monthly interviews

follow up radiographs taken at yearly interviews

88
Q

reasons to restore deciduous teeth?

A 
restore form
restore aesthetics
restore function
maintain space
acclimatisation
avoid sepsis and infection
avoid extraction
89
Q

important differences in structure of deciduous teeth?

A 
smaller 
enamel is thinner
pulp relatively larger
horns nearer surface
aprismatic ename
flatter and wider contact points
90
Q

stages of deciduous tx planning?

A

relief of pain, prevention at home, prevention professioanlly

  • stabilisation of caries
  • restorations
  • pulp therapy
  • extractions
  • behaviour management
  • reinforce prevention
91
Q

if a child presents with toothache, check for what?

A 
abscesses
caries
trauma
toothwear
infection
soft tissue lesions
exfolliation or eruption
92
Q

signs of reversible pulpitis?
o/e?
radiographically?

A
  • sweet, hot, cold
  • pains stops when stimuli removed
  • short duration
  • occurs when eating mainly
  • early carious lesion
  • caries into dentine
93
Q

signs of irriversible pulpitis?
o/e?
radiographically?

A 
constant 
relieved by analgesics
kept awake
lymphadenopathy, raised temp, extensive marg reduction, sinus, intra oral swelling
caries close to pulp/radiolucency
94
Q

what to consider when deciding to restore/extract>

A

type of pulpitis
likelihood of pulpotomy to restore
quality and quantity of tooth tissue to restore
prev xla or edentuluous spces

95
Q

reasons to extract?

A

balancing extractions
non compliance
no parental support
no attendance beyond pain relief

96
Q

what is temporisation?

A

temp dressing is effective in relieving pain until restoration can be completed, extracted or arranged to be kept under observation
material should not be detrimental to the pulp, good seal and not conflict with final restoration

97
Q

what is stabilisation?

A

managing the child with continual poor OH with active high amounts of caries needs to be thought and should be stabilised first before definitive restorations provided

98
Q

how is stabilisation achieved?

A

remove caries from cavity margins and dress to buy time for cooperation to improve and tx of restorable teeth

99
Q

what is the value of stabilisation?

A

in the pre cooperative pt - prevents lesion progression
multiple carious lesions - arrests caries in a long plan
prevent sensitivity in teeth close to the tooth to be restored that day and out with the range of LA

100
Q

how does thinner enamel affect cavity prep?

A

caries penetration distance is more rapid = less distance
cracking/fractures are more common
small burs used
pulp horns nearer surface

101
Q

how does the cervical bulge with gingiva constriction affect cavity prep?

A

floor of box tends to be too deep

re establish floor by moving axial wall towards pulp - exposure risk

102
Q

how does the narrow occlusal table affect cavity prep?

A

cusps weakened by overextension of cavity prep in bucco lingual direction

103
Q

how do the broad contact areas located gingivally affect cavity prep?

A

difficulties in clearing box in a buccal/lingual direction

104
Q

how do large pulp horns seated below cusps affect cavity prep?

A

isthmus must be narrow to avoid pulpal exposure

to reduce failure of material the pulpoaxial line angle may be deepened to increase material bulk

105
Q

what is the aim of a restoration?

A

remove caries and prepare a cavity with minimal invasion of tooth tissue and with little/no discomfort for the pt

106
Q

how is pulp exposure risk increased when deepening a box?

A

removal of dentine adjacent to pulp horn = exposure

107
Q

what is hall crown technique?

A

method of managing carious primary molars using PMC’s but wihout tooth prep, caries removal or use of LA

Paeds (13 decks)

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