Paeds Flashcards

1
Q

Scarlett fever sx

A

Sore throat, fever, headache, bright red tongue and a coarse, red rash

fine punctate erythema (‘pinhead’)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Organism causing Scarlett and age group

A

Group A haemolytic streptococci (usually Streptococcus pyogenes). It is more common in children aged 2 - 6 years with the peak incidence being at 4 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Mx of Scarlett

A

oral penicillin V for 10 days
patients who have a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin
children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics
scarlet fever is a notifiable disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Kawasaki disease

A

fever typically lasts 5 days or longer.

It also presents with an erythematous polymorphous rash, strawberry tongue,

cervical lymphadenopathy, bilateral conjunctivitis, oedema, erythema, and skin peeling of the hands and feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Parvovirus B19 sx

A

erythematous facial rash appearing on one or both cheeks (resembling a ‘slapped cheek’)

An erythematous maculopapular rash on the trunk, back, and limbs may develop a few days after the facial rash.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Transient tachypnoea of the newborn sx and mx

A

Common after C sections

Chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.

Management
observation, supportive care
supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturations

Transient tachypnoea of the newborn usually settles within 1-2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vaccines in premature babies

A

Babies who were born prematurely should receive their routine vaccinations according to chronological age

Babies who were born prior to 28 weeks gestation should receive their first set of immunisations at hospital due to risk of apnoea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tetrology of Fallot

A

ventricular septal defect (VSD)
right ventricular hypertrophy
right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, pulmonary stenosis
overriding aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

BLS peads

A

give 5 rescue breaths
check for signs of circulation
infants use brachial or femoral pulse, children use femoral pulse
15 chest compressions:2 rescue breaths (see above)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ix for intusseption

A

US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Conditions with genetic anticipation

A

Fragile X (CGG)
Huntington’s (CAG)
myotonic dystrophy (CTG)
Friedreich’s ataxia* (GAA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Average child able to sit and walk and when should you refer

A

SIt 7-8 average
Refer 12m

Walk 13-15
Refer 18m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Movement lost most in SUFE

A

Internal rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Complications of measles

A

Immediate- pneumonia
5-10 yrs Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Whooping cough tx

A

Oral azithromycin (macrolide)

is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21

household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis

school exclusion: 48 hours after commencing antibiotics (or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Diagnostic criteria for whooping cough

A

Acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and has one or more of the following features:
Paroxysmal cough.
Inspiratory whoop.
Post-tussive vomiting.
Undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Blue peripheries with cyanosis. The rest of the examination is normal. Oxygen saturations are 97% pre and post ductally. Good tone

A

Acrocyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mx of left subclavicular thrill, continuous ‘machinery’ murmur

A

indomethacin or ibuprofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Measles features

A

prodromal phase
irritable
conjunctivitis
fever

Koplik spots
typically develop before the rash
white spots (‘grain of salt’) on the buccal mucosa

rash
starts behind ears then to the whole body
discrete maculopapular rash becoming blotchy & confluent
desquamation that typically spares the palms and soles may occur after a week

diarrhoea occurs in around 10% of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Most common cause of childhood hypothyroidism in UK

A

AI thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Edward’s syndrome

A

RockEr Bottom Feet
Low set ears
Overlapping fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fragile X

A

Learning difficulties
Macrocephaly
Long face
Large ears
Macro-orchidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Noonan syndrome

A

Webbed neck
Pectus excavatum
Short stature
Pulmonary stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Features of Roseola infantum

A

high fever: lasting a few days, followed later by a
maculopapular rash
Nagayama spots: papular enanthem on the uvula and soft palate
febrile convulsions occur in around 10-15%

School exclusion is not needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hand, foot and mouth disease

A

Caused by the coxsackie A16 virus
Mild systemic upset: sore throat, fever
Vesicles in the mouth and on the palms and soles of the feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Scarlet fever

A

Reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci
Fever, malaise, tonsillitis
‘Strawberry’ tongue
Rash - fine punctate erythema sparing the area around the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Erythema infectiosum

A

slapped-cheek syndrome’
Caused by parvovirus B19
Lethargy, fever, headache
‘Slapped-cheek’ rash spreading to proximal arms and extensor surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

RF for bruising after birth

A

Breastfed babies are at risk of vitamin K deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

AR vs AD conditions

A

Autosomal recessive conditions are ‘metabolic’
exceptions: inherited ataxias

Autosomal dominant conditions are ‘structural’
exceptions: Gilbert’s, hyperlipidaemia type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

White discharge in newborn girl PV

A

Most newborn girls have some mucoid white vaginal discharge which usually disappears by 3 months of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Caffeine in neonate

A

Caffiene can be used as a respiratory stimulant in newborn babies
Wean off ventilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Giving MMR

A

3 months between doses to maximise the response rate.

