Pack B Omura Flashcards

1
Q

Your impression of B787?

A
  • Impressive modern jet.
  • Predominantly electrical
  • Level of automation reduces workload and improves safety
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2
Q

What do you think are the weak points of the B787?

A
  • Lithium-ion batteries caught fire in the past.
  • HUD is very useful but it can be a negative.
  • Production quality issues have been in the news several times in the recent months & years.
  • This airplane might be too reliant on electricity.
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3
Q

Do you know about the B787 battery failure experienced in the past?

A
  • The relevant battery generated heat, leaked electrolyte and discharged gases and vaporised electrolyte.
  • The APU event occurred after a flight when the a/c was on the ground.
  • In both events, the protection systems activated as designed to stop battery charging and isolate the battery.
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4
Q

Tell me about the new design features introduced for B787?

A
  • Extensive use of composite materials, 50% carbon fibre.
  • Bleedless-electrical architecture.
  • Dual HUD as standard equipment.
  • 5000psi HYD power.
  • Lithium batteries.
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5
Q

What does redundancy mean?

A

Redundancy is the intentional duplication of critical components or functions of a system with the goal of increasing reliability of the system, usually in the form of a backup or fail-safe.

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6
Q

Aircraft dimensions? (AOM 1.10)

A
  • 787-8: Wing span: 60.1m, length: 56.7m, height: 16.9m, main to nose gear: 22.8m
  • 787-9: Wing span: 60.1m, length: 62.8m, height: 17.0m, main to nose gear: 25.8m
  • 787-10: Wing span: 60.1m, length: 68.3m, height: 17.0m, main to nose gear: 28.9m
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7
Q

Minimum turning radius? (AOR PT 1.2)

A
  • B787-9: Outer gear track radius: 21.7m
  • B787-9: Nose gear track radius: 30.9m
  • B787-9: Minimum required width of paved surface: 52.6m
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8
Q

Bleed air is used for what purpose? (AOM 2.40)

A

Bleeds air is supplied by the engines and is only used for engine core and inlet cowl anti-ice operations.

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9
Q

AIR COND RESET switch must be operated at what altitude? (QRH PACK L+R) (AOM 2.20.1)

A
  • “Do not attempt an air conditioning reset above 34 000ft” QRH
  • Above 34000ft the CACs (Cabin air controllers) are close to the surge margin. This may prevent reset of the inoperative pack and the temporarily reduced CAC flow can cause the operating pack to shut down.
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10
Q

How many outflow valves are installed? (AOM 2.30.1)

A

Two outflow valves are installed: One forward and one aft.

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11
Q

Indications when exposed to Ice Crystal Icing? (AOM 7.20.18)

A
  • Reduction in thrust and RPM, rise in EGT and in extreme cases ineffectiveness of thrust levers and engine rollback.
  • RR: Ice crystal idle (RR)
  • Ice Crystal Anti-ice (ICA) Function (GE)
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12
Q

Is there any altitude limitation for ENG In-Flight Start? (AOM 7.20.22/7.10.11)

A

Yes, in-flight start envelope information is displayed on the EICAS display when an engine is not running in flight (N2 RPM below idle RPM) or when an engine is shut down in flight and the respective engine fire switch is not pulled.

*Displayed in magenta, airspeed range necessary for an in-flight start at the current FL or max FL whichever is less.

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13
Q

How do you like the Fly-by-Wire system?

A

I like the FBW system due to its improved reliability, damage tolerance, and more effective control of an aircraft such as the B787.

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14
Q

Is the B787 Flight Control System different from your previous airplane?

A

B787: The primary flight control system uses conventional control wheel, column, and pedal inputs from the pilot to electronically command the flight control surfaces. The secondary flight controls, high lift devices consisting of flaps and slats, are hydraulically powered with an electrically powered backup system.

Differences: Main differences is the B787 has FBW and an electrical/hydraulic system whereas the ERJ has a mechanical/hydraulic system with no FBW.

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15
Q

To maintain a certain flight path, how will you control the airplane when flying the B787?

A

VNAV or FPA

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16
Q

Explain Trim Reference Speed? (AOM 9.20.11)

A

Trim reference speed is the speed at which the airplane would eventually stabilize if there were no control column inputs. Once the control column forces are trimmed to zero, the a/c maintains a constant speed with no column inputs.

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17
Q

Discuss C*U flight control law?

