Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MBBS Y5 > Paediatrics > Flashcards

Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three fetal shunts?

A

Ductus venosus (umbilical vein to inferior vena cava)Foramen ovale (right atrium to left atrium)Ductus arteriosus (Pulmonary artery to aorta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How can you keep the ductus arteriosus open and when might you want to keep it open?

A

Prostaglandin infusionWhen there is a cardiac abnormality causing right->left shunt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are features of an innocent murmur?

A

SoftShortSystolicSymptom-lessSituation dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What murmur is associated with an atrial septal defect?

A

Ejection systolic murmur, crescendo decrescendo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What murmur is associated with a PDA?

A

Machinery murmur of 2nd heart sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What murmur is associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Ejection systolic murmur heard best at LUSE (pulmonary stenosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which congenital heart conditions cause CYANOTIC heart disease?

A

Tetralogy of FallotTransposition of the great arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What murmur is associated with aortic stenosis? What other features are there?

A

Ejection systolic murmur, crescendo-decrescendo Narrow pulse pressureSlow rising pulseSoft or absent S2 S4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is aortic stenosis managed?

A

If asymptomatic -> observeIf symptomatic -> valve replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common complication of aortic stenosis?

A

Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What conditions are associated with pulmonary stenosis?

A

Tetralogy of FallotWilliam syndromeNoonan syndromeCongenital rubella syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does pulmonary stenosis present?

A

Ejection systolic murmur - louder on inspirationOften found incidentallySymptoms can be fatigue, SOB, failure to thrive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What murmur is associated with pulmonary stenosis? What other signs are there?

A

Ejection systolic murmur loudest in the pulmonary areaPalpable thrillRight ventricular heave due to RV HypertrophyRaised JVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are causes of heart failure in: Neonates, infants, and older children?

A

Neonates = due to obstructed circulation (Hypoplastic left heart syndrome, aortic stenosis, coaractation of the aorta, interruption of aortic arch)Infants = due to high pulmonary blood flow (ventricular septal defect, atrioventricular septal defect, large PDA_Older children (Eisenmenger syndrome, Rheumatic heart Disease, Cardiomyopathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which heart conditions cause a left to right shunt?

A

ASDVSDPDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which heart conditions cause a right to left shunt?

A

Tetralogy of FallotTransposition of the great arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which type of shunt causes cyanosis?

A

Right to left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are signs of heart failure in neonates/infants?

A

BreathlessnessSweatingPoor feedingRecurrent chest infectionsFailure to thrive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are symptoms and signs of atrial septal defect?

A

Symptoms = wheeze, may be often asymptomaticSigns = Ejection systolic murmurFixed, widely split S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is seen on CXR in atrial septal defect?

A

CardiomegalyEnlarged pulmonary arteriesIncreased pulmonary vascular markings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does a ventricular septal defect present?

A

If it’s smaller than the aortic valve (<3mm) = asymptomatic, LOUD pan systolic murmur at LLSE, quiet pulmonary S2, CXR = normal. If larger than aortic valve = presents with heart failure, recurrent chest infections, SOFT pan systolic murmur, LOUD pulmonary S2. CXR shows signs of heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is a ventricular septal defect managed?

A

Smaller asymptomatic VSD = close spontaneouslyLarger symptomatic VSD = Surgical repair required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are signs of a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Continuous machinery murmurLeft subclavicular thrillBounding collapsing pulseWide pulse pressureHeaving apex beat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is a patent ductus arteriosus managed?

A

In preterm infants can give Indomethacin/Ibuprofen to help close the PDAIf asymptomatic - wait to see if it closes by 1 year If symptomatic - needs closing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Eisenmenger syndrome and which conditions typically can cause it?

A

When a heart condition causing a L to R shunt, eventually causes pulmonary HTN and therefore it becomes a R to L shuntThis leads to cyanosis Causes= ASD, VSD, PDA,TOF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How is Eisenmenger syndrome managed?

A

Complete heart-lung transplantation required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which congenital heart condition is associated with Turner syndrome?

A 
Coarctation of the aortaAortic stenosis (due to bicuspid aortic valve)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How does coarctation of the aorta present?

A

Weak femoral pulsesMid systolic murmurTachypnoeaRadio-femoral delayApical click

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is coarctation of the aorta managed?

A

If critical, need to keep ductus arteriosus open with prostaglandin infusion whilst awaiting surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the 4 features of Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  1. Ventricular septal defect2. Right ventricular hypertrophy3. Pulmonary stenosis4. Overriding aorta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does Tetralogy of Fallot cause cyanosis?

A

Pulmonary stenosis means that there is higher pressure on R side of heart, this means that there is a R to L shunt through the VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How does Tetralogy of Fallot present?

A

Ejection systolic murmur (due to pulmonary stenosis)Cyanosis”Tet spells” - cyanotic episodes, infant will typically squat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is seen on CXR in Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Boot shaped heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How is Tetralogy of Fallot managed?

A

Surgical repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is Ebstein’s Anomaly?

A

A congenital heart defect where the tricuspid valve is set lower than usual, causing the RA to be larger than usual and the RV to be smaller than usual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are signs of transposition of the great arteries?

A

Loud single S2 Prominent right ventricular impulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does a continuous machinery murmur indicate?

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What can an ejection systolic murmur indicate?

A

Aortic stenosis - LLSE (crescendo-decrescendo)Pulmonary stenosis - Pulmonary areaAtrial septal defect (crescendo-decrescendo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Aortic stenosis vs. ASD?

