Blood Bank Flashcards

1
Q

What are some of the advantages of using an electronic cross match?

A
  • Reduced technical workload
  • Less handling of biohazardous material
  • Elimination of insignificant false-positive results in the IS
  • Improved blood stock management
  • Rapid availability of blood
  • Ability to issue blood electronically at remote sites
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2
Q

Why isn’t ABO HDFN seen in all babies with an ABO incompatibility and a group O mother?

A

○ IgG antibodies are usually but not always warm.
○ Density of antigen expression can be lower on foetal red cells
○ A and B antigens are expressed on many non-red cell tissues which can absorb antibody

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3
Q

What are the causes of discrepant reverse grouping?

A
  • Variant of A (A3)
  • Recent transfusion with blood group O
  • Recent ABO mismatched HSCT
  • Fetal maternal haemorrhage
  • Loss of antigen
  • Neonate (reverse group depends upon what maternal antibodies are present)
  • Rouleaux
  • Cold reactive auto-antibody
  • Non-specific agglutination
  • Technical issue
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4
Q

Causes of no reverse group?

A

• Loss of antibody
○ Recent PLEX
○ Hypogammaglobulinemia

  • Neonate
  • Technical issue
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5
Q

How do you investigate discrepant reverse grouping?

A

• If blood group A
○ Test with plant lectin (reacts with A1, not A2)
○ Confirm with genotype (A3)

• If FMH suspected
○ Kleihauer
○ Flow cytometry

• If rouleaux
○ Disperse by suspending in saline

• If cold agglutination
○ Warm sample and perform testing at 37deg
○ +/- DAT, cold agglutination screen

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6
Q

How should ABO and Rh typing be performed when it is being done in the donor/ patient for the for time?

A
  • ABO= forward and reverse group performed twice, preferably by 2 different people
  • Rh= twice with 2x different anti-D clones
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7
Q

What is weak D and why is it important?

A
  • Qualitative defect: all epitopes of D antigen expressed on RBCs but are present at a lower density.

○ Some forms of weak D may show a weak or no reaction with D when tested with a direct test at room temperature
○ Therefore most weak D patients will appear as D- when conventional typing methods are used.

• The importance of detecting weak D differs depending upon the population being tested:
○ Not important if patient/ recipient is typed as D- and gets D- blood
○ Is important if a weak D donor is typed as D- and given to D- patients.
○ May result in inappropriate use of RhIg if a weak D positive mother is typed as RhD- (Weak D subtypes other than 1, 2 and 3 should still receive RhIg).

○All D- donors screened for weak D.

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8
Q

What is partial D and why is type VI the most important type of partial D?

A

Quantitative defect: absence of a portion or portions of the total material that comprises the D antigen

DVI variant is the most immunogenic of the D variants.

Important to determine if the reagent you are using to type D is sensitive or insensitive to DVI

  • Donors with DVI should be typed as D+, sensitive reagent used
  • Patients with DVI should be typed as D-, insensitive reagent used
  • Pregnant patients with DVI should be typed as D-, insensitive reagent used
  • Neonates with DVI should be typed as D+, sensitive reagent used.
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9
Q

With respect to the Rh antigens, what are compound genes and what are two examples?

A
  • Epitopes which occur due to the presence of two Rh genes on the same chromosome (i.e in a cis position)
  • ce in cis (i.e. dce)= forms the antigens c, e and f (which is c+e)
  • Ce in cis (i.e. DCe)= forms the antigen C, e and Ce (Rh1))
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10
Q

What additional tests should you do when someone has an anti-E antibody on serological testing?

A

R1R1 who make anti-E frequently make anti-c
○ Patients with anti-E should be phenotyped for c antigen
○ If patients appear to be R1R1, should be transfused with R1R1 blood
○ Anti-c frequently falls below detectable levels.

(anti D and anti C, anti D and anti G, anti c and anti f also commonly occur together)

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11
Q

Which blood group antigens are enhanced, unaffected and reduced by enzyme treatment?

A

Enhanced

  • ABO/H
  • Rh
  • Kidd
  • Lewis
  • I

Unaffected
- K

Reduced

  • Duffy
  • MNS
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12
Q

What are the causes of a pan reactive panel with varying reaction strengths seen?

A

Autoantibody showing a degree of specificity
Autoantibody + alloantibody
Single alloantibody that shows dosage
Multiple alloantibodies

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13
Q

What are the Chido Rodgers antigens and how is the neutralisation test performed?