A
  • C* Is a fly-by-wire (FBW) control law.
  • C star law blends g (high speed) and pitch-rate (low speed) feedback. The control law will attempt to maintain zero pitch rate and 1g unless you, the pilot, make a control input.
  • Boeing has taken C star one step further to what they call C star U. The U represents speed stability. In the C star U law the aim is speed stability rather than pitch stability. This means that the airplane pitch will automatically change in response to any speed deviation away from the reference speed you’ve set with the trim switches.

In normal mode you always trim for a speed, not a stabilizer setting as in a traditional aircraft

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18
Q

Have you experienced Flight Control SYS Direct mode during your training?

A
  • Yes at Boeing Singapore.
  • Associated message “PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS”
  • The direct mode can also be manually selected by moving the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS disconnect switch to DISC.
  • INOP Items (7): A/P, auto speedbrakes, envelope protection, gust suppression, pitch compensation, roll/yawning asymmetry compensation, tail strike protection.
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19
Q

If the flight control SYS reverts to secondary mode, what will be the EICAS message?

A

FLIGHT CONTROL MODE

Loss of the following (7), same as PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS:

  • A/P
  • Auto speedbrakes
  • Envelope protection
  • Gust suppression
  • Pitch compensation
  • Roll/yaw asymmetry compensation
  • Tail strike protection
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20
Q

If the Flight Control SYS reverts to direct mode, what will be the EICAS message?

A

PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS

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21
Q

Backup air data display on PFD/HUD? (AOM 10.10.27) (AOM 10.12.19)

A
  1. AOA SPD: Based on AOA and inertial data. ADRS (Air data reference system) Is not available or the onside air data/ATT selector has been placed in the ALTN position
  2. ISFD SPD: Single source data from the centre pitot. Displayed if both ADRS and AOA SPD are unavailable.
  3. GPS ALT: Backup altitude based on data from GPS L or R
  4. ISFD ALT: Centre static
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22
Q

Things to be careful about using ECL?

A
  • Overriding a checklist that you may need later on in the flight such as [ ] FUEL IMBALANCE
  • It is sometimes difficult to access the unannounciated checklist
23
Q

What kinds of unannunciated checklists do you know?

A
  • I know there are a total of 27 unnan checklists.
  • To name a few: Aborted Engine Start, Dual Eng Fail / Stall, Eng Svr Damage / Sep, Evacuation, Smoke Fire Fumes, Volcanic Ash
24
Q

Front and back pages of the QRH?

A
  • Front page: Quick action index.
  • Back page: Evacuation.
25
Q

Is VNAV of B787 different to your previous aircraft?

A

My previous aircraft did not have VNAV.

26
Q

Things to consider when fuel jettison is needed?

A
  • Consider your surroundings (Japan look at AIMJ 770 & 771), communicate with ATC and consult your companies procedures (OM 10-4-6)
  • AIMJ: ATC, avoid thunderstorms, above 6000ft.
27
Q

If you need to dump fuel near RJAA, where will be the appropriate fuel dump area?

A
  • According to AIMJ 771, your first action for an appropriate area will to be to ask ATC.
  • I would assume it would be over the ocean.
  • Ex. In June 2024 an east bound B777 had an engine failure after departure. ATC guided them to SUPOK (50NM E of Narita). Fuel dump was done in a holding pattern over SUPOK at 6000ft.
28
Q

Explain Scavenge pump?

A
  • A scavenge pump is used to help pull the used oil out of the engine into a reservoir for cooling, de-aerating and recirculation.
  • ENG Oil scavenge pump (AOM 7.20.29): RR A scavenge pump returns oil to the tank after passing through a scavenge filter.
  • Fuel scavenge pump (AOM 12.20.2): “Left over” With the main tank pumps ON, a scavenge system operates automatically to transfer any remaining carter tank fuel to the main tanks.
29
Q

How does the B787 differ from the a/c you used to fly?

A
  • The size is significantly different which has its own considerations such as takeoff and landing performance, turning radius, wing span, inertia, descent planning etc.
  • Hydraulic system pressurises to 5000psi.
  • Electrical powered jet
  • Airframe structure using a significant amount of composite materials such as 50% carbon fibre.
30
Q

How many HYD SYS are installed and what is the HYD pressure? (AOM 13.20.1)

A
  • The a/c has 3 independent 5000psi HYD systems: Left (primary & demand), centre (two electric motor driven pumps that alternate demand and primary), right.
  • Flight control system components are distributed so that any one HYD system can provide adequate airplane controllability.
  • The HYD system powers:
  • Flight controls (L,C,R)
  • Landing gear (C)
  • Nose gear steering (C)
  • Leading edge slats (C)
  • Trailing edge flaps (C)
  • Thrust reversers (L,R)
31
Q