A

Aortic stenosis = narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, soft S2ASD = fixed splitting of S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What might be seen on an ECG in an ASD?

A

RBBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which condition can cause patients with a DVT to develop a stroke?

A

Atrial septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are signs of respiratory distress in children?

A

Raised RRUse of accessory musclesIntercostal/subcostal recessionsNasal flaringHead bobbingTracheal tugging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are causes of stridor?

A

Croup - stridor + barking coughAcute epiglottitis - stridor, drooling, acutely unwellInhaled foreign body - chokingLaryngomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the cause of bronchiolitis?

A

RSV (Respiratory syncytial virus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How does bronchiolitis present?

A

Coryzal symptoms - runny nose, watery eyes, sneezingDry coughMild feverWheezeDyspnoeaTachypnoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When should a child with bronchiolitis be admitted?

A

Under 3 monthsPre-existing health condition Clinical dehydrationRR > 70Oxygen sats <92%ApnoeasDeep recessionsHead bobbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How is bronchiolitis managed?

A

SupportiveSupplementary oxygen if required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which children are at risk of severe bronchiolitis?

A

Bronchopulmonary dysplasiaCongenital heart diseaseCystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How to differentiate Asthma vs. Viral induced wheeze?

A

Viral induced wheeze..Features of viral illness e.g. coryza, feverPresents prior to 3 yearsNo atopy historyOnly occurs during infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How is viral induced wheeze managed?

A

1st line = Salbutamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the stepwise management of Asthma in under 5’s?

A
  1. SABA (e.g. Salbutamol)2. Low dose ICS or Montelukast3. Add other option4. Refer to specialist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the most common bacterial and viral cause of pneumonia in children?

A

Strep pneumoniaeRSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How does pneumonia present?

A

Productive coughFeverTachypnoeaTachycardiaHypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How is pneumonia managed in children?

A

1st line = Amoxicillin2nd line = Macrolide (Clarithromycin, Erythromycin, Azithromycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is croup? What is the most common causative organism?

A

Upper respiratory tract infection which causes laryngeal oedema, leading to stridorMost common = Parainfluenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How does croup present?

A

StridorBarking coughLow grade feverCoryzaIncreased work of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When should a child with croup be admitted?

A

Stridor at restRecessionsAny significant distressTachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How is croup treated?

A

Single dose oral DexamethasoneOxygen if required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What organism causes epiglottitis?

A

Haemophilus influenza type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How does epiglottitis present?

A

Acute onsetSore throatStridorTripod positionHigh feverDrooling of saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is seen on neck XR in epiglottitis?

A

Thumb sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How is epiglottitis managed?

A

IV CeftriaxoneOxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is Laryngomalacia?

A

Soft larynxLarynx causes partial airway obstructionCauses chronic stridor on inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How is Laryngomalacia managed?

A

Problem usually resolves as the larynx matures and grows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is whooping cough?

A

URTI caused by Bordatella pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How does whooping cough present?

A

Sats with coryza symptomsThen - Severe coughing fits, worse at nightInspiratory whoop at end of coughing fit May be vomitingMay be apnoea attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How is whooping cough treated?

A

Supportive careIn first 21 days - can use oral macrolide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What do infants with bronchopulmonary dysplasia receive to reduce infections?

A

Monthly injection of Palivizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What type of inheritance pattern does cystic fibrosis have?

A

Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the first signs of CF?

A

Meconium ileusProlonged jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are features of CF?

A

Chronic coughThick sputumRecurrent infectionsGreasy stoolsFinger clubbingPancreatic enzyme deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are common colonisers in CF?

A

Staph aureusPseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic investigation for CF? What does it show?

A

Sweat test showing increased chloride levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How is CF managed?

A

Chest physioHigh calorie idetPancreatic enzyme supplementationProphylactic flucloxacilin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are complications of CF?

A

DiabetesDelayed pubertyMale infertilityNasal polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Why are males with CF often infertile?

A

Absence of the vas deferens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is primary ciliary dyskinesia?

A

Autosomal recessive conditionTRIAParanasal sinusitisBronchiectasisSitus invertus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is abdominal migraine?

A

Episodes of central abdominal pain lasting more than 1 hourIntense and acute pinInterferes with normal activityAssociated N+V, headache, photophobia, aura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How can abdominal migraine be treated?

A

Dark, quiet roomParacetamolSumatriptanPropylaxis –> Pizotifen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is classed as constipation in children?

A

<3 stools per week (does not apply to exclusively breastfed babies)Rabbit dropping stools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How can you differentiate between primary and secondary constipation?

A

Secondary constipation is from birth If meconium takes longer than 48 hours to pass, ribbon stools, faltering growth, or vomiting - referral needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How is primary/idiopathic constipation treated?

A

First line in children is an osmotic laxative e.g. MovicolIf no response can add a stimulant e.g. Senna +/Lactulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the main cause of reflux in babies?

A

Immaturity of the lower oesophageal sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How can reflux in babies be managed?

A

Small, frequent feedsBurp regularlyKeep baby upright after feeding If still problematic can mix Gaviscon with feeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is pyloric stenosis?

A

Hypertrophy and narrowing of the pyloric sphincter (the ring of muscle between the stomach and duodenum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How does pyloric stenosis present?

A

Usually presents in 2nd-4th week of lifePeristalsis tries to push food down to the duodenum but it instead ejects upwards Projectile vomiting (non-bilious)May be constipation/diarrhoeaMay be a palpable mass due to hypertrophied pyloric sphincter (often mentioned as olive shaped mass)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What blood gas results are seen in pyloric stenosis?