A period of 1 month is considered adequate if the child is greater than 10 years of age.
In an urgent situation (e.g. an outbreak at the child’s school) then a shorter period of 1 month can be used in younger children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Age for transient synovitis

A

3-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Chondromalacia patellae vs Osgood-Schlatter disease vs Osteochondritis dissecans

A

CP
Common in teenage girls
Characteristically anterior knee pain on walking up and down stairs and rising from prolonged sitting

OSD
Seen in sporty teenagers
Pain, tenderness and swelling over the tibial tubercle

OD
Pain after exercise
Intermittent swelling and locking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Mx of croup

A

single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15mg/kg) to all children regardless of severity

Emergency treatment
high-flow oxygen
nebulised adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When to admit croup

A

moderate or severe croup
< 3 months of age
known upper airway abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Gastroschisis vs exomphalos

A

Gastroschisis
anterior abdominal wall just lateral to the umbilical cord.

Can have vaginal delivery

newborns should go to theatre as soon as possible after delivery

Exomphalos
abdominal contents protrude through the anterior abdominal wall but are covered in an amniotic sac

caesarean section is indicated to reduce the risk of sac rupture

a staged repair may be undertaken as primary closure may be difficult due to lack of space/high intra-abdominal pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Mx of Hirschprungs

A

initially: rectal washouts/bowel irrigation
definitive management: surgery to affected segment of the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Pathophysiology of Hirschprungs

A

parasympathetic neuroblasts fail to migrate from the neural crest to the distal colon → developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses → uncoordinated peristalsis → functional obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

RF of DDH

A

female sex: 6 times greater risk
breech presentation
positive family history
firstborn children
oligohydramnios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Perthes presentation

A

Presents with progressive hip pain, limp and stiffness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Mx of Perthes

A

To keep the femoral head within the acetabulum: cast, braces
If less than 6 years: observation
Older: surgical management with moderate results
Operate on severe deformities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Most common causer of stridor in neonates

A

Laryngomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

First signs of puberty in boys and girls

A

Males
first sign is testicular growth at around 12 years of age (range = 10-15 years)

Females
first sign is breast development at around 11.5 years of age (range = 9-13 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Steroid mx in asthma

A

Use a dose of 10 mg prednisolone for children under 2 years of age, 20 mg for children aged 2-5 years and 30-40 mg for children >5 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Severity of asthma Children greater than 5 years of age

A

Moderate
SpO2 > 92%
PEF > 50% best or predicted

Severe
PEF 33-50% best or predicted
Can’t complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed
Heart rate > 125/min
Respiratory rate > 30/min

Life
PEF < 33% best or predicted
Silent chest
Poor respiratory effort
Altered consciousness
Cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent epicanthic folds, low-set ears and flat face neuro exam

A

Hypotonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

RF for SIDS

A

prone sleeping
parental smoking
bed sharing
hyperthermia and head covering
prematurity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When to admit for fever in child

A

Any child less than 3 months old with a temperature > 38ºC

50
Q

Hypospadias tx

A

Corrective surgery at around 12 months of age is required and children should not be circumcised.

51
Q

RF of surfactant deficient lung disease

A

premature infants
male sex
diabetic mothers
Caesarean section
second born of premature twins

52
Q

Jaundice in the newborn period

A

Jaundice<24 hours is always pathological.

rhesus haemolytic disease
ABO haemolytic disease
hereditary spherocytosis
glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase

Jaundice in the neonate from 2-14 days is common

Jaundice >14 days
biliary atresia
hypothyroidism
galactosaemia
urinary tract infection
breast milk jaundice
prematurity

53
Q

Ix for , cracked lips, a bright red tongue, a widespread erythematous maculopapular rash and peeling of the skin on the hands and feet. She has bilateral conjunctivitis.