A
  • Not true blood group antigens: located on C4b which gets absorbed onto the RBC surface
  • Rg found in >98% of population
  • Anti-Rg= IgG and detected with IAT but does not cause HFDN or transfusion reactions
  • Neutralisation test:
    1) Equal vol patient plasma and pooled normal plasma (normal plasma contains Rg antigen and will neutralises any antibody present)
    2) Neutralised plasma tested against panel of red cells where reactivity was seen
    3) Control (using 6% alb in place normal plasma) must remain positive while the neutralised plasma will be negative
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14
Q

In what situations can a positive DAT be seen?

A
○ Transfusion reaction
○ Immune mediated haemolysis
○ HFDN
○ Passive acquisition of alloantibodies (i.e. The foetus/ neonate, post IVIG)
○ Post ABO incompatible solid organ or HSCT transplantation (DAT produced by donor/ passenger lymphocytes)
○ Autoimmune conditions- SLE
○ Hypergammaglobulinemia
○ Hospitalised/ unwell patients
○ Healthy donors
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15
Q

How can red cell phenotyping be performed on cells with a positive DAT?

A

Use monoclonal IgM reagents
○ Such reagents not available for Fya, Fyb

For the Duffy antibodies and where the control column is positive with monoclonal reagents:
○ EGA treatment (will destroy Kell but not the other clinically significant antigens)

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16
Q

When is an elution performed?

A
  • To identify autoantibodies coating red cells in vivo.
  • To identify causative alloantibodies in cases of transfusion reaction.
  • To identify maternal antibodies coating baby’s red cells in HDFN.
  • To isolate specific antibodies from plasma containing multiple antibodies, by absorbing antibodies from the plasma onto selected red cells in vitro and performing an elution.
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17
Q

What are some of the causes of a non-reactive eluate?

A
  • Antibody to an antigen not represented on the test cells
  • Anti-A or Anti-B antibodies present and test performed on standard, group O cells (HDFN, post transplant, post IVIG or transfusion of ABO mismatched plasma or platelets)
  • Antibody directed against drug or drug metabolite rather than a red cell antigen.
  • Autoimmune process may cause non-specific binding to the red cell
  • No IgG on red cells- complement only
  • Antibody recombined with antigen before the eluate was separated from the cells.
  • Inadequate washing
  • Old sample.
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18
Q

What serological tests should be performed in the work up of warm AIHA?

A
  • Blood grouping (not affected –> IgM, RT)
  • Screen and panel (panreactive)
  • DAT (positive)
  • Elution (pan-reactive)
  • Extended phenotype (Rh, K, Kidd, S, s by monoclonal IgM antisera IS, duffy post EGA treatment using IAT)
  • Genotype if transfused in past 3 months
  • Adsorption (auto if enough blood volume, not transfused otherwise allo adsorption)
19
Q

What are the main issues with alloadsorptions

A

□ Weak alloantibodies may not be detected.
□ Incomplete adsorption may lead to erroneous interpretation of results
□ Autoantibodies that mimic alloantibodies may be misinterpreted as alloantibodies
□ Can lead to delays in issuing blood for transfusion
□ Risks removing alloantibodies to a high incidence antigen.

20
Q

What are the benefits of PAM blood?

A
  • Donor blood matched with the patients extended phenotype.
  • Avoids incompatibility with any alloantibodies that may be present.
  • Prevents the development of new clinically significant alloantibodies.
  • Removes the need for extensive pre-transfusion testing which can lead to delays in provision of red cells.
21
Q

What is paroxysmal cold haemoglobinuria?

A
  • Rare condition caused by a biphasic auto-anti-P antibody.
  • Binds to red cells at temperatures <37 degrees and fixes complement.
  • As the blood warms to core temperature, cells are destroyed by intravascular haemolysis
  • Transient, self limited disease. Often occurs following infection with mycoplasma pneumoniae or other viruses.
  • The biphasic nature of the antibody is demonstrated using the Donath-Landsteiner test.
  • DAT positive to complement only since the IgG is no longer present on the cells at 37 degrees.
22
Q

What are the three components of the work up of a cold agglutinin?

A
  • Identification: expected result most commonly anti-I
  • Titration: expected result >64, often above 1024
  • Thermal amplitude: expected result at or near 37 degrees.
23
Q

What is the dose of RhD administered in pregnancy?

A
  • As a guide, 625 IU protects against a FMH of up to 6 mL of Rh(D) positive red blood cells (i.e. 1mL= 100IU).
  • If the event occurs during the first trimester, a dose of 250 IU is indicated.
  • Beyond the first trimester, a full dose of 625 IU is indicated.
  • If the pregnancy is of twins, the 625 IU dose is indicated throughout.
  • In all cases beyond 20 weeks, the size of the FMH should be assessed,
24
Q

What are the group 1 and group 2 antibodies in HFDN?