A

Low chlorideLow potassiumAlkalosis Due to baby vomiting hydrochloric acid from stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are signs of clinical dehydration in children?

A

Decreased urine outputSunken eyesDry mucuous membranesTachycardiatachypnoeaReduced skin turgor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are signs of clinical shock in children?

A

Decreased consciousnessCold extremitiesPale/mottled skinTachycardiaTachypnoeaWeak peripheral pulsesProlonged cap refillHypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How to calculate replacement fluids in children?

A

(% dehydration x kg x 10) = mls of fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How to calculate maintenance fluids in children?

A

First 10kg = 100ml/kgNext 10kg = 50ml/kgAfter that = 20ml/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How to calculate resuscitation fluids in children?

A

Resuscitation fluids = 20ml/kg EXCEPT IN….neonates, DKA, septic shock, trauma, cardiac pathology (heart failure) = 10ml/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

A congenital condition where the nerve cells of the myenteric plexus are absent = absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells along a section of the bowel Aganglionic section does not relax - causing obstruction of the bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What conditions are associated with Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Down’s syndromeNeurofibromatosisMEN II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How does Hirschsprung’s disease present?

A

Delay in passing meconiumIn older children - constipation, vomiting, abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the gold standard diagnosis for Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Rectal biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is intussusception?

A

An invagination of a portion of the bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

How does intussusception present?

A

Severe colicky abdominal painRED CURRANT JELLY STOOLSausage shaped mass in the RUQPale, unwell childVomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is seen on abdominal ultrasound in intussusception?

A

Target shaped mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

How is intussusception managed?

A

Reduction via radiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is biliary atresia?

A

A congenital condition where a section of the bile duct is narrowed or absent , preventing the excretion of conjugated bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

How does biliary atresia present?

A

Presents in first few weeks of life with prolonged jaundiceDark urinePale stools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

How is biliary atresia diagnosed?

A

Raised conjugated billirubinERCP Cholangiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How are umbilical hernias in children managed?

A

Common in neonates – usually resolve by 3 yearsIf not resolved by 5 years can consider surgical repair Note: Umbilical hernias are more common in Down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is congenital diaphragmatic hernia?

A

Herniation of the abdominal viscera into the chest cavity due to incomplete formation of the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

How does congenital diaphragmatic hernia present?

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia + hypertension| Respiratory distress shortly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are causes of cerebral palsy?

A

Antenatal:Maternal infectionTrauma during pregnancyPerinatal:Birth asphyxiaPreterm birthPostnatal:MeningitisSevere neonatal jaundiceHead injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are the types of cerebral palsy?

A

Spastic (hypotonia - LMN)Dyskinetic (hyper and hypotonia (damage to basal ganglia)Ataxic (problems with co-ordination - damage to cerebellum)Mixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How can cerebral palsy present?

A

failure to meet milestonesincreased/decreased tonehand preference <18mproblems with co-ordination/speech/walkingLearning difficulties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Build up of CSF in the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the most common congenital cause of hydrocephalus? What are other causes?

A

Most common= Aqueductal stenosis Other: Arachnoid cystsArnold-Chiari MalformationChromosomal abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is aqueductal stenosis?

A

Cerebral aqueduct that connects the 3rd and 4th ventricles = stenosed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

How does hydrocephalus present?

A 
Rapidly increasing head circumferenceBulging fontanellePoor feedingVomitingPoor toneSleepiness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

How is hydrocephalus managed?

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are complications of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt?

A 
InfectionBlockageExcessive drainageIntraventricular haemorrhageOutgrowing them
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is craniosynostosis?

A

Skull sutures close prematurely - results in a normal head shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is plagiocephaly and brachycephaly?

A

Plagiocephaly = flattening of one area of baby’s headBrachycephaly = flattening of back of baby’s head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

How is craniosynostosis investigated?

A

Skull XR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

How does Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy present?

A

Weakness in pelvic musclesGower’s sign +ve (use hands on legs to help them stand up)X-linked recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the most common ocular malignancy in children ad how does it present?

A

RetinoblastomaLoss of red reflexStrabismusVision problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the most common causative organism of scarlet fever?

A

Strep pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

How does scarlet fever present?

A

Fine, pinhead erythema Rough sandpaper like texture to the skinStrawberry tongueFever, malaise, lethargySore throatCan be febrile seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How is scarlet fever managed?

A

Penicillin V - need a prolonged course of 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

How long does a child with scarlet fever need to be kept off school?

A

Until 24 hours after commencing Abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What are complications of scarlet fever?

A

Otitis mediaRheumatic feverAcute glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of otitis media?

A

Strep pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is glue ear?

A

Acute otitis media with effusionMiddle ear becomes full of fluid and leads to hearing lossDue to blockage of the Eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

How is glue ear seen on otoscopy?

A

Dull tympanic membraneAir bubblesVisible fluid level

129
Q

How is glue ear managed?

A

Gommets may be needed if there is a structural abnormality e.g. Down syndrome/cleft palate

130
Q

What are congenital causes of hearing loss?

A

Maternal Rubella/cytomegalovirus Genetic deafnessDown syndrome

131
Q

What are post-birth causes of hearing loss?

A

Jaundice (kernicterus)Meningitis/encephalitisOtitis media/glue earChemotherapy

132
Q

What is cleft lip and cleft palate?

