Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia Flashcards

1
Q

How does the expression of CD34, TDT, CD10, CD19, CD20, CD38 and CD45 change as haematogones mature?

A
CD34 decreases
TDT decreases
CD10 decreases
CD19 increases
CD20 increases
CD38 decreases
CD45 increases
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2
Q

What are some of the important markers used for COG MRD assessment in B-ALL?

A

Two tubes, six colours

CD45, CD19, CD10= backbone

CD38, CD58, CD20, CD9, CD34, CD13&CD33 (same fluorochrome) also used.

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3
Q

What is the LAIP approach? What are the advantages and disadvantages of this approach?

A

Combination of antigens expressed on the leukemic blasts at diagnosis that are absent in normal progenitors

Advantages:
- Able to reference the diagnostic immunophenotype of the blasts to asses for residual disease at set follow up points in treatment

Disadvantages:

  • Immunophenotype of leukemic blasts alter following therapy due to subclonal selection or modulation of the immunophenotype.
  • Immunophenotype of the background normal/ regenerating precursors may change their pattern of antigen expression in response to therapy
  • Highly dependent on diagnostic immunophenotype, something that is not always available.
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4
Q

What is the DFN approach? What are the advantages and disadvantages of this approach?

A

Recognising immunophenotypic deviation from the patterns of antigen expression on normal hematopoietic progenitors

Advantages:

  • Detection of leukemic blasts without knowledge of the diagnostic immunophenotype or after significant immunophenotypic changes.
  • Implementation of a standard antibody panel containing both antigens commonly abnormal in leukemic cells as well as those emphasizing normal patterns of maturation.

Disadvantages:
- Requires expert knowledge of antigen expression patterns seen during differentiation and maturation of normal hematopoietic progenitors in resting and regeneration states, making standardization and implementation more challenging.

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5
Q

What is the current cut off used for MRD negativity post induction?

A

<0.01%

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6
Q

What does the term “MRD negative” imply?

A

That a technique with adequate sensitivity (≤10-4) has been used with proper technique on an adequate sample and that no residual disease was found at a set cut off point

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7
Q

What conditions are associated with an increased risk of ALL?

A
Down syndrome (20-30 fold risk)
Ataxia telangiectasia
Scwachman-Diamond syndrome
Bloom syndrome 
Li Fraumeni syndrome
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8
Q

Discuss B-ALL with t(9;22)

A
  • Increasing incidence with increasing age: 25% of adult ALL
  • Typically, positive for CD10, TdT and CD19.
  • Frequent expression of the myeloid antigens CD13, CD33. CD25 expression highly associated with BCR-ABL1 in adults.
  • In most childhood cases: a p190 fusion protein is produced. In adults approximately 50% produce the p210 transcripts seen in CML.
  • No definitive clinical differences between the two transcripts.
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9
Q

Discuss B-ALL with t(v;11q23)

A
  • Large number of potential fusion partners. Most common= t(4;11)
  • Most common cytogenetic abnormality in infants with ALL (i.e. <1 year).
  • Only occurs in 1-2% of older children and then becomes increasingly common with age into adulthood.
  • Characteristically positive for CD15 and CD65.
  • Poor prognosis
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10
Q

Discuss B-ALL with t(12;21)

A
  • Myeloid associated antigens, especially CD13 are frequently expressed.
  • Favourable prognosis, cure seen in >90% of children.
  • Relapses often occur much later than do those of other types of ALL
  • Cytogenetically cryptic: diagnosed on FISH.
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11
Q

What is B-ALL with hyperdiploidy?

A
  • Blasts contain >50 chromosomes (usually <66), typically without translocations or other structural variants.
  • Increases of chromosome 21, X, 14 and 4 are the most common.
  • Simultaneous trisomies involving 4 and 10 carry the best prognosis.
  • Very favourable prognosis
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12
Q

What is B-ALL with hypodiploidy?

