PA20292 Christine Edmead Flashcards

0
Q

What do peritoneal lymphocytes secrete antibodies against?

A

Lipoplysachharides (LPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

2 proinflammatory cytokines to remember;

A

IL1 (interleukin 1)
TNFalpha

These enhance Inflammatory response by drawing WBC’s out blood Into tissue to fight the antigen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Some features of neutrophils?

A
Granulocytes
Lysosomes inside
Large multi lobed nucleus
Lot of organelles
Contain antmicrobial enzymes
phagocytose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Features of macrophages?

A
Granulocyte
Rounded nucleus
Secrete cytokines
Phagocytose
Lots of organelles
Inflammatory mediators 
Complement proteins
Help with antigen presentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Features of dendritic cells?

A
Large cell
Small nucleus 
Membrane protrusions; engulf antigens
Antigen presentation 
Release cytokines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do dendritic, macrophages and neutrophils have in common?

A

They are reactive oxygen and nitrogen species.

All engulf the antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do natural killer cells do?

A

Lysis of virally infected cells

Recognise viral antigens on cell surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are both natural killer cells and dendritic cells?

A

INTERFERONS

Interfere with viral reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Basic job of pattern recognition receptors?

A

Recognise structures on microbes that aren’t present on self proteins.
Present of neutrophils macrophages and dendritic cells.
4 types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 4 types of patter recognition receptors?

A

Mannose receptors- recognise sugars
Receptors for opsonins- enhance phagocytosis
Toll like receptors- recognise proteins on AG
7transmembrane alpha helical receptors - recognise peptide fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens when an antigen binds to pattern recognition receptors?

A

Phagocytosis by macrophages/ neutrophils
Cell may be killed by NK cells if virus
Presentation of fragments of AG to T cells by APC’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What kind of things will toll like receptors respond to?

A

LPS- KEY ACTIVATORS
ds RNA
Bacterial peptidoglycans
These all tell them that the microbe is foreign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does binding to toll like receptors result in?

A

Up regulation of inflammatory gene expression! Ie INFLAMMATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do TNFa , IL-1, E-selectin, and iNos result in?

A

Enhance white blood cell movement from blood to tissue to create inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is IL-12? Secreted by?

A

A cytokine
By macrophages and dendritics
T cell stimulating factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lipopolysaccharides are also known as….

A

ENDOTOXINS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are LPS a product of/ found in?

A

Cell walls of gram NEGATIVE bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does LPS present of the surface of some bacteria stimulate?

A
Local and systemic inflammation
WBCs leave blood to enter tissues
Increase tissue fluids 
Increase cellular activators enzymes 
Activate macrophages and neutrophils
Macrophage activation= cytokine release 
Reactive oxygens burst- involved with digestion of AG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does excessive LPS stimulation cause?

A

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (fever, septic shock, too much inflammation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the effects of microbes binding to toll like and mannose receptors?

A

Production of CYTOKINES
Reactive oxygen intermediates; v. Toxic to microbes= kill the microbe
Phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What can bind to 7 alpha helical transmembrane receptors?

A

Chemokines
Lipid mediators
N formyl methyl peptides (bacterial peptides)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Effect of binding to 7 alpha helical transmembrane receptors?

A

Increased integrin avidity (higher affinity of integrin receptors)
Stimulated migration into tissue
Does not result in killing of the microbe!!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Must abundant type of WBC?

A

Neutrophils

Small so they can easily enter tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do natural killer cells recognise microbial markers on the surface of?

A

Already infected cells usually viral (not on microbes)

Recognise through patter recognition receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do NKCs work?

A

Perforins released- make holes in target cell membrane
This allow entry of granzyme (digestive enzyme)
Infected cell is sacrificed and dies by apoptosis
Destroys viral load (target cells for NKCs are virally infected)
Apoptosis not phagocytosis!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How are NKcs activated ?

A

IL-12 from macrophages
Activates NKCs, they secrete IFNy
IFNy Feeds back and activates macrophage
(positive feedback loop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How is NKCS actions inhibited?

A

By MHC Class I binding to inhibitory receptors on surface of NKCs.
Stops it invading any uninflected healthy self cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

M N O P…. alphabet…..

A

Macrophages and neutrophils ….. Phagocytosis!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Remember…

A

Natural killer cells cause Virally infected cell to die by APOPTOSIS, due to entry of granzyme through pores made by perforins.
Not phagocytosis!!!! ( like macrophage and neutrophil )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

All 4 cells of the innate system use______ receptors. What are these 4 cells?

A

Pattern recognition receptors.

Macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic cells, natural killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the name of the components of a compliment system?