A

Cleft lip = split/open section of upper lip| Cleft palate = defect in hard/soft palate with opening in between mouth and nasal cavity

133
Q

When does surgery for cleft lip and palate occur?

A 
Lip = 3monthsPalate = 6-12 months
134
Q

Which type of congenital neck lump transilluminates? Where does this neck lump usually sit?

A

Cystic hygroma| Posterior to sternocleidomastoid

135
Q

What is the most appropriate hearing test in newborns? What do you do if this test is abnormal?

A

Otoacoustic emission test – should be done as part as the newborn hearing screening programmeIf abnormal – auditory brainstem response test

136
Q

What hearing test is usually done at schools?

A

Pure tone audiometry

137
Q

Which cells produce surfactant?

A

Type 2 alveolar cells

138
Q

What are the 5 parts of neonatal resus?

A
  1. Warm baby2. Calculate APGAR3. Stimulate breathing4. Inflation breaths5. Chest compressions
139
Q

What is used for inflation breaths?

A

Term babies - AirPreterm babies - Air + oxygen

140
Q

What are the five parts of APGAR?

A

Appearance = Blue centrally, blue peripheries, pinkPulse = Absent, <100, >100Grimace = Absent, little response, good responseActivity = None, flexed arms/legs, active.Respiration = Absent, weak, good/crying

141
Q

What is caput succudaneum?

A

Present at birthOedema of the scalp at the presenting part - typically the vertexNo discolouration associated Lump crosses suture lines

142
Q

What is cephalohaematoma?

A

Develops several hours after birth Collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum Lump does not cross suture linesJaundice may be apparent due to blood breakdown

143
Q

What is Erb’s palsy?

A

A result of injury to C5/C6 Internally rotated shoulderExtended elbowPronated wrist

144
Q

What is the most organism responsible for neonatal sepsis?

A

GBS

145
Q

What are features of neonatal sepsis?

A

Respiratory distress - grunting, nasal flaring, tachypnoeaApnoeasFeverReduced toneJaundiceSeizuresPoor feedingVomiting

146
Q

How is neonatal sepsis managed?

A

IV Benzylpenicillin + Gentamicin (suspected or confirmed neonatal sepsis)

147
Q

What are causes of persistent or severe neonatal hypoglycaemia?

A

Preterm birthMaternal DMIUGRHypothermiaNeonatal sepsisInborn errors of metabolismNesidioblastosisBeckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

148
Q

How can neonatal hypoglycaemia present?

A

IrritabilityTachypnoeaPallorPoor feedngDrowsinessHypotoniaSeizures

149
Q

How is neonatal hypoglycaemia treated?

A

Encourage normal feedingIf severe (less than 1) IV 10% dextrose

150
Q

What is hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy? What are the causes?

A

Damage to brain due to hypoxia during birthMaternal shockIntrapartum haemorrhageProlapsed cordNuchal cord (cord wrapped around neck of baby)

151
Q

How can the risk of hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy be reduced?

A

Therapeutic hypothermia after birth

152
Q

When is jaundice pathological in neonates?

A

If it presents in first 24 hours of lifeIf it is prolonged (more than 14 days in term babies, more than 21 days in preterm babies)

153
Q

What are causes of neonatal jaundice?

A

Can be split into causes which cause increased bilirubin production, and causes which cause decreased clearance of bilirubinIncreased production = haemolytic disease, ABO incompatibility, haemorrhage, cephalohaematoma, polycythaemia, G6PDDecreased clearance = prematurity, breast milk jaundice, neonatal cholestasis, biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, Gilbert syndrome

154
Q

What is classed as prolonged jaundice?

A

> 14 days in term neonates>21 days in preterm neonates

155
Q

What is kernicterus? How can it present?

A

Brain damage due to excessive bilirubin - Bilirubin can cross the BBBFloppy, drowsy babyPoor feeding

156
Q

What are risk factors for necrotising enterocolitis?

A

VLBW // very pretermFormula fedRespiratory distressSepsisPDA

157
Q

How does necrotising enterocolitis present?

A

Intolerance to feedsGreen bilious vomitingDistended, tender abdomenAbsent bowel soundsBlood in stools

158
Q

What is seen on Abdominal XR in necrotising enterocolitis?

A

Dilated loops of bowelBowel wall oedemaPneumatosis intestinalis (gas in bowel wall)Pneumoperitoneum (free gas in peritoneal cavity)Football sign = air outlining the falciform ligamentRigler sign = air both inside and outside of the bowel

159
Q

How is NEC managed?

A

NBMIV Fluids TPNSurgery

160
Q

What are causes of bilious vomiting in neonates?

A

Necrotising enterocolitisDuodenal atresiaMeconium ileus

161
Q

Neonate will double bubble sign on abdominal XR?

A

Duodenal atresiaDouble bubble sign = dilation of both the duodenum and the stomach.

162
Q

Bilious vomiting in a neonate with CF?

A

Meconium ileus

163
Q

Neonate with persistent salivation/drooling?

A

Oesophageal atresia

164
Q

What are features of fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

MicrocephalyThin upper lipSmooth, flat philtreShort palpebral fissureLearning disabilityBehavioural difficultiesHearing + vision problemsCerebral palsy

165
Q

What are features of congenital rubella syndrome?

A

Congenital cataractsCongenital heart diseaseLearning disabilityHearing loss

166
Q

What are features of congenital varicella syndrome?

