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AJX Initial Training > Pack B > Flashcards

Pack B Flashcards

1
Q

Time critical WARNINGS?

A

Non normal condition needing immediate crew awareness. (6)

1.) ENG FAIL
2.) PULL UP
3.) SPEED BRAKE
4.) WINDSHEAR
5.) STALL
6.) AIRSPEED (TAMS)

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2
Q

Climb Segments.

A
  1. First Segment: Begins either at lift-off or at the end of the takeoff distance at a screen height of 35’ and a speed of V2. On a wet runway, the screen height is reduced to 15’. Operating engines are at takeoff thrust, the flaps/slats are in takeoff configuration and landing gear retraction is initiated once safely airborne with positive climb. The first segment ends when the landing gear is fully retracted.
  2. Second Segment: Begins when the landing gear is fully retracted. Engines are at takeoff thrust and the flaps/slats are in the takeoff configuration. Ends at the higher of 400ft or specified acceleration altitude. In most cases, the second segment is the performance limiting segment of the climb.
  3. Third or Acceleration Segment: Begins at the higher of 400ft or specified acceleration altitude. Engines are at takeoff thrust and the aircraft is accelerated in level flight. Slats/flaps are retracted on speed. The segment ends when aircraft is in clean configuration and a speed of VFS (single-engine final segment speed) has been achieved. Note that the third segment must be completed prior to exceeding the maximum time allowed for engines at takeoff thrust.
  4. Fourth or Final Segment: Begins when the aircraft is in clean configuration and at a speed of VFS. Climb is re-established and thrust is reduced to maximum continuous (MCT). The segment ends at a minimum of 1500ft above airport elevation or when the criteria for enroute obstacle clearance have been met.
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3
Q
  • FLARE
  • IDLE
  • ROLLOUT
A

Armed below 1500ft when LAND 2/3 is displayed.

  • FLARE: Activates at approximately 50ft depending on sink rate.
  • IDLE: Activates at between 25-50ft.
  • ROLLOUT: Activates with weight on wheels, tracks LOC until A/P is manually disengaged.
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4
Q

Runway alignment, crab angle?

A
  • For crosswinds requiring more than 10* angle of crab runway alignment begins at 500ft.
  • Between 5-10 initial alignment at 500ft then 200ft.
  • Less than 5* 200ft

The aircraft lands with a minimum of 5* crab.

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5
Q

In what cases is the use of reduced thrust not available? AOR PR.10.12

A
  • Contaminated runways
  • MEL/CDL That affects T/O performance
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6
Q

Airworthiness category of B787?

A
  • Airplane, Transport Category
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7
Q

What is the company operational requirements for reduced T/O thrust? (AOR PR.10.2)

A
  • Thrust reduction must not exceed 25% of each rated T/O (OPT automatically limits)
  • Assumed temperature must be higher than OAT
  • Actual T/O wight must be within takeoff limit weight at assumed temp
  • The runway condition must be dry/damp/wet
  • No applied MEL/CDL which affects T/O performance.
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8
Q

What is the default for ATM?

A

MAX

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9
Q

Why do you input assumed temp -5 on EFB?

A
  • More margin to allow for lineup alignment and rolling T/O
  • 5*C = 500ft
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10
Q

GPWS Recovery procedure?

A
  • Disengage A/P / A/T
  • Aggressively apply max thrust
  • Wings level
  • 20* Nose up, speedbrakes leaver down
  • No config change until clear of terrain
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11
Q

How long will the battery last for with no other power source?

A

Approximately 10min

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12
Q

What is the pilot position in reference to the nose gear?

A

2.6m in front

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13
Q

What FMA modes affect VSD presentation?

A

VNAV.

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14
Q

VSD use and available modes?

A

1.) Terrain
2.) Flight path monitoring
3.) 3* ref line for app
4.) Decision gates
5.) Range to target speed

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15
Q

When do reactive & predictive windshear systems become active?

A
  • Warning/Caution: 1500ft (T/O, LDG & APP)
  • Predictive: All inhibited above 1200ft
  • Warning: 100kts to 50ft RA
  • Caution: 80kts to 400ft RA
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16
Q

Explain the brake system during taxi?

A
  • Manual application below 30kts, the brake control system applied 1/2 of the brakes (fore then aft)
  • Extends service life and reduces brake sensitivity during taxi
  • All brakes are active during heavy braking, landing rollout, RTO or when setting the park brake.
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17
Q

What do you check after EFB initialisation?

A
  • Correct documents loaded
  • Database current (EFB ident page)
  • Review FAULTS, MEMOS & MSGS
  • Select terminal charts as needed
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18
Q

Explain the AUTO Speedbrake operation?

