Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What paediatric disorders are associated with an increase in HbF?

A

Increased HbF is seen in conditions with stressed haematopoiesis

  • JMML (seen in 50%, associated with a poor prognosis)
  • Diamond Blackfan anaemia
  • Fanconi anaemia
  • Dyskeratosis congenita
  • Shwachman Diamond syndrome
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2
Q

What are the main differences between refractory cytopenia of childhood and adult MDS?

A

o Most somatic mutations in children= RAS pathway, transcription factors and epigenetic modifiers.
o Isolated anaemia uncommon. Neutropenia and thrombocytopenia more common.
o Hypocellularity commonly observed in childhood MDS (marked hypocellularity in~80%, can make distinction from AA difficult)

Those with elevated blasts should be classified as per the adult classification.

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3
Q

What are the morphological features of refractory cytopenia of childhood

A

Peripheral blood

  • Ansiopoikilocytosis of RBC and plts
  • Macrocytosis
  • Neutrophil dysplasia

Bone marrow:

  • Marked reduction in cellularity common (seen in up to 80%)
  • Large clusters of proerythroblasts (>20) with maturation arrest
  • Megaloblastic maturation
  • Micromegakaryocytes. Dysplastic megakaryocytes.
  • Neutrophil dysplasia
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4
Q

Discuss the features of CDA type 1

A

· Present with haemolytic anaemia and splenomegaly.
· 70% have macrocytosis. Red cell anisocytosis.
· Megaloblastic red cell precursors, internuclear chromatin bridging and binuclearity affecting 3-7% of erythroid precursors
· Spongy (‘swiss cheese’) appearance of heterochromatin in the majority of erythroblasts on electron microscopy.
· Autosomal recessive inheritance.

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5
Q

Discuss the features of CDA type 2

A

· Most common subtype of CDA: initially described as HEMPAS.
· Variable anaemia. ~10% require regular transfusion and some cases present with anaemia at birth.
· Variable degrees of jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly and cirrhosis. Mental retardation has been reported in some cases,
· Marked red cell anisocytosis on the peripheral blood.
· Normoblastic erythroid hyperplasia with usually more than 10% binucleate erythroblasts.
· The defining ultrastructural abnormality is a characteristic arrangement of the endoplasmic reticulum giving the appearance of a ‘double membrane’.
· Red cells from patients with CDA type II are haemolysed by some acidified sera, but not by the patients own serum.
· Autosomal recessive inheritance.

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6
Q

Discuss the features of CDA type 3

A

· Very rare.
· It is characterised by giant multinucleated erythroblasts in the marrow.
· Increased prevalence of lymphoproliferative disorders
· Autosomal dominant transmission.

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7
Q

What is Scwachman- Diamond syndrome?

A

o AR condition characterised by exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (100%), BMF (100%) and other somatic abnormalities (particularly skeletal)

o The SDS gene has an important role in the maturation of the 60S ribosomal unit, suggesting that SDS is a disorder of ribosome biogenesis.

o The spectrum of haematological abnormalities includes neutropenia (~60%), other cytopenias (20% have pancytopenia), MDS and AML (~25%).
· Varied age of leukaemic onset: 1 to 43 years.
· Unexplained preponderance of leukaemia in males
· Often has features of MDS, poor prognosis.
· SDS patients treated with cytotoxic drugs usually fail to regenerate normal haematopoiesis.

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8
Q

What are the haematological features of Pearsons Syndrome

A

· Anaemia +/- pancytopenia
· Ring sideroblasts (i.e. sideroblastic anaemia).
· Vacuolation of the myeloid and erythroid precursors.

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9
Q

What is Diamond-Blackfan anaemia?

A

· Autosomal dominant, congenital form of pure red cell aplasia with variable somatic abnormalities.
- 93% present within the first year of life.

· Normochromic, macrocytic anaemia with reticulocytopenia.
· Normal or often increased platelet counts
· Normal or slightly decreased leukocyte counts
· Normocellular BM with selective deficiency in erythroid precursors (erythroblasts <5%)
· Elevated erythrocyte deaminase activity and elevated fetal haemoglobin
· MDS, AML and AA have been reported

· A number of different genetic defects have been described that involve ribosome biosynthesis

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10
Q

Discuss the features of congenital neutropenia

A

· Heterogenous group of disorders
· Neutropenia usually recognised at birth, is <0.2 and usually associated with severe infections.
· Haemoglobin and platelet counts usually normal.
· BM shows maturational arrest at the level of the promyelocyte/ myelocyte stage- promyelocytes usually abundant.

· Mutations in ELANE (gene encoding neutrophil elastase) are the most frequent cause of congenital neutropenia.
· Can develop into AML (25% by 25yrs) or MDS.
· MDS/ AML usually associated with acquisition of mutations involving the GCSF receptor.

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11
Q

What is cyclical neutropenia?

A

· Usually autosomal dominant.
· Characterised by a neutrophil count that usually reaches a nadir with a 21 day period.
· Around the nadir, the patient may develop mouth ulcers or fevers.
Studies have identified mutations in the neutrophil elastase gene and leads to transient arrest at the promyelocyte stage.