When does the RAT automatically deploy? (AOM 13(HYD).20.3 / 6(ELEC).20.4)

A
  • Both engines have failed.
  • All 3 HYD system pressures are low.
  • Loss of all electrical power to CPT & FO’s flight instruments.
  • Loss of all 4 EMPs (Electric Motor-driven Pumps) (Demand and C) and faults in the flight control system occur on approach.
  • Loss of all 4 EMPs and an engine fails on takeoff or landing.
32
Q

Minimum speed for RAT? (AOM 13(HYD).20.3 / 6(ELEC).20.4)

A

“The RAT has no operating time limits, airspeeds or altitudes”

33
Q

When does Autobrake RTO command maximum brake pressure? (AOM 14.20.5)

A

The RTO autobrake setting commands maximum braking pressure if:

  • The a/c is on the ground and
  • Groundspeed is above 85 knots and
  • Both thrust levers are retarded at idle.
34
Q

IAN. What should you be careful about? (AOR Chapter 4, AOM NP 21.3)

A
  • Integrated Approach Navigation
  • Course/Path of IAN. Lateral: Radius 25NM, 60* either side of the centreline, Vertical: From the RWY to 6000ft
  • Only the segment GPA registered is guaranteed for constraint alt clearance, and the segment GPA unregistered are not guaranteed for clearance.
  • THEREFORE, in IAN, use one segment before the segment GPA registered.
  • IAN approaches are very similar to ILS approaches therefore they can easily be mistaken for the same approach.
35
Q

Limitations, VMO/MMO? (AOM L 2.15)

A

350 to 16000ft 360/0.9M

36
Q

B787-9 1000K Weight limitations? (AOM L2.2)

A
  • MTW: 555 000lb
  • MTOW: 553 000lb
  • MLW: 425 000lb
  • MZFW: 400 000lb
37
Q

B787 Electrical system description? (AOM 6.20.1)

A
  • 5 1.) Powers engine start, 2.) pressurization, 3.) wing ice protection, 4.) stab trim and 5.) wheel brake systems.
  • The system primarily uses 115 Vac (Volts alternating current) and 28 Vdc power with a limited number of systems optimised with 235 Vac
  • 6 VFS/G, 3 external power receptacles, 1 RAT, 1 main battery, 1 APU battery, 3 permanent magnet generators, 2 EEC permanent magnet alternators.
  • Permanent Magnet Generators (PMG) are the primary source of power for the flight control electronics. These power sources are independent from the main airplane electrical system, and are independent from each other.
  • A secondary source for flight control power is provided by the a/c 28 Vdc bus distribution system and the main battery. In addition a backup system is provided by dedicated batteries to assure positive flight control operation during temporary power interruptions.
  • Permanent Magnet Alternators (PMA) (one per engine) are the primary source of power for the EEC.
38
Q

Is there an altitude limit for engine restart?

A
  • In-flight start envelope information is displayed on the EICAS display when an engine is shut down in flight. The in-flight start envelope indicates the airspeed range necessary to ensure an inflight start at the current FL. If the current alt is above the maximum start altitude, the max start altitude and respective airspeed range is displayed.
  • FL300
39
Q

What is the difference between RR & GE ENG? What is the bypass ratio?

A

RR:

  • Primary engine indications: TPR, N1 & EGT
  • High compression, high bypass turbofan engine with 3 rotors.
  • 3 Rotors, the fan and low pressure turbine are on the N1 rotor, intermediate pressure compressor and turbine on the N2, and finally the high pressure compressor and turbine on the N3. T1000G 74, 400lbs
  • RR will attempt 2 engine restarts on the ground.

GE:

  • Primary engine indications: N1 & EGT
  • Dual rotor, axial flow (meaning airflow is parallel to engine axis of rotation), high bypass, turbofan engine.
  • 2 Rotors (dual rotor), N1 & N2
  • Attempt 3 restarts on the ground.
  • High bypass: Bypass in jet engines is simply about trading exhaust velocity for extra mass flow.
  • Bypass ratio of about 9 to 1
  • The fan stands for about 80% of the total thrust during takeoff.
40
Q

What protection does the ENG offer?