A

ARMED: Extends on landing when main gear trucks untilt
UNARMED:
1.) A/C on ground
2.) GS above 85kts
3.) Thrust lever moved from T/O to IDLE
4.) Thrust lever moved to reverse idle

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19
Q

Explain the time ciritical warning for Speedbrake?

A

All for 1 second.

1.) A/C on the ground
2.) Thrust leavers not in the T/O position
3.) GS above 85kts
4.) Speedbrake lever less than 35*

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20
Q

What happens if you loose ADS?

A
  • NAV AIR DATA SYS
  • GPS ALT
  • AOA SPEED
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21
Q

Is there an altitude that affects the A/T system?

A

Yes

  • 50kts to 400ft
  • A/T must be active by 50kts otherwise it cannot be activated until 400ft.
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22
Q

When does flap load relief work?

A
  • Flaps 15-30 in primary mode.
  • Limited to a minimum of 5.
  • Activates when flap limit placard is exceeded.
  • Prevents extension beyond current setting if airspeed is too high.
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23
Q

When is the HUD guidance cue solid?

A

During a windshear alert condition.

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24
Q

Recent problems with B787 air conditioning?

A
  • CAC surging resulting in PACK defects.
  • Constant number of PAX entered by CA (320) to continue higher CAC output.
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25
Q

What happens when you put cost index 0 in the CDU?

A
  • MRC: Maximum range cruise. Full priority given to fuel consumption.
  • Slightly lower than LRC (1%)
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26
Q

Threat due to difference between HUD & PFD?

A
  • Enlarged scale and sensitive FPV can lead to over controlling.
  • Different colours
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27
Q

In a low speed condition, what kind of protection do you have for A/T?

A
  • A/T armed and not active, the A/T will engage in THR REF, THR or SPD if the airspeed decreases to an FMC calculated value and will maintain min manoeuvre speed (top of amber band) or speed in IAS window, whichever is greater.
  • In HOLD mode, A/T will wake up and reach CMB THRUST by the time speed has decreased to stick shaker speed.
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28
Q

In which modes does A/T not wake up?

A
  • A/T arm switches off.
  • Below 400ft on T/O or 100ft on approach.
  • In HOLD mode, with TOGA mode after TO, A/T will wake up and reach THR REF thrust by the time speed has decreased to within 10kts of stick shaker speed.
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29
Q

In what situation do you utilise VSD?

A
  • TO, Approach and landing near terrain.
  • Path management.
  • Altitude constraints at waypoints.
  • Situational awareness.
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30
Q

What is the wind limit for running engines on the ground?

A
  • Wind greater than 65kts
  • For crosswinds greater than 45kts or tailwinds greater than 42kts limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi.
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31
Q

What is the maximum cost index you can use?

A
  • Max on the CDU is 9,999.
  • Max ANA is 120 for B787.
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32
Q

Threat of new TCP?

A
  • Easy to input the wrong frequency.
  • Have to select active frequency.
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33
Q

Threat of the new B787 wing design?

A
  • Large wing span, caution with taxi.
  • Efficient wing creates high lift, easy to float and get high on profile.
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34
Q

What is PECS?

A
  • Power Electronics Cooling System, liquid based at 27*C
  • Dissipates heat created by high voltage motor controllers of the Large Motor Power Distribution System (LMPDS) located in the aft E/E bay.
  • Contains 2 fully independent loops and 2 pumps.
  • Completely automated.
  • 60% alcohol, 40% water
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35
Q

B787 Air System?

A
  • Uses 4 CAC’s, no bleedd air for air conditioning & pressurisation.
  • CAC’s are driven electronically.
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36
Q

What fuel is prohibited to use?

A
  • JET-B
  • JP-4
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37
Q

What items do you check on the status page in the preliminary preflight procedure?

A

H - Hydraulic no RF
O - Oxygen 860 Dom / 1250 Int
O - Oil minimum 16 quarts
V - Verify only the expected messages are shown on the EICAS

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38
Q

WINDSHEAR Escape manoeuvre after TO?

A

MANUAL FLIGHT

  • Disengage A/P
  • TOGA
  • Aggressively apply max thrust
  • Disconnect A/T
  • Wings level & 15* up
  • Speedbrake lever to down
  • Follow FD if available

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT

  • The same as manual without disconnecting A/P & A/T
39
Q

What is TPR?

A
  • Turbofan Power Ratio
  • Monitors the ratio of the low pressure at the engine inlet and the high pressure compressor outlet.
  • Monitors the temperature to be able to determine engine deterioration.
40
Q

What is ICS?