A
  • Group 1 Anti - D, - C ,- c, , - E, - e, , - K, - k, - Fya
  • Group 2 Group 2 Anti - Cw, - Fyb, - Jka, - Jkb, -Jk3, - S, - s, -M,
25
Q

What titration cell phenotypes does NZBS use for antenatal titrations?

A
  • Two indicator cells are prepared from pooled group O donor red cells of specific red cell phenotypes.
  • The two donors for Titration Indicator Cell 1 are R1R2 and therefore useful for titrating Rh antibodies.
  • The two donors for Titration Indicator Cell 2 are rr.
  • For the other antigens, heterozygous expression is desired as this reflects the antigen expression on the fetal red cells.
26
Q

What is classified as a significant increase in titre when monitoring HFDN?

A

Increase of two dilutions or more, or where the titre has risen on the last two or more occasions of testing

27
Q

At what stage is fetal monitoring required in HFDN

A

Only performed after 18 weeks gestation

  • Anti-K: performed irrespective of the titre
  • Anti-D: performed when the titre in >16
  • All other clinically significant antibodies: performed when titre >32
28
Q

How often is titration performed in those with clinically significant alloantibodies who are pregnant

A
  • On the “booking bloods”
  • At 18 weeks
  • Monthly from 18- 28 weeks
  • Fortnightly after 28 weeks
  • Titrations stopped if fetal monitoring has been commenced (as this is a more accurate means to assess severity of HFDN).
29
Q

ANZSBT guidelines state that in neonates, during any one hospitalisation, compatibility testing and repeat ABO and RhD typing may be omitted provided which 4 criteria are met?

A

1) DAT negative
2) Antibody screen negative
3) Transfused only group O blood
4) Baby’s name does not change during admission

30
Q

What are the requirements for red cell components in neonates?

A

○ Group O
○ Haemolysin free
○ Compatible with any clinically significant antibodies in the mother

○ They may be CMV negative in some patients.
○ They may be irradiated (must be in top up transfusions in those with prior IUT, exchange transfusions and in some premature neonates)
- If one red cell unit is given, there is no special post-irradiation time-frame
- If more than one unit is required within 24hrs, blood should be irradiated within 24hrs of transfusion

31
Q

In addition to the standard requirements for neonates, what special requirements are necessary for products used in neonatal exchange transfusion?

A

Whole blood plasma reduced
○ DAT negative
○ No more than 5 days old to minimise hyperkalaemia and the number of non-functional RBCs.
○ Must be CMV negative if baby under 1500g or had IUT. Should be CMV negative in other cases
○ Must be irradiated unless radiation will cause an unacceptable delay.

32
Q

What are the transfusion requirements for IUT?

A

○ Group O
○ Haemolysin negative
○ Compatible with mothers clinically significant antibodies
○ Usually RhD- (rr), K- but depends on maternal antibodies
○ DAT negative
○ Up to 5 days old
○ CMV negative
○ Must be irradiated within 24hrs of IUT.

33
Q

What tests are performed on the implicated units, pre and post transfusion samples in a transfusion reaction?

A

Testing on the red cell unit implicated:
• Blood group, DAT, IAT cross-match, urgent gram stain and culture

Testing on plasma or platelet unit implicated:
• Reverse ABO group only, urgent gram stain and culture

Testing on pre and post transfusion samples if red cells involved:
• Blood group, antibody screen, DAT and IAT cross match

Testing on pre and post transfusion samples if plasma or platelets involved:
• Blood group, DAT

34
Q

What is haemovigilance?

A
  • Co-ordinated surveillance of blood and blood products from donors to recipients “vein to vein”.
  • Quality activity
  • Transfusion community needs data to be able to undertake continuous process improvements and hemovigilance is the way that we get that data

• Comprises surveillance of
1) Donor:
○ Donor demographics
○ Donor viral infections

2) Manufacturing
○ Process control of the manufacturing of components

3) Issuing
○ Sample labelling
○ Component utilisation

4) Recipients
○ Adverse events in recipients
- Monitoring SAE rates with feedback loops to decrease the rate of events/ lead to systems with improved performance.
- Red cell sensitisation rates

○ Recipient demographics
○ Patient haemoglobin levels prior to transfusion

5) Other
○ Audits

35
Q

What are the arguments for using group A plasma as an alternative to AB in emergency settings?