A

Fetal growth restrictionMicrocephalyHydrocephalusLearning difficultyLimb hypoplasiaScarring/skin changes in the dematomesCataracts

167
Q

What is Exomphalos/Omphalocele and Gastroschisis?

A

Exomphalos/Omphacele = abdominal contents protrude through the umbilical ring - covered with a transparent sacGastoschisis = abdomianl contents protrude through defect in anterior abdominal wall - no covering sac

168
Q

What are causes of jaundice presenting within the first 24 hours of life? How should it be investigated?

A

Investigate with a blood film analysis Rhesus haemolytic disease (RHD)ABO incompatibilityGlucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyhereditary spherocytosis

169
Q

How does malrotation present?

A

Bilious vomitingHaemodynamic instability

170
Q

What is seen on abdominal XR in meconium ileus?

A

Air-fluid levels

171
Q

How does meconium ileus present?

A

Failure to pass meconium within 48hrsBillous vomitingAbdominal distension

172
Q

How does meconium aspiration syndrome present?

A

Respiratory distress| Patchy infiltrates on CXR

173
Q

What is transient tachypnoea of the newborn and how does it present?

A

Most common cause of respiratory distress in the newborn periodDelayed resorption of fluid in the lungsLow oxygen sats at birthResolves within a couple of days

174
Q

What is seen on CXR in transient tachypnoea of the newborn?

A

Hyperinflation of the lungs| Fluid in the horizontal fissure

175
Q

Duodenal atresia vs. Malrotation

A

Both present with billous vomiting Duodenal atresia = few hours after birthMalrotation = 3-7 days after birth + signs of haemodynamical instability

176
Q

How is malrotation managed?

A

Ladd’s procedure

177
Q

How does the abdomen feel in duodenal atresia?

A

Soft, distended

178
Q

How does meconium aspiration syndrome present?

A

Respiratory distress| Patchy infiltrates on CXR

179
Q

What is transient tachypnoea of the newborn and how does it present?

A

Most common cause of respiratory distress in the newborn periodDelayed resorption of fluid in the lungsLow oxygen sats at birthResolves within a couple of days

180
Q

What is seen on CXR in transient tachypnoea of the newborn?

A

Hyperinflation of the lungs| Fluid in the horizontal fissure

181
Q

Congenital infection: Sensorineural deafness + congenital cataracts + congenital heart disease (E.g. PDA)?

A

Rubella

182
Q

Congenital infection: Cerebral calcification + Chorioretinitis + Hydrocephalus

A

Toxoplasmosis

183
Q

Congenital infection: Growth retardation. + Purpuric skin lesions

A

Cytomegalovirus

184
Q

What does neonatal resp distress + fluid in the horizontal fissure suggest?

A

Transient tachypnoea of the newborn

185
Q

How do you investigate a child under 6 months with their first UTI? (Not atypical or recurrent, responds well to treatment)

A

Abdominal ultrasound within 6 weeks

186
Q

How do you investigate a child over 6 months with a recurrent UTI?

A

Abdominal ultrasound within 6 weeksDMSA scan within 4-6 months

187
Q

How do you investigate a child over 6 months with an atypical UTI?

A

Ultrasound during illnessDMSA 4-6 months after illness

188
Q

How do you investigate a child under 6 months with a recurrent UTI?

A

Ultrasound during illnessDMSA 4-6 months after illnessMCUG

189
Q

`How do you investigate a child under 6 months with an atypical UTI?

A

Ultrasound during illnessDMSA 4-6 months after illnessMCUG

190
Q

What is classed as an atypical UTI?

A

Seriously ill poor urine flowabdominal or bladder massraised creatininesepticaemiafailure to respond to treatment with suitable antibiotics within 48 hoursinfection with non-E. coli organisms

191
Q

How does nephrotic syndrome present in children?

A

Frothy urineGeneralised oedema - peripheral, ascites, periorbital, pulmonaryPallorLow serum albuminHigh urine proteinOedema

192
Q

What blood results are seen in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Low serum albuminIncreased cholesterol and lipids

193
Q

What is the main complication of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Hypercoagulability causes increased risk of DVT and PE

194
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?

A

Minimal change disease

195
Q

How is minimal change disease managed?

A

Oral prednisoloneIf steroid resistant -> ACEi/immunnosuppresants

196
Q

What is the first line treatment for nocturnal enuresis after all lifestyle measures have been trialled?

A

Under 7 -> enuresis alarmOver 7 -> desmopressin

197
Q

Which type of polycystic kidney disease presents in neonates?

A

Autosomal recessive PKD

198
Q

What are features of autosomal recessive PKD?

A

Can be seen on antenatal scans with:enlargement of collecting ductsOligohydramniosPulmonary hypoplasia (due to oligohydramnios)Potter syndrome Congenital liver fibrosis

199
Q

What is a Wilm’s tumour and how does it present?

A

Specific type of tumour which affects the kidney in childrenMass in abdomenAbdominal painHaematuria LethargyWeight lossFever

200
Q

How is a Wilm’s tumour diagnosed?

A

Abdominal ultrasoundUse MRI/CT to stage

201
Q

How is a Wilm’s tumour treated?

A

Nephrectomy

202
Q

What is a posterior urethral valve?

A

Tissue at the proximal end of the urethra, causing obstruction of urine outflow and build up in the bladderLeads to back flow to the kidney (Hydronephrosis)

203
Q

How does a posterior urethral valve present?

A

Presents antenatally with oligohydramnios and pulmonary hypoplasia

204
Q

How do you manage a neonate with undescended testes?