A

Zymogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

3 ways the complement cascade can be activated?

A

Classical
Alternate
Lectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Classical pathway of complement cascade involves…..

A

C1 detects an ANTIBODY bound to the microbe

Then it cleaves C2/C4 starts the cascade…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Alternate complement pathway involves….

A

Direct recognition of a microbe

similar to using pattern recognition receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The lectin complement cascade pathway involves…..

A

Mannose receptor binding to lectin and cleaving C4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What do all 3 complement pathways result in the cleavage of?

A

C3——–> C3a + C3b

C3b leads to cleavage of C5——–> C5a + C5b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What do the complements C3a and C3b result in?

A

C3a resulting in INFLAMMATION drawing WBCs into tissues

C3b coats the microbe and enhances phagocytosis by opsonisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What effect does the complement C5a have?

A

It is chemotactic for neutrophils (WBCs)

Draws them out of blood into tissues of infected site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Is the complement cascade part of the innate or adaptive immune system?

A

Innate.

It naturally occurs whenever a microbe attacks to trigger other proteins to do their jobs such as neutrophils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the cytokines IL-1 and TNF produced by?

A

Macrophages that have been activated by LPS
These are PROINFLAMMATORY
This is why an inflammatory response occurs with bacteria but not viruses.
Because bacteria contain LPS activating infflamation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is IL-12 produced by and what is its actions?

A

Produced by macrophages and dendritic cells
Promote natural killer cell cytolysis
It also stimulates the production if IFNy in T cells and NKCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does IFNy do?

A

Stimulates a macrophage to kill a microbe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What type of immunity do B cell produce?

A

Humoral immunity

Means antibody mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In the adaptive immune system, what are most cytokines produced by?

A

T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Cytokines of the adaptive immune system?

A

IL- 2, 4 ,5, 13
IFNy (both adaptive and innate)
TGFbeta [inhibitory]
TNFbeta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the lymphocyte repertoire?

A

Range of receptors able to recognise antigens in order for SPECIFIC RECOGNITION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

T helper cells surface molecule is___

A

CD4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cytotoxic T cells surface molecule is___

A

CD8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What do T helper cells and cytotoxic T cells both contain on their surfaces?

A

T cell receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Why do we say T cells have cell mediated immunity?

A

Because they secrete cytokines to activate other cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What do lymphocytes have a large nucleus?

A

Involved with a lot of DNa transcription to make cytokines and antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When activated, T cells swell in size. We call this _____

A

Blasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When activated, B cells swell in size. We call them _____

A

Plasma cells

Produces large numbers of antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What cells do APCs present AG fragments to?

A

T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What cells act as APCs?

A

Dendritic cells (main type)
B cells
Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What can heamopoeitic stem cells form?

A

RBC’s, myeloid cells, lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are bone marrow and the thymus classed as?

A

Primary lymphoid organs
T cells produced in bone marrow, mature in thymus
B cells produced and mature in bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are lymph nodes classed as?

A

Secondary lymphoid organs

Once B and T cells are mature but naive, they migrate to the lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What do B and T cells become on activation? ____ ___

A

Effector cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Where are AGs that enter the body/ AG’s that are blood Bourne get taken?

A

AGs that enter the epithelia get taken to the lymph node via the lymphatics
AGs that are blood borne are carried to the spleen ( similar to lymph nodes, cleans the blood)
Spleen and lymph nodes= secondary lymphoid organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What do activated Tc cells target?

A

Viruses!

Tc cells kill virally infected cells by apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Actions of T helper cells?

A

Activation of macrophages
Triggers phagocytosis
Enhance recruitment of neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does IL-2 stimulate?

A

Growth factor of T cells, increases their number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

IL 4 & 5 job?

A

Activate B cells to produce antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

IFNy job?

A

Secreted by T helper cells

Activates cytotoxic T cells and macrophages

65
Q

TGF beta job?

A

Inhibitory cytokine

Acts to dampen the immune system and restore homeostasis (Like Treg cells)

66
Q

What is the adaptive immune system triggered by?

A

The innate immune system

67
Q

Which immune system are pattern recognition receptors and LPS involved in?

A

Innate immune system

68
Q

Does the receptors involve in the immune response affinity for AG increase or decrease during the response?

A

Increase!

69
Q

Antibodies provide active and passive immunity. What does this mean?

A

Active; antigens given as a vaccine are killed off by antibodies. Antibodies learn how to target antigen in case of further infection.
Active = you actively make the antibodies YOURSELF
Passive: immunity to a certain antigen has been passed on from genetic traits. (inherited)
IT IS THE TRANSFER OF AN ANTIBODY FROM ONE INDIVIDUAL TO ANOTHER.
Don’t make the AB yourself.