A
  • Integrated Cooling System
  • Centralised refrigeration system that provides cooling to galley carts and assists with cooling the recirculated cabin air.
  • ICS is integrated with the air conditioning system and the liquid cooling system.
41
Q

What protections does the B787 have?

A
  • Flight envelope protection: A/P & A/T prevents overspeed and stall. Limits bank to 30*
  • Tail strike protection: The Primary Flight Computer’s (PFC’s) calculate if a tail stake is imminent or not then decreases elevator deflection. The pilot can override it should they need to. (8&9 TO & LDG, 10 only TO)
  • Landing Altitude Monitor (LAM). Increase pitch attitude and increase the nose gear height when landing flaps are selected at higher speeds.
42
Q

ACE?

A
  • Actuator Control Electronics.
  • 4 Installed creating redundancy therefore a complete failure is unlikely.
  • If there is a complete loss of flight control signalling, direct wiring from the flight deck to the stabilizer and a spoiler pair allow pilot control of the pitch using the alternate pitch trim switches and roll using the control wheel.
43
Q

What are all the confirmed actions? (QRH CI.2.12)

A

1.) Engine fire switch
2.) APU fire switch
3.) Gen drive disconnect switch
4.) Fuel control switch
5.) Thrust leaver
6.) Cargo fire arm switch
7.) Autothrottle arm switch

44
Q

Minimum required width for 180* turn? (AOR PT 1.2)

A

Normal:

  • 8: 47.3m, 9: 52.6m, 10: 58.1m

Minimum Turn: (AOR PT 1.9)

  • 8: 42.4m, 9: 47.2m, 10: 52.7m
    +/- 5m less than normal 180 turn.

Emergency Pivot Turn: (AOR PT 1.12)

  • 8: 34.6m, 9: 37.7m, 10: 40.7m
45
Q

How to turn around on a 45m runway?

A
  • Apply brakes to stop and thrust to idle.
  • Turn tiller to maximum angle and release brakes.
  • Turn at 5-10 knots
  • Apply thrust on outboard engine.
  • After nose gear passes through maximum possible width position, smoothly return tiller to neutral and alight aircraft with RWY.

*If needing an emergency pivot turn lock the inside brake. RWY and tire inspection required.

46
Q

What items are in originating flight? (AOM NP 21.1)

A

1.) Flight deck access system operational test.
2.) Emergency evacuation signal and cabin interphone test.
3.) Crew oxygen mask mic test.
4.) For international flights, full alignment of IRU except if within 18 hour window until estimated end of flight.

47
Q

What is the major point of Optimum V1?

A

Unbalancing V1 to increase obstacle clearance/climb limit weight.

48
Q

Assumed temperature (reduced thrust) = 1*C Margin? (AOR PR 10.3)

A

1*C = 3000lbs = 100’

49
Q

What are the cases where reduced thrust for TO is not available? (AOR PR 10.12)

A
  • Contaminated runways
  • MEL/CDL that affects takeoff performance.
50
Q

What is the company operational requirements for reduced TO Thrust? (AOR PR 10.2)

A
  • Thrust reduction must not exceed 25% of each rated takeoff TO/TO-1/TO-2 (OPT automatically limits)
  • Assumed temperature must be higher than OAT.
  • Actual TO weight must be within takeoff limit weight at assumed temp.
  • The RWY condition must be dry/damp/wet
  • No applied MEL/CDL which affects TO performance.
51
Q

What is the default for ATM?

A

MAX

52
Q

Why do you input assumed temp -5 on EFB?

A
  • More margin to allow for lineup and rolling TO.
  • 5*C = 500’
53
Q

What is the alternate procedure in case of EFB inop? (AOR 10.2.55)

A
  • Use the other available EFB.
  • Refer to regulations regulations on board (including those carried by the crew)
  • Attempt a reset, it takes about 4minutes.
54
Q

Explain the engine start systems? (AOM 7.20.17)

A
  • APU or external power provides power for 2 starter motors per engine which are mechanically connected to the N2 shaft via the accessory gearbox.
  • Minimum external power is 2 FWD. AFT can be used to reduce load shedding and for right engine start only.
  • Dual engine starts are only available with APU power.
55
Q

Can you do a manual start? (AOM 7.20.11)

A

No, the engines can only be started using the Auto Start system.