A

Watch and wait - most will descend by 3-6 months If not descended by 6 months - referral needed

205
Q

What is hypospadias? How is it treated?

A

Congenital abnormality of the penis Urethra is displaced towards the scrotumTreated with corrective surgery at 12 months age

206
Q

What is a hydrocele and how does it present? When are they normal?

A

Collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalisSoft, smooth non-tender swellingTransilluminatesCommon in newborn malesShould absorb by 2 years of age

207
Q

What is the first line management of DKA in a child?

A

Resus fluid of 10ml/kg over 10 mins

208
Q

How can adrenal insufficiency present in a child?

A 
LethargyVomitingPoor feedingHypoglycaemiaJaundiceFailure to thrive
209
Q

What are lab results in primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s)?

A

Low cortisolLow AldosteroneHigh ACTHHigh Renin

210
Q

What are lab results in secondary adrenal insufficiency (due to pituitary)?

A

Low cortisolLow ACTHNormal aldosterone + Normal renin (Aldosterone is produced independently of the pituitary/hypothalamus)

211
Q

What is congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

Congenital deficiency of 21-hydroxylase

212
Q

What is the hereditary pattern of congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

Autosomal recessive

213
Q

How does congenital adrenal hyperplasia affect hormone levels?

A

Low cortisolLow aldosteroneRaised androgens (testosterone)

214
Q

How does a severe case of congenital adrenal hyperplasia present?

A 
Presents in neonatal periodHyponatraemiaHyperkalaemiaHypoglycaemiaPoor feeding, dehydration, vomiting
In females - ambiguous genitalia
215
Q

How does mild congenital adrenal hyperplasia present?

A

Presents during childhood/after pubertyFemales - tall for age, facial hair, best periods, deep voiceMales - tall for age, deep voice, large penis, small testicles Early puberty in both girls and boys

216
Q

How is congenital adrenal hyperplasia treated?

A

Lifelong hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone

217
Q

How does growth hormone deficiency present?

A

Presents at birthHypoglycaemiaSevere jaundiceMicropenis (in boys)If presents later in life - poor growth, short stature, slow development of movement, delayed puberty

218
Q

How is growth hormone deficiency investigated?

A

Growth hormone stimulation test (with glucagon/insulin)MRI BrainXray of wrist to determine bone age

219
Q

How is growth hormone deficiency managed?

A

Daily SC growth hormone (Somatropin)

220
Q

How does puberty progress in girls?

A

Breast buds –> Pubic hair –> menstruation

221
Q

How does puberty progress in boys?

A

Testicles enlargement –> Penis enlargement –> Scrotum darkening –> Pubic hair –> Deepening of voice

222
Q

What age should delayed puberty be investigated in girls?

A

13

223
Q

What age should delayed puberty be investigated in boys?

A

14

224
Q

What are the different types of juvenile idiopathic arthritis? (5)

A

SystemicPolyarticularOligoarticularEnthesitis-relatedPsoriatic

225
Q

How does systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis present? What is seen on blood tests?

A

AKA Still’s diseaseSalmon-pink rashHigh swinging feversLymphadenopathyJoint inflmmation+painWeight lossSPlenomegalyRaised ESR and CRPRaised ferritin, raised platelets

226
Q

What is the most important complication of systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

Macrophage activation syndromeSevere activation of the immune systemCauses an acutely unwell child, DIC, non-blanching rashLOW ESR

227
Q

How is juvenile idiopathic arthritis managed?

A

NSAIDsSteroidsDMARDsBiologics

228
Q

What is Henoch-Scholein purpura and what are the four classic features?

A

A type of IgA vasculitis1. Purpura2. Joint pain3. Abdominal pain (GI haemorrhage, intussusception, bowel infarction)4. Renal involvement (IgA Nephritis - haematuria, proteinuria)

229
Q

How is Henoch-Schonlein purpura diagnosed?

A

Need to exclude other more serious causes of purport - meningococcal septicaemia, leukaemia, ITP, HUSDiagnosis = urine dip, U+E, BP

230
Q

How is Henoch-Schonlein purpura managed?

A

Mainly supportive

231
Q

What is Kawasaki disease and what are the features?

A

A systemic medium-sized vasculitisPersistent high fever (more than 5 days)Widespread erythematous maculopapular rashPeeling skin on palms and solesStrawberry tongueCracked lipsCervical lymphadenopathyBilateral conjunctivitis

232
Q

How is Kawasaki disease managed?

A

High dose aspirin (reduces risk of thrombosis)IV immunoglobulins (reduces risk of coronary artery aneurysm)

233
Q

What is a key complication of Kawasaki disease?

A

Coronary artery aneurysm Needs monitoring with echos

234
Q

Which virus causes hand, foot and mouth disease?

A

Coxsackie A virus

235
Q

How does hand, foot and mouth disease present?

A

Starts as an upper respiratory tract infection- sore throat,t dry cough, feverThen after 1-2 days - small mouth ulcersBlistering red spots mostly on hands, feet and around mouth

236
Q

How is hand foot and mouth disease managed?

A

Supportive

237
Q

How can you differentiate between a nappy rash and a candida infection?

A

Signs that point to candida = Rash extending into the skin foldsWell demarcated borderCircular pattern - similar to ringwormSatellite lesions

238
Q

How does Scabies present?

A

Incredibly itchy small red spotsTrack marks where the mites have burrowed - classically between the fingers

239
Q

How is Scabies managed?