70
Q

How much of plasma proteins do antibodies take up?

A

20%

71
Q

What classes can the 2 heavy chains of antibodies be?

A

Class A, D, E, G or M

72
Q

2 light chains of antibodies can be what classes?

A

Kappa and lambda

These are the classes of the light chains constant region.

73
Q

What does each chain of an anti body have?

What do heavy chains have that light chains don’t?

A

All chains have several Ig domain repeats
All chains have variable , joining and conserved (constant) regions
Heavy chains also have diversity regions

74
Q
What antibody class are produced on first antigen encounter?
What are these for?
A

IgM
For complement activation
These are natural ABs in the lining of the abdominal cavity(peritoneum)
Remember IgM= complEMent activation

75
Q

What are class IgD antibodies for?

A

B cell receptors

On surface of B cells

76
Q

What are igA Antibodies for?

A

These target airborne antigens
Present at epithelial / mucosal surfaces (as this is where airborne antigens target)
Remember A for airborne
Generally found in lungs (we inhale airborne ABs)

77
Q

What are IgE antibodies for?

A

For targeting parasites and immediate hypersensitivity (allergeeeee reactions= E)

78
Q

Why are IgG antibodies so important?

A
Most abundant AB type in the circulation
For secondary immune responses
Microbes coated in IgG - opsonisation and complement activation
AB dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity 
IgG provide Foetus with humoral immunity
79
Q

What shapes do each of the different classes of antibodies have? Ie monomer, dimer….

A
Monomers= IgE IgG
Dimers = IgA
Pentamers= IgM
80
Q

What does high avidity of an AB mean?

A

They can bind a large number of AG’s as they may be pentameric and have several binding sites, but usually bind with weak affinity.
Eg IgMs pentomer

81
Q

How many different ABs can be made through gene rearrangement in order to recognise specific antigens?

A

10^7

82
Q

What can the 5 constant regions of the heavy chains in ABs be?

A

IgA, D, M, G E. depends what class antibody you want to make.

83
Q

What do the enzymes recombinases do in antibody production?

A

Bring together the single V, J and D (depending on if it’s light chain) alleles to make the required AB, then add on the constant region at a later stage.
They SPLICE DNA

84
Q

Joining the constant region at the later mRNA stage in AB production, what does this allow?

A

Class switching at the later stages

The constant region of the heavy chain determines whether it’s Ig A D M E or G

85
Q

What happens to make 2 required regions sit next to each other in antibody production?

A

The DNA/ alleles in between in spliced out by recombinase enzymes.

86
Q

What are hypervariable regions also known as?

A

CDRs- complementary determining regions.

87
Q

What are complemtary determining regions?

A

3 regions within variable gene segments with highly variable amino acid sequences.
CDR 1,2,3
Combining CDRs from heavy and light chains increases the diversity of ABs allowing them to bind to diff AGs
Also known as hypervariable regions and are particularly susceptible to mutations

88
Q

What happens if a CDR undergoes a mutation?

A

Changes the affinity of an antibody for an antigen

89
Q

What are hypervariable regions particularly susceptible to?

A

Mutations

90
Q

Where does an antigen bind to an antibody?

A

At the ends of the Y shape.
Antigen binds in the groove between where heavy and light chains connect.
Variable regions of genes lie here, make antibody specific.
The rest of antibody usually have same structure as all others, apart from the Fc region.
Hypervariable regions also in the groove susceptible to mutations.

91
Q

What makes an antibody specific, regarding its structure?

A

The variable gene region in the binding groove.
Also hypervariable regions in the groove that easily mutate.
Also nucleotides at junctions between V D and J regions can change increasing diversity further.

92
Q

What are heavy and light chains bound togetherby?

A

Disulfidebonds

93
Q

Where are the hypervariable regions located?

A

They protrude into the antigen binding groove.

94
Q

What would mutations in gene sequences anywhere around the variable region of an antibody cause?

A

Change the shape of the antigen binding groove.
Causes the antibody to have a different affinity for the antigen.
CDR mutations (hypervariable regions) can result in this.

95
Q

Why do antibodies remain specific to a certain antigen for the rest of its life?

A

Because B cells undergo irreversible gene recombination to make it specific to a particular antigen, it can’t change after this recombination as its irreversible.

96
Q

As a B cell matures, what class does it change from the starting IgM class to?

A

IgD class

97
Q

What triggers Ig class switching?

A

Activation of a B cell

98
Q

Do IgG and IgE antibodies have low or high avidity?

A

Low
They are monomers
Only have 2 antigen binding sites
But will have HIGH affinity

99
Q

What is a somatic hyper mutation in an antibody?