56
Q

What is the autostart function? (AOM 7.20.12)

A
  • Autostart allows EEC to control fuel and ignition. Initiated by moving the start selector to start and fuel control switches to run.
  • In the evert the system aborts the start the EEC turns off the fuel and ignition and motors the engine for 20-30 seconds before making another attempt.
  • The next attempt uses a reduced fuel schedule and both igniters.
57
Q

What case is no 2nd start attempted? (AOM 7.20.12)

A
  • No N1 rotation.
  • Failure of both starters (no N2)
58
Q

What message appears for engine start malfunction? (AOM 7.40.3)

A
  • ENG AUTOSTART (L, R)
  • ENG START CUTOUT (L, R) - Engine starter stays in START when commanded to NORM.
  • ENG STARTERS (L, R) - 1 Or both engine starters failed.
59
Q

What are the unique limitations of B787?

A
  • TO Thrust limited to 5minutes (10 min with engine out)
  • Rolling TO requirement when the CG is in the shaded area of the envelope.
60
Q

What is the quick action index of the QRH?

A
  • Items that require quick action or memory items.
  • First page of the QRH.
61
Q

What is the Unannunciated checklist for Engines?

A

6 in total.

  • ABORTED ENGINE START
  • DUAL ENGINE FAIL/STALL
  • ENG IN-FLIGHT START
  • ENG SVR DAMAGE/SEP
  • FIRE ENG TAILPIPE
  • FIRE ENGINE ON GROUND
62
Q

How to access the unannunciated checklists on ECL? (QRH CI 2.5)

A
  • Opening the NON-NORMAL MENU and then selecting the related system.
  • Selecting UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLISTS
63
Q

Give an outline of the brake system? (AOM 14.20.4)

A
  • Each main gear has multiple disc carbon brakes. The nose wheel has no brakes.
  • The electric brake system is powered by 4 electric brake power supply units.
  • Anti-skid protection, autobrake system, electric brake system, parking brake, brake temp and tire pressure indications.
64
Q

Turbulence penetration speed? (AOM SP 16.20, AOR AW 10.1)

A
  • Below 25000ft: 290KIAS.
  • Above 25000ft: 310KIAS/M0.84 whichever is lower.
65
Q

If you want to reduce speed due to turbulence, how much could we reduce? (AOM SP 16.23)

A
  • Normally reduce to turbulence penetration speed. It provides the best margin between high and low speed buffet.
  • If the speed is below M0.84, fly at minimum maneuvering speed +15kts or greater at any altitude.
  • Use A/P as far as possible and use VS for climbing and descending in severe turbulence.
66
Q

If the FMC is INOP, what speed should be used? (AOM PP 30.6)

A
  • Climb: 250/310, 0.84
  • Cruise: 310, 0.84
  • Descent: 0.83, 290 / 250
67
Q

Is the usage of cost index only 80? (AOR PR 14-1.1, AOM pp 20.12)

A

B787 -8, -9

  • Domestic: 80
  • International: 40
  • Cargo: 20
  • 10
  • Domestic: 80
  • International: 20
  • Cargo: 20
68
Q

What are the treats of having pressurisation electrical instead of bleed air?

A
  • Loss of all electrical power
  • Fault in both PECS loops
  • Load shedding
69
Q

When do you use the PFC DISCONNECT switch?

A

When directed by the non-normal checklist.

70
Q

What are the differences of the stabiliser system on the ground and in then air? (AOM 9.20.11)

A
  • GROUND: Stab is directly positioned with the pitch trim switches.
  • AIR: Trim switches do not position stab directly but make inputs PFC to change trim reference speed.
71
Q

Trim reference speed changed by the pilot? (FCTM 7-2-31-(2))

A
  • Speed change rate: 10kt/sec
  • 5kt synchronise feature - one click of trim switch synchronises the trim reference speed with the current speed when the trim reference speed is within 5kts of the current speed.
72
Q

How many PTT’s are there?

A

10
- 2 Control wheel
- 2 Glareshield
- 3 Hand mic
- 3 ACP

73
Q

How many PTT’s are there?

A

10
- 2 Control wheel
- 2 Glareshield
- 3 Hand mic
- 3 ACP

74
Q

What is the indication on the HUD when TCAS is active? (AOM 15.10.20)

A
  • Area inside lines indicate the pitch region to avoid in order to resolve the traffic conflict.
  • A double-lined box indicates a corrective action is required. Fly-to box
75
Q

In what case is the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) not indicated? (AOM 10.10.32)

A
  • Loss of all displays
  • VSD not selected on MFD MAP menu
  • Plan mode
  • When you are PM on the ground
76
Q

What is the display range of the VSD? (AOM 10.40.4)

A
  • The VSD is a function of the ND range.
  • The normal display of the VSD has the same range as the ND except when ND range is less than 5nm.
  • The full display of the the VSD has twice the range of the ND.
77
Q

When do you use the cross feed valve? (AOM 12.20.4)

A

When the fuel balance system fails or is inhibited.