A

1st line = Permethrin creamAll household and physical contacts must be treated

240
Q

What is crusted scabies and how is it treated?

A

Crusted skin with scabiesOccurs in immunocompromised patientsTreated with ivermectin

241
Q

What is the most common causative organism of impetigo?

A

Staph aureus

242
Q

How does impetigo present?

A

Golden crusted lesions typically around the mouth

243
Q

How is impetigo managed?

A

1st line = Hydrogen peroxide 1% creamTopical fusidic acid is an alternativeIf widespread = oral flucloxacillin

244
Q

How long do children with impetigo need to be kept off school?

A

Until lesions are crusted and healed , or 48 hours after starting treatment

245
Q

What virus causes Roseola?

A

Human herpesvirus-6 (HHV-6)

246
Q

How does Roseola present?

A

High fever that comes on suddenly, lasts for 3-5 days then disappearsThen an erythematous macular rash for 1-2 days Often diarrhoea/vomitingFebrile convulsions can occur

247
Q

How does measles present?

A

Prodrome of fever, coryza and conjunctivitisKoplik spots - spots on Buccal mucosa. Pathogenomic for measlesErythematous macular rash which starts on the face - classically behind the ears

248
Q

What are complications of measles?

A

Otitis mediaPneumoniaEncephalitisMeningitisHearing lossVision lossDeath

249
Q

How does rubella present?

A

Milder erythematous rash than measlesStarts on face then spreads to bodyLymphadenopathy

250
Q

How does a Parvovirus B19 infection present?

A

“slapped cheek syndrome”Starts with mild fever, coryza and non-specific viral symptomsThen a few days later - bright red rash on both cheeksThen a reticular (net-like) erythematous rash on trunk and limbs

251
Q

When is Parvovirus B19 infection infectious? (Slapped cheek syndrome)

A

Prior to rash forming - not once rash has formed

252
Q

What are complications of Parvovirus B19?

A

Aplastic anaemia - especially in those with sickle cell anaemia, thalassaemia, and haemolytic anaemias Encephalitis/meningitis

253
Q

What is the most common complication of chickenpox?

A

Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions

254
Q

What is Perthe’s disease? Who does it most commonly affect?

A

Disruption of the blood flow to the femoral head - leads to avascular necrosis Boys aged 4-8

255
Q

What is the long-term affect of Perthe’s disease?

A

Over time, re-vascularisation of the femoral head leads to early hip osteoarthritis

256
Q

How does Perthe’s disease present?

A

Gradual onset of…Pain in the hip/groinLimpingRestricted hip movement

257
Q

How is Perthe’s disease diagnosed?

A

XR may be normal but can show sclerosis and fragmentationMay also show widening of joint space and decreased femoral head size If XR is normal can do an MRI

258
Q

How is Perthe’s disease managed?

A

If less than 50% of the femoral head is affected - conservative managementIf more than 50% affected - plaster castMay need surgical management

259
Q

What is developmental hip dysplasia?

A

Structural abnormality of the hipsCaused by abnormal development of fetal bones during pregnancyTendency for dislocation

260
Q

What are risk factors for developmental hip dysplasia?

A

1st degree family historyBreech presentation from 36 weeksBreech presentation at birthMultiple pregnancy

261
Q

What 2 special tests can be used to diagnose developmental hip dysplasia?

A

Ortolani testBarlow test

262
Q

How is developmental hip dysplasia managed?

A

<6 months = Pavlik harness>6 months = surgery

263
Q

What is Rickets?

A

Defective bone mineralisation caused by a deficiency of vitamin D or calcium, leading to soft/deformed bones due to secondary hyperparathyroidism

264
Q

What are risk factors for Rickets?

A

Dark skinColder climateSpend a lot of time indoors

265
Q

What are symptoms of Rickets?

A

LethargyBone painBone deformityPoor growthmay be symptoms of high serum calcium - stones

266
Q

What bone deformities are seen in Rickets?

A

Bowing of legsKnock kneesRachitic rosary

267
Q

What blood tests should be conducted in suspected Rickets?

A

Serum 25-hydroxyvitamin DLow calciumLow phosphateIncreased ALPIncreased PTH

268
Q

How is Rickets managed?

A

Vitamin D supplementation

269
Q

What is Achondroplasia? What is the hereditary pattern?

A

Most common cause of dwarfismAutosomal dominant

270
Q

What are features of Achondroplasia?

A

Short limbs + short digitsNormal trunk lengthLarge headFlattened mid-face + nasal bridgeForamen magnum stenosis

271
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta? How does it present?

A

A genetic condition causing brittle bones which are prone to fracture Recurrent inappropriate fracturesBlue/grey scleraHypermobilityDeafnessDental imperfections

272
Q

What is slipped upper femoral epiphysis? How does it present?

A

When the head of femur slips along the growth plateMore common in obese children May be some trauma that triggered onset of symptomsPain is disproportionate to severity of traumaRestricted range of movement - Loss of internal rotation Painful limp

273
Q

How is slipped capital femoral epiphysis diagnosed?

A

AP and lateral Xrays

274
Q

How is slipped capital femoral epiphysis managed?

A

Internal fixation with a single cannulated screw

275
Q

What is transient synovitis? How does it present?

A

Acue hip pain following a recent viral infectionLimp/inability to weight bearGroin/hip painLow grade feverSelf-limiting

276
Q

When might you consider septic arthritis over transient synovitis?

A

High grade fever warrants investigation for septic arthritis

277
Q

What are features of Down’s syndrome?