A

Echo - Kawasaki disease

54
Q

Mx of PDA

A

indomethacin or ibuprofen

55
Q

Duct dependent cardiac lesions mx

A

A patent ductus arteriosis can be kept open with prostaglandins

Duct dependent cardiac lesions include: tetralogy of fallot, ebstein’s anomaly, pulmonary atresia and pulmonary stenosis.

56
Q

Patient not started menstruating. On examination, you note her short stature and webbed neck.

What would you expect to hear on auscultation of her heart

A

ESM

Turner- Bicuspid valve

57
Q

Innocent murmur criteria

A

Soft, Systolic, Short, Symptomless, Standing/Sitting (vary with position)

58
Q

Mx of migraine

A

ibuprofen

triptans may be used in children >= 12 years but follow-up is required

59
Q

Precocious puberty definition

A

development of secondary sexual characteristics before 8 years in females and 9 years in males

60
Q

Ix for DDH

A

All breech babies at or after 36 weeks gestation require USS for DDH screening at 6 weeks regardless of mode of delivery

61
Q

Time off school for mumps

A

If a child has mumps they need to be excluded from school for 5 days from the onset of swollen glands

62
Q

Congenital heart disease in neonates

A

poor feeding, shortness of breath, hepatomegaly

63
Q

Neonate resus guidelines

A

Birth: Dry the baby, start the clock

Within 30 seconds: Assess tone, breathing and heart rate.

Within 60 seconds: If gasping or not breathing - open the airway and give 5 inflation breaths

You then reassess for an increase in the heart rate. If there is no increase in the heart rate you ensure the inflation breaths you are giving are adequate by checking chest movement.

If the chest is not moving you assume the inflation breaths are inadequate and recheck head position, consider 2-person airway control and other manoeuvers and repeat inflation breaths then look for a response.

When the chest is moving: If heart rate is not detectable or slow (< 60 min-1) - start chest compressions with 3 compressions to each breath.

64
Q

Apgar score

A

Pulse
Absent
<100
>100

Resp
None
Weak irregular
Strong crying

Colour
Blue
Blue extremities
Red

Tone
Flaccid
Limb flexion
Active

Irritability
Nil
Grimace
Cries on stimulation

Assessed at 1, and 5 minutes of age. If the score is low then it is again repeated at 10 minutes.

A score of 0-3 is very low score, between 4-6 is moderate low and between 7 - 10 means the baby is in a good state

65
Q

Milk ladder

A

The milk ladder can be used after 6 months of age
Start with biscuits
Then muffin->pancake_> cheese->yoghurt->milk

66
Q

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

A

End-organ resistance to testosterone causing genotypically male children (46XY) to have a female phenotype

‘primary amenorrhoea’
undescended testes causing groin swellings
breast development may occur as a result of conversion of testosterone to oestradiol

67
Q

Kallman syndrome

A

delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism
failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus.

‘delayed puberty’
hypogonadism, cryptorchidism
anosmia
sex hormone levels are low

Low LH low test

68
Q

Klinefelter’s syndrome

A

karyotype 47, XXY

often taller than average
lack of secondary sexual characteristics
small, firm testes
infertile
gynaecomastia - increased incidence of breast cancer

elevated LH low test

69
Q

Factors which suggest faecal impaction include:

A

symptoms of severe constipation
overflow soiling
faecal mass palpable in the abdomen (digital rectal examination should only be carried out by a specialist)

70
Q

Mx of constipation

A

If not impacted-
Polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment.
Add a stimulant laxative

If impacted
Polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes
Add a stimulant laxative if no disimpaction after 2 weeks
Substitute a stimulant laxative singly or in combination with an osmotic laxative such as lactulose

71
Q

Development milestones in language

A

2 months - co
4 months - haha
6 months- babble
9 months - mommy dadda
12 months - 1+ word
2 years- combine 2 words

72
Q

Development milestones in gross motor

A

2 months - head up
4 months - roll over
6 months- sits
9 months - crawl
12 months - walk
2 years- run
3 years- tricycle

73
Q

Development milestones in social

A

2 months - twinkle (smile)
4 months - Focus on sound
6 months- Stranger anxiety
9 months - Name (respond)
12 months - Told command

74
Q

Croup vs bonchiolitis age

A

croup is 6 months -3 years, bronchiolitis is seen in 1-9 month olds

75
Q

Mx of jaundice in <24 hrs

A

Measure bilirubin

76
Q

foul-smelling diarrhoea,abdominal pain, bloated abdomen and wasted buttocks dx

A

Coeliac disease
Measure TTG IGA abx
jejunal biopsy showing subtotal villous atrophy

77
Q

Mx of enuresis

A

Children under the age of 5 years who have nocturnal enuresis can be managed with reassurance and advice

Desmopressin may be considered if initial strategies are not successful and if the child is over 7 years old.

enuresis alarm
generally first-line for children

78
Q

Cow’s milk intolerance sx and ix

A

typically presents in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants

regurgitation and vomiting
diarrhoea
urticaria, atopic eczema
‘colic’ symptoms: irritability, crying
wheeze, chronic cough

skin prick/patch testing
total IgE

79
Q

Mx of Cow’s milk protein intolerance

A

If severe- refer to pads

If bottle- extensive hydrolysed formula (eHF)
amino acid-based formula (AAF) in infants with severe CMPA or if no response to eHF

Management if breastfed
continue breastfeeding
eliminate cow’s milk protein from maternal diet.

80
Q

Rotavirus vaccine

A

it is an oral, live attenuated vaccine
2 doses are required, the first at 2 months, the second at 3 months

Cannot be give after 15w

81
Q

Presentation of cyanosis of TOF vs TGA

A

TGA- within 24 hrs

TOF- 1-2 months

82
Q

Omphalitis vs Umbilical granuloma vs Persistent urachus vs Persistent vitello-intestinal duct

A

Omphalitis
infection of the umbilicus

Umbilical granuloma
cherry red lesions surrounding the umbilicus

Persistent urachus
urinary discharge from the umbilicus

Persistent vitello-intestinal duct
umbilical discharge that discharges small bowel content

83
Q

Viruses causes croup

A

parainfluenza, adenovirus, and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV

84
Q

Mx of viral wheeze

A

children requires supportive management only

85
Q

Neonatal blood spot screening

A

5-9 days of life

congenital hypothyroidism
cystic fibrosis
sickle cell disease
phenylketonuria

86
Q

Benign rolandic epilepsy

A

seizures characteristically occur at night
seizures are typically partial (e.g. paraesthesia affecting the face) but secondary generalisation may occur (i.e. parents may only report tonic-clonic movements)
the child is otherwise normal

The prognosis is excellent, with seizures stopping by adolescence

87
Q

Heart condition in Downs

A

AVSD

88
Q

Shaken baby syndrome

A

Retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma and encephalopathy is the triad of the shaken baby syndrome

89
Q

William’s syndrome

A

Small upturned nose
long philtrum (upper lip length)
wide mouth
Small chin
Puffiness around the eyes.

aortic stenosis

90
Q

Cephalohaematoma

A

It typically develops several hours after delivery and is due to bleeding between the periosteum and skull. The most common site affected is the parietal region

Jaundice may develop as a complication.

A cephalohaematoma up to 3 months to resolve.

91
Q

Caput succadeneum

A

immediately after birth.
It occurs due to generalised superficial scalp oedema

crosses suture lines.

It is associated with prolonged labour and will rapidly resolve over a couple of days.

92
Q

Normal lower limb variants in children

A

Bow legs-
Bow legs in a child < 3 is a normal variant and usually resolves by the age of 4 years

Knock knees
Typically resolves spontaneously

Flat feet
Typically resolves between the ages of 4-8 years

93
Q

ITP vs HSP vs HUS

A

ITP
child presenting with petechiae and no fever and is usually preceded by a viral illness.

HSP
HSP are typically a non-blanching rash affecting the legs and buttocks, arthralgia and abdominal pain.