78
Q

Can you use the fuel balance system at any time? (AOM 12.20.3)

A

No, fuel balance is prohibited in situations such as: Refueling, defueling, fuel jettison system is being used etc.

79
Q

Where is the refueling procedure in the manual?

A

AOR 12.2.1 (FUEL)

80
Q

When should the APP switch be pushed? (AOR 4.1.1 FCTM 5.47)

A

The APP should not be armed until:

  • The guidance to be used for the final approach is tuned and identified.
  • The A/C is on an inbound intercept heading.
  • Both lateral and vertical deviation pointers are in the proper position.
  • Clearance for the approach has been received.
81
Q

What is the difference between using IAN and VNAV?

A
  • IAN APP arms FAC & GP, in the same general way as an ILS. Uses FMC computed GP for vertical navigation.
  • VNAV uses coded waypoints for navigation from the database (speed & alt constraints etc)
82
Q

When PWS Windshear start functioning? (AOM 15.20.45)

A
  • Alerts enabled 12 seconds after radar stats scanning.
  • On ground: Starts scanning when WXR is selected OR the thrust is in the TO range regardless of radar selection.
  • PWS Alerts below 1200’
83
Q

Reactive WINDSHEAR? (AOM 15.20.43)

A
  • GPWS Mode 7, active below 1500ft
84
Q

What are the limitations for the IRS? (AOM 11.20.4, NP 21.1)

A
  • If the IRS’s are switched off, they must complete a full realignment cycle before the airplane can be moved.
85
Q

Where are batteries? (OM 6.20.5)

A
  • Main battery: Forward E/E
  • APU battery: Aft E/E
86
Q

For what is the aft ext power used? (AOM 6.20.3)

A
  • Right engine start only, to reduce load shedding. Dual starting still not possible.
87
Q

Any threat on the TCP Panel? (Info 125H)

A
  • Uncommanded frequency change on TCP.
  • Uncommanded transponder change.
88
Q

Where does the Large Motor Power Supply (LMPS) electricity? (AOM 6.20.7)

A
  • Electric hydraulic pumps
  • CAC’s
  • RAM fans
  • Engine and APU start
  • Centre tank fuel pumps
  • Nitrogen Generation System
89
Q

What do you do when OAT is -7*C

A
  • Maximum engine capability 120minutes.
  • Run 20 TPR for 30sec within the first 60min, then TO must be achieved within the second 60min interval.
  • Taxi-in time must be counted towards the first 60min interval if the engine e is not manually decided prior to engine start.
  • When OAT is at or below 3*C, TO must be preceded by a static run up (50% N1 for 2sec).
90
Q

What does arriving crew do in icing conditions? (AOR AW 12.1)

A
  • Record taxi in time into the journey log and request maintenance personnel to conduct engine inspection.
91
Q

If you forget to set HYD pumps on, when will you notice it?

A
  • After second engine start, when L&R demand pumps run for 3min, as well as centre primary pump (alternating between C1 & C2) runs continuously.
92
Q

What about the fire protection system is different between on the ground and in flight? (AOM 8.20.7)

A
  • Cargo compartment fire extinguisher (FWD or AFT).
  • 6 Bottles (international).
  • In Flight: Cargo fire warning - immediate discharge of 2 extinguishers, after 15min, remaining 4 discharge at a reduced rate.
    *If the aircraft lands within that 15min, only one additional bottle discharges at a reduced rate.
  • On Ground: 3 Bottles immediately but the 3rd bottle at a reduced rate.

APU FIre Extinguishing:
- 1 Bottle installed
- In flight or on ground with both engines running, APU fire signal shuts down APU and discharges extinguisher bottle after 15seconds.
- On ground with both engines off (unattended mode) immediate shutdown and bottle discharge.
- APU is in attended mode when any of the engines are running.

93
Q

The difference between AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE and NAV AIRSPEED DATA?

A

NAV AIRSPEED DATA

  • Error is detected in the airspeed data (loss of voted ADRS airspeed data), uses AOA speed.
  • Primary flight controls enter secondary mode.
  • AFDS. A/P, A/T inop.

AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE

  • Airspeed or Mach indications disagree with AOA calculated speed.
94
Q

You have an aborted engine start checklist in unannounciated checklist, what kind of situation would you use this checklist?

A
  • Action directed by ground crew or obvious need.
  • Autostart function fails to limit engine start.
  • People in the vicinity of the engine etc.

AJX Initial Training (5 decks)

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