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12
Q

What is Thrombocytopenia with Absent Radii (TAR)?

A

· AR disorder characterised by hypomegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia and bilateral radial aplasia.
· Often have haemorrhagic manifestations at birth. Plt count is usually <50.
· The leukocyte count can be normal or raised, sometimes up to 100 (‘leukaemoid reaction’)
· Bone marrow cellularity is normal. Megakaryocytes are reduced or absent.
· Very good prognosis after infancy with no reports of AA or leukaemia.

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13
Q

What is Congenital Amegakaryocytic Thrombocytopenia?

A

· Rare disorder, presents in infancy, characterised by isolated thrombocytopenia and reduction/ absence of megakaryocytes.
· Genetically heterogeneous with AR and X-linked subtypes.
· Approximately 50% develop AA, usually by age 5.
· Treatment of choice is HSCT
· Mutations in the MPL gene have been identified in some patients.

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14
Q

What is transient erythroblastopenia of childhood?

A

· Form of pure red cell aplasia that is self-limited and occurs in children 1-4yrs of age
· FBC demonstrates a normocytic anaemia and reticulocytopenia. Thrombocytosis occurs not uncommonly.
· Characterised by the absence or a significantly reduced quantity of erythroblasts in the bone marrow without underlying congenital red blood cell abnormalities.
· Bone marrow biopsy is otherwise normal.

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15
Q

What is infantile pyknosis?

A
  • Poorly understood condition.
  • Probably due to transient glutathione peroxidase deficiency which results in altered vitamin E and fatty acid metabolism.
  • Usually presents at 1-6 weeks of age.
  • More common in preterm neonates.
  • Blood film is usually characteristic with changes of oxidative haemolysis.
  • The anaemia is moderate to severe and often requires transfusion.
  • Usually resolves spontaneously by 3 months of age.
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16
Q

List some of the causes of polycythaemia in the neonate

A
o Sampling issues/ spurious.
o IUGR
o Maternal hypertension
o Maternal diabetes
o Chromosomal disorders (trisomy 21, 18 or 12)
o Twin to twin transfusion
o Delayed clamping of the cord
o Endocrine disorders: thyrotoxicosis, congenital adrenal hyperplasia
17
Q

List some causes of neutropenia in the neonate

A

Reduced production

  • IUGR
  • Maternal hypertension
  • Viral infection
  • Congenital neutropenia
  • Congenital leukaemia

Increased destruction

  • Infection (bacterial and viral)
  • Alloimmune
18
Q

List the causes of neonatal thrombocytopenia

A
  • Placental insufficiency (IUGR, PET, diabetes)
  • NAIT
  • Maternal autoimmune
  • Severe Rh HDN
  • Birth asphyxia
  • Sepsis/ NEC
  • Perinatal infection
  • Congenital infection
  • Congenital/ inherited
19
Q

What is transient abnormal myelopoiesis associated with Down Syndrome?

A

· Transient megakaryoblastic leukaemia that develops in fetal life and presents 3-7 days after delivery
· Affects approximately 10% of newborns with trisomy 21
· Usual presentation is with thrombocytosis, leucocytosis and circulating blasts.
· Hepatosplenomegaly is common.
· Most cases do not need treatment with spontaneous resolution seen within 2-3 months
· Approximately 20-30% will develop an acute megakaryoblastic leukaemia within the first 5 years of life.
· TAM is associated with acquired GATA1 mutations.

20
Q

What is myeloid leukaemia associated with Down syndrome?

A
  • Initially manifests as an MDS (similar to refractory cytopenia of childhood, called the pre-leukaemic phase) before progressing to an MDS with excess blast phase and then overt acute megakaryoblastic leukaemia.
  • All three of these phases are called ‘Myeloid leukaemia associated with down syndrome” as there is no biological distinction between MDS and AML in those with trisomy 21.
  • Favourable: 80-90% long term survival (superior to that seen in ML without Down syndrome).
  • GATA1 mutations common. Additional mutations may be present at disease progression such as trisomy 8
21
Q

What are the morphological features of TAM, myeloid leukaemia associated with Down syndrome?

A
  • Circulating megakaryoblasts
  • Nucleated red cells, anisopoikilocytosis, tear drop poikilocytes in the peripheral blood. Platelet atypia.
  • Dysplastic granulopoiesis and peripheral blood basophilia may be present.
  • Megaloblastic red cell precursors, dysplastic megakaryocytes and megakaryocytic blasts in the bone marrow.
22
Q

What are the differences between venous and capillary blood samples in neonates?

A

• Venous blood and capillary blood are not equivalent.
○ Capillary blood: mix of blood from arterioles, veins and capillaries. It also contains interstitial and intracellular fluid
○ The PCV/Hct, RCC and Hb may be slightly higher than those of venous blood.
○ The total leukocyte and neutrophil counts may also be higher
○ Platelet count appears to be higher in venous than capillary blood.