A

1) 80-85% of patients will type as group O or A
2) Unexpected and significant blood loss typically is replaced with group O RBCs or low-titre group O whole blood, thereby reducing the susceptibility to haemolysis from the anti-B isoantibodies contained in group A plasma
3) ~80% of group B and AB recipients will be secretors of soluble B substance which will facilitate neutralization of anti-B
4) Experiences from the transfusion of group A platelets to group B and AB patients have demonstrated that complications are uncommon.
5) Observational evidence demonstrates B and AB patients transfused with A plasma do not have a higher mortality or morbidity than those who receive ABO-compatible plasma.

36
Q

What are the principles for blood product support for ABO mismatched transplants?

A

1) Major ABO incompatibility
- RBCs: group O or blood group compatible with both donor and recipient.
- Platelets: compatible with the donor (and recipient where the donor is AB)
- FFP: compatible with the donor

2) Minor ABO incompatibility
- RBCs: Group O or blood group compatible with both donor and recipient.
- Platelets: compatible with the recipient (and donor where the recipient is AB)
- FFP: compatible with the recipient

3) Bidirectional ABO mismatch
- RBCs: Group O
- Platelets: Match recipient
- FFP: group AB

37
Q

Discuss the ways in which the risk of infection in blood products can be mitigated.

A
  • Identify and exclude high risk donors: medical history/ blood donor questionnaires
  • Procedures that reduce incentives for individuals at a greater risk of transmitting an infectious organism (i.e. no payment for donation).
  • Skin disinfection of the venipuncture site
  • Diversion of the first 30-50mL of the donation
  • Laboratory testing for infectious organisms.
  • Appropriate storage and transport conditions of the donation and associated components.
  • BACT for platelet transfusion.
  • Pathogen reduction strategies
  • Solvent Detergent Treatment
  • Chemical cross linking compound + light to cause DNA damage (methylene blue +visible light, Riboflavin + UV light, Amotosalen + UVA light)
  • Ultraviolet light without a chemical cross linking compound

• Avoidance of unnecessary transfusion.

38
Q

What are the mandatory serology and NAT tests that need to be performed on every donation?

A

Serology tests:

  • HbSAg
  • HIV
  • HCV
  • Syphilis
  • HTLV 1 and 2

NAT tests:

  • HIV RNA
  • HCV RNA
  • HBV DNA
39
Q

What additional infectious disease serological tests can be performed in select population groups?

A
  • CMV
  • Trypanosomi Cruzii
  • Malaria
40
Q

What is the BacT / ALERT System?

A
  • Fully automated blood culture system that is effective in detecting bacterial contamination in platelet concentrates.
  • Mandatory pre-release testing of all platelet components on day 2 of the platelet shelf-life.
  • Testing involves a two bottle culture system (aerobic and anaerobic) using a minimum 7.5 mL sample volume in each bottle.
41
Q

What are the two main theories of the pathogenesis of TRALI?

A

1) Antibody mediated TRALI
○ Antibodies in the donor product interact with recipient neutrophils, cause neutrophil sequestration and aggregation in the pulmonary capillaries, neutrophil activation and release of ROS in the pulmonary endothelium

2) Two-event mechanism
○ Most patients are ill before they experience TRALI
○ The injured endothelium releases cytokines, ROS etc.. Which attracts and then activates neutrophils.
○ The presence of HLA antibodies further activates the neutrophils. This causes the vasculature within the lungs to become porous leading to non-cardiogenic pulmonary.

42
Q

What are the risk factors for TRALI?

A

1) Recipient: Critical illness. Recent surgery, cytokine treatment, massive blood transfusion, liver disease, sepsis and smoking.
2) Blood product: Most commonly with RBCs. FFP, apheresis platelet concentrates and whole blood carry the greatest risk per transfusion episode.
3) Donor: Female, multiparous donors.

43
Q

How are the blood donors managed in the event of TRALI?

A

All products administered to the affected patient within a 6 hr period preceding symptom onset and the donors must be identified.

  • Female donors placed off service until investigations are complete
  • Female donors are investigated as a priority, over male donors.
  • Implicated donors tissue typed for HLA class I and II antibodies and undergo HNA antibody testing (performed in Brisbane).
The donor is implicated if:
• The crossmatch between donor serum and recipients cells is positive
• The donor has an antibody with specificity against one of the recipient’s HLA antigens.
• The donor has an HNA antibody which shows specificity
• If class I and/or class II antibodies are found with PRA >6% in either class.

If the donor is implicated, a permanent deferral is necessary.

44
Q

What are some of the complications of acute blood loss associated with large volume transfusions?

A

1) Microvascular bleeding (with or without lab evidence of DIC)
2) Hypocalcaemia
3) Hyperkalaemia
4) Hypothermia
5) Acid base disturbances
6) ARDS