HUS
HUS is associated with a triad of microangiopathic haemolytic uraemia, acute kidney injury and thrombocytopenia. The symptoms are typically bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain, fever and vomiting, and the history usually includes exposure to farm animals

94
Q

IM benzylpenicillin for suspected meningococcal septicaemia in the community

A

< 1 year 300 mg
1 - 10 years 600 mg
> 10 years 1200 mg

95
Q

+Ve ortolani or Barlow test

A

Urgent referral

96
Q

Commonest cause of nephrotic syndrome in children

A

Minimal change

97
Q

What is Palivizumab and when is it used

A

Monoclonal AB to protect against RSV

Those at risk of developing RSV include
Premature infants
Infants with lung or heart abnormalities
Immunocompromised infants

98
Q

Causes of precocious puberty in males

A

Testes
bilateral enlargement = gonadotrophin release from intracranial lesion

unilateral enlargement = gonadal tumour

small testes = adrenal cause (tumour or adrenal hyperplasia)

99
Q

Pertussius vaccine in pregnancy

A

Women who are between 16-32 weeks pregnant are offered the pertussis vaccine

100
Q

When would you consider alternative diagnosis to bronchiolitis

A

Consider a diagnosis of pneumonia if the child has:
high fever (over 39°C) and/or
persistently focal crackles.

101
Q

Infection in neonate eye mx

A

referred for same-day ophthalmology/paediatric assessment.

102
Q

erythematous rash in the nappy area with flexural sparing

A

Irritant dermatitis

103
Q

Stills disease

A

pyrexia
salmon-pink rash
lymphadenopathy
arthritis
uveitis

ANA may be positive, especially in oligoarticular JIA

104
Q

Meningitis in children: organisms

A

Neonatal to 3 months
Group B Streptococcus: usually acquired from the mother at birth.

E. coli and other Gram -ve organisms
Listeria monocytogenes

1 month to 6 years
Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus)
Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus)
Haemophilus influenzae

Greater than 6 years
Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus)
Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus)

105
Q

Vesicoureteric reflux ix

A

Micturating cystography

106
Q

Meningitis in children < 3 months tx

A

IV amoxicillin in addition to cefotaxime to cover for Listeria

> 3 months: IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone)

107
Q

Mx of GORD

A

advise regarding position during feeds - 30 degree head-up
infants should sleep on their backs
ensure infant is not being overfed

and consider a trial of smaller and more frequent feeds
a trial of thickened formula- only if bottle-fed

a trial of alginate therapy e.g. Gaviscon.

108
Q

Rubella

A

Rash: pink maculopapular, initially on face before spreading to whole body, usually fades by the 3-5 day
Lymphadenopathy: suboccipital and postauricular

109
Q

Mx of labial adhesions

A

Labial adhesions: if recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen cream may be tried

110
Q

seborrhoeic dermatitis mx

A

Baby shampoo and oil

111
Q

Hearing tests

A

Newborn Otoacoustic emission test

Auditory Brainstem Response test May be done if otoacoustic emission test is abnormal

> 3 years Pure tone audiometry Done at school entry in most areas of the UK

112
Q

Chest compressions for infants vs children

A

Both 100-120

113
Q

No Exclusion from school

A

Slapped cheek
Roseola
Infectious mononucleosis
Head lice
Threadworms
Hand, foot and mouth

114
Q

Exclusion from school

A

24 hours after commencing antibiotics
Scarlet fever

2 days after commencing antibiotics (or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics )
Whooping cough

4 days from onset of rash Measles
5 days from onset of rash Rubella

All lesions crusted over Chickenpox

5 days from onset of swollen glands Mumps

Until symptoms have settled for 48 hours
Diarrhoea & vomiting

Until lesions are crusted and healed, or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment
Impetigo

Until treated Scabies
Until recovered Influenza

115
Q

Contraindications to MMR

A

severe immunosuppression
allergy to neomycin
children who have received another live vaccine by injection within 4 weeks
pregnancy should be avoided for at least 1 month following vaccination
immunoglobulin therapy within the past 3 months

116
Q

Small white cystic vesicle around 2mm in diameter situation on the hard palate close to the midline mx

A

Epstein Pearl
No treatment is generally required as they tend to spontaneously resolve over the course of a few weeks

117
Q

Child with a limp/hip pain has a fever mx

A

Should be referred for same-day assessment, even if a diagnosis of transient synovitis is suspected

118
Q

Undescended teste risks associated

A

Undescended testicles are associated with an increased risk of infertility, torsion and testicular cancer

119
Q

Mx of threadworms

A

Household contacts of patients with threadworms should be treated even if they have no symptoms

Single dose mebendazole

120
Q

When is Men B vaccine given

A

2, 4, and 12 months of age

121
Q
A