A
  • Overspeed protection: The EEC monitors N2 (N1 & N2 on RR) and commands reduced fuel flow if redline is approached.
  • Thrust Ramping (GE): Reduces high stress loads on engine fan blades caused by cross winds and low GS during takeoff.
  • Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP): Reduces thrust on live engine to ensure sufficient rudder control. Only active below V2 on takeoff and VREF of go-around.
  • Secondary Air System (SAS)(RR): Provide cooling and sealing airflow. If failed open it causes engine overheat so above 400ft the EEC reduces thrust to a safe limit.
  • Thrust Control Malfunction Accommodation (TCMA): On the ground, the EEC will command an engine shutdown if the thrust lever is at idle, but the engine is above idle speed and not decelerating normally. Works only on the ground, at airspeed below 200 knots and PA less than 17,500ft
41
Q

Please explain ENG idle?

A
  • Minimum idle: On ground and most phases of flight.
  • Approach idle: Decreases acceleration time for go-around (F25/30 of gear down)
  • Icing idle: With engine anti-ice on.
  • Ice crystal icing: When OAT is between ISA and ISA+29*C and the altitude is between 5000-35000ft (RR only)
42
Q

What are the HUD modes?

A
  • Full symbology mode
  • Decluttered symbology mode (not available for takeoff or go-around when TO/GA is the active pitch mode.
  • Changed by selecting the HUD symbology control switch.
43
Q

What are the limitations of the autopilot?

A
  • Minimum engage altitude 200ft
  • Without LAND 2/3 the A/P must be disengaged below 100ft (8/10) 135ft (9)
  • With LAND 2/3 the A/P must be disengaged below 100ft if GS angle is greater than 3.25*, if greater than 3.77 then 50ft below MDA.
  • Autoland only at airports at or below 8400ft.
  • Do not use FLCH on final approach below 1000ft AFE.
44
Q

What are the features of ECL?

A
  • Checklist prioritisation: The non-normal checklists will always be put first in the que.
  • Closed loop items: When the system detects the lever or switch is in the position it needs to be it will automatically go green.
  • Hidden checklist condition: Once completing the memory items for an engine fire the message will go away but still needs to be done, this is when CHKL NON-NORMAL is displayed.
  • CHKL INCOMPLETE NORM, reminder if you start the phase that you haven’t completed the checklist for.
45
Q

Please explain the Auto Pilot SYS?

A
  • Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS) consists of three autoflight computing systems and the MCP.
  • Engaged by pushing either of the two MCP A/P engage switches.
  • Disengaged by 1.) Control wheel disconnect switch, 2.) MCP autopilot disengage bar or 3.) Overriding the control wheel or rudders which will only remove land 2&3.
46
Q

What is the limitation of Takeoff THR?

A
  • 5 Minutes GE 1065 C, RR 900 C 5 Minutes
  • 10 Minutes allowed in the event of loss of thrust on one engine during takeoff.
47
Q

Please explain Airspeed Unreliable?

A
  • Memory item: Flaps 10 deg / 85%, clean 4 deg 70%
  • Condition: The airspeed or Mach indication disagree with the AOA calculated airspeed.
  • Aural and [ ] AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE appear on the EICAS
48
Q

At your maximum altitude, how will your speed and altitude change if you performed the airspeed unreliable memory items?

A
  • Memory item: 1.) A/P Disconnect, 2.) A/T Arm switches OFF, 3.) F/D switches OFF, 4.) Flaps 10* 85% / 4 70%
  • At your maximum altitude your safety speed margins are small therefore you will most likely encroach on one of them.
49
Q

What are the limitations of Fuel Jettison?

A

The QRH states to not jettison fuel at flap settings listed on the fuel jettison control panel placard which is flap 30.

50
Q

Tell me about MAX CROSS WIND?

A

DRY

  • 787-8: T/O 40/ L/D 37 (Gust included)
  • 787-9: T/O 33/ L/D 40
  • 787-10: T/O 37/ L/D 35

WET

  • 25

FLOODED

  • 15 (10)
51
Q

What are the limitations of RWY conditions?

A
  • When RWYCC is 0 (less than poor), takeoff and landing are not permitted.
  • Slope +/- 2*
52
Q

1.) Optimum V1
2.) Improved Climb
3.) Alternate Forward CG

A

1.) Optimum V1: Our OPT calculates a variable V1 (making it an unbalanced V1) and shortened VR based on its database in order to optimise performance, thus being able to increase weight.
2.) Improved climb is a means that climb capability can be increased by making takeoff speeds, especially VR & V2, higher by using a surplus of usable runway length.
3.) Alternate forward CG is a technique for improving takeoff performance by moving the forward limit of CG to the aft.

53
Q

Please explain the limitations of icing conditions?

A
  • Engine anti-ice must be ON during all phases of flight operations when icing exists or are anticipated, except when temperatures are below -40C. Do not use engine anti-ice if OAT (on the ground) exceeds 10C or TAT (in flight) exceeds 20C.