A

A mutation in the hyper variable region of the binding groove/ in the amino acids that lie there.

100
Q

How many ABs do plasma B cells usually hold?

A

Around 2000.

101
Q

What happens to B cells AB avidity to antigens as they mature?

A

As they mature, the B cell switches classes (from IgM)
The avidity decreases
Their affinity to antigens increases with more mature B cells.
Less mature= igM = 10 binding sites, pentameric, High avidity.

102
Q

At first, before the B cells matured, what constant regions of the antibody are present?

A
All constant regions present at first coding for each class (C-  A,G,M,D,E)
Remember AB starts as IgM 
Then when class switching occurs, unwanted constant regions are spliced out.
103
Q

In antibody production, splicing of RNA occurs until ____ is produced. What then needs to happen?

A

RNA spliced until mRNA (mature RNA) produced.

Then translation of this mRNA into a protein making the antibody occurs.

104
Q

igG antibodies are most abundant. Where Are these usually found?

A

In the circulation.

105
Q

What is the Fc region of an antibody coded for by?

A
The constant region of the heavy chain codes for Fc region.
Ig class therefore determines it.
106
Q

What does Fc region stand for?

A

Fragment crystallisable region.

107
Q

Where does the Fc region of IgG antibodies bind? What does this promote?

A

To Fc receptors on surfaces of neutrophils and macrophages.
Promotes phagocytosis
Both AB and AG are destroyed.

108
Q

What does the Fc region of IgE antibodies binding to Fc receptors result in?

A
Eosinophil activation (WBCs responsible for killing parasites) and mast cell degranulation, resulting in histamine release.
igEs associated with allergies.
109
Q

What kind of domains do Fc regions contain?

A

CONSTANT domains

110
Q

How do IgG and IgM trigger complement activation?

A

By binding C1q

111
Q

What are antigens recognised by on T cells and B cells?

A

TCRs on T cells ( T cell receptors)

Antibodies on B cells

112
Q

The small part of an antigen that an antibody/ T cell receptor recognises is the _____

A

Epitope
Antibodies have different specificifities for different epitopes
One antigen lots of different epitopes= (a polyclonal) as lots of diff ABs respond

113
Q

You can get a mixture of antibodies recognising different parts of one big antigen. These parts are ____ and this is a ____ response.

A

Epitopes

Polyclonal response

114
Q

The part of an antibody that recognises a single epitope is the ____

A

Paratope

115
Q

Do therapeutic antibodies tend to be polyclonal or monoclonal?

A

Monoclonal
Act against one particular epitope of an antigen
Activation of a single B cell= monoclonal response

116
Q

An antibodies specificity for an antigen never changes. Ie the antigen it targets will always be the same. However, what can change?

A

The antibodies AFFINITY for the antigen can change,

due to the hyper variable regions in the binding groove.

117
Q

Most effector responses are carried out by the Fc region of an antibody. this is because…….

A

This region binds the Fc receptors on target cells such as neutrophils and macrophages.

118
Q

What can antibodies target? Bacteria , viruses, both?

A

Both bacteria and virus antigens!

119
Q

Who were vaccinations discovered by and when?

A

By EDWARD JENNER

IN 1976

120
Q

What are adjuvants?

A

Activate the immune system
Included in vaccinations
Enhance the recipients immune response to a given non pathogenic antigen.
Help lots of antibodies to be produced.

121
Q

What kinds of things can you attach to an antibody to target an antigen?

A

Liposomes
Toxins
Radionuclides
Cytokines

122
Q

Herceptin, does the antibody target and bind to receptor or ligand to stop ligand binding?

A

Receptor

123
Q

Infliximab, does the antibody target and bind to receptor or ligand to stop ligand binding?

A

Ligand

124
Q

What does ADEPT stand for?

A

Antibody directed enzyme prodrug therapy.

125
Q

What does the anti-TNF antibody do?

A

Mops up excess TNF
Antibody binds to the LIGAND TNF
Stops receptor binding and TNF activating inflammatory responses.
Used in conditions where you want to reduce inflammation eg, arthritis
Example drug: INFLIXIMAB
Remember TNF is proinflammatory

126
Q

What does the anti HER2 receptor antibody do? What’s this drug called?

A

This antibody binds to the HER2 recptor blocking ligand binding.
Stops receptor activation- stops cell growth and proliferation.
Drug = herceptin.
Used to treat BREAST CANCER

127
Q

What cells is MHC protein present on?

A

Every cell apart from RBC’s

128
Q

How is a B cell told that enough antibodies have been produced and deactivated?

A

Signal downregulated by when the Fc region of antibody binds back onto the Fc receptor of the B