A
  • Blasts contain <46 chromosomes.
  • Three subtypes:
    i. Near-haploid ALL (23- 29 chromosomes)
    ii. Low hypodiploid (33- 39 chromosomes)
    iii. High hypodiploid (40-43 chromosomes)
  • Low hypodiploid often associated with TP53 mutations (some of which are germline)
  • Poor prognosis
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13
Q

Discuss Ph-like B-ALL

A
  • Lack the BCR-ABL translocation but show a pattern of gene expression that is very similar to that seen in ALL with BCR-ABL1.
  • Frequently harbour IKZF1 alterations (as seen in Ph B-ALL)
  • Harbour a diverse range of genetic alterations including translocations involving tyrosine kinases (ABL1, JAK2, the JAK-STAT pathway), CRLF2 or less commonly rearrangements leading to truncation and activation of the EPO receptor (EPOR2).
  • Relatively common entity with an incidence that peaks in young adults/ the AYA population
  • Ph like ALL is overrepresented in high-risk ALL (even in children) and in those with Down syndrome (where the genetic lesion often involves CRLF2 translocations).
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14
Q

How is Ph like B-ALL diagnosed?

A
  • Most centres will perform Ph like testing on those with who do not have recurrent cytogenetic abnormalities on the standard ALL FISH panel
  • This can be performed by FISH or microarray
  • Standard FISH panel for Ph like ALL:
    CRLF2
    JAK2
    EPOR
    CSF1R
    ABL1
    ABL2
    PDGFRB
  • Those with CRLF2 translocations show high levels of surface expression of CRLF2 via flow cytometry which can be used to screen for this entity.
  • Poor prognosis. Higher risk for MRD positivity
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15
Q

Discuss B-ALL with iAMP21

A
  • Characterised by amplification of a portion of chromosome 21.
  • Typically detected by FISH using a probe for the ETV6-RUNX1 translocation that reveals 5 or more copies of the gene (or 3 or more extra copies on a single chromosome).
  • High rates of CRLF2 rearrangements.
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16
Q

What are the most common cytogenetic abnormalities seen in T-ALL

A
  • Involve the genes of the alpha and delta loci (on chromosome 14q) and the beta locus (7q) and gamma locus (7p).
  • In most cases specific translocations lead to overexpression of 5 genes
    1) TAL or LMO1
    2) TLX1 (relatively favourable prognosis)
    3) TLX3
    4) HOXA4
17
Q

What is early T cell precursor T-ALL?

A

Blast cells committed to the T-cell lineage but with a unique immunophenotype indicating only limited early T-cell differentiation.
Immunophenotype:
- CD7+, usually express cCD3, CD2. CD1a and CD8-
- Positive for one or more of the stem cell/ myeloid markers: HLA-DR, CD34, CD117, CD13, CD33, CD11b or CD65
- MPO negative (otherwise mixed lineage leukaemia is a more appropriate diagnosis).
- Increase in ‘AML-like’ mutations: DNMT3A, IDH1/2, NRAS, FLT3

18
Q

What immunophenotypic features are classical for cortical T-ALL?

A
  • CD1a positivity

- CD4+ and D8+

19
Q

What is the definition of mixed phenotypic acute leukaemia?

A

Includes cases that were previously referred to as bilineage leukemia (two distinct populations of blasts that can be assigned to different lineages) and biphenotypic acute leukemia (a single blast cell population that expresses antigens of more than one lineage on the same cell)

  • Myeloid lineage: MPO+ OR ≥2 monocytic markers
  • T cell lineage: cytoCD3 OR sCD3
  • B cell lineage: Strong CD19 with ≥1 of the following strongly expressed: CD79a, cytoplasmic CD22, CD10 OR weak expression with ≥2.
20
Q

What are the subtypes of mixed phenotype acute leukaemia?

A
  • Ph+ MPAL

- Ph- MPAL (MPAL with t(v;11q23.3), MPAL B/myeloid, NOS and MPAL T/myeloid, NOS)