A

Face = upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent epicanthic folds, brush field spots in iris, protruding tongue, small low set ears, flat occipitalSingle palmar creaseSandal gapHypotonia

278
Q

What are cardiac associations with Down’s syndrome?

A

Ventricular septal defectAtrial septal defectAV septal canal defectTetralogy of FallotPDA

279
Q

What are long-term complications of Down’s syndrome?

A

SubfertilityShort statureRecurrent otitis mediaIncreased risk of ALLHypothyrodismAlzheimer’sLearning disability

280
Q

What are clinical features of Klinefelter’s syndrome?

A

Lack of secondary sexual characteristicsTaller than averageSmall testiclesInfertilityGynaecomastia (increased risk of breast cancer)LH and FSH = High

281
Q

Are LH and FSH high or low in Klinefelter’s?

A

High

282
Q

What are features of Turner syndrome?

A

Short statureWebbed neckWidely spaced nipplesPrimary amenorrhoeaHigh-arched palateCubitus valvesLymphoedema as a neonate (esp of feet)

283
Q

What are associated conditions with Turner Syndrome?

A

Bicuspid aortic valveCoarctation of the aortaRecurrent otitis mediaRecurrent UTI

284
Q

What hereditary pattern does Noonan syndrome have?

A

Autosomal dominant

285
Q

What are features of Noonan syndrome?

A

Short statureWebbed neckWidely spaced nipplesBroad foreheadDownward facing eyesLow set earsTriangular facePtosis

286
Q

What conditions are associated with Noonan Syndrome?

A

Congenital heart disease - esp pulmonary valve stenosisUndescended testesLearning disabilityCoagulation problems

287
Q

What hereditary pattern does Marfan syndrome have?

A

Autosomal dominant

288
Q

What are features of Marfan syndrome?

A

Tall statureLong neckLong limbsLong fingersHigh arched palateHyper mobilityPectus excavatumPes planus (flat foot)

289
Q

What conditions are associated with Marfan syndrome?

A

Upward lens dislocationDilation of aortic sinuses - can lead to aortic aneurysm/dissection/regurg Mitral valve prolapse - can lead to mitral regurgitationRecurrent pneumothoraxScoliosisDuctal ectasia

290
Q

What medication can be used in Marfan syndrome to reduce morbidity/mortality?

A

Beta blocker or ACEi

291
Q

What are features of Fragile X Syndrome?

A

Intellectual disabilityLong thin faceLarge earsHigh arched palateLarge testiclesHyper mobilityAutism/ADHDHypotonia

292
Q

What are features of Prader-Willi Syndrome?

A

Constant insatiable hunger leading to obesityHypotonia as a babyShort statureHypogonadismLearning difficultiesAlmond shaped eyesBehavioural problems

293
Q

What medication can be used in Prader Willi Syndrome?

A

Growth hormone

294
Q

What are features of Angelman Syndrome?

A

Delayed developmentIntellectual disabilitySevere delay or absence of speech develop,entFascination with waterHappy demeanourWidely spaced teethInappropriate laughter

295
Q

What are features of Edward’s syndrome?

A

Micrognathia (small lower jaw)Low set earsRocker bottom feetOverlapping of fingers

296
Q

What are features of Patau syndrome?

A

MicrocephalySmall eyesCleft lip/palatePolydactylyScalp lesions

297
Q

What are features of William syndrome?

A

Broad foreheadStarburst eyesFlattened nasal bridgevery friendly and sociableWide mouth - big smileSmall chin

298
Q

What conditions are associated with William Syndrome?

A

Supravalvular aortic stenosisHypercalcaemiaADHDHypertension

299
Q

What are complications of Fragile X syndrome?

A 
Mitral valve prolapsePes planusAutismMemory problemsSpeech disorders
300
Q

When should an infant be able to sit without support?

A

7-8 months

301
Q

When should you refer a child for not being able to sit without support?

A

12 months

302
Q

When should an infant be able to walk unsupported?

A

13-15 months

303
Q

When should you refer an infant for not being able to walk unsupported?

A

18 months

304
Q

When should a child be able to run?

A

2 years

305
Q

When should a child be able to hop on one leg?

A

4 years

306
Q

When does an infant develop pincer grip?

A

12 months

307
Q

What are the ages for making a tower of 2, 3, 6 and 9 bricks?

A

2 bricks - 15 months3 bricks - 18 months6 bricks - 2 years9 bricks - 3 years

308
Q

What does hand preference prior to 12 months suggest?

A

Cerebral palsy

309
Q

When should an infant be able to say mama and dada?

A

By 9 months

310
Q

When should an infant smile by?

A

6 weeks

311
Q

When should you refer an infant for not smiling?

A

At 10 weeks

312
Q

What are causes of global developmental delay?

A

Down’s syndromeFragile X syndromeFetal alcohol syndromeRett syndrome

313
Q

What are causes of gross motor delay?

A 
Cerebral palsyAtaxiaMyopathySpina bifidaVisual impairment
314
Q

What are causes of fine motor delay?

A

Cerebral palsyDyspraxiaMuscular dystrophyVisual impairment

315
Q

What are causes of language delay?

A

Hearing impairmentSocial circumstancesNeglectAutism

316
Q

What are causes of social delay?

A

Neglect| Autism

317
Q

What is the first line management for ADHD?

A

Methylphenidate

318
Q

What are side effects of methylphenidate?

A 
Abdominal painNauseaDyspepsia Weight loss Growth retardation

MBBS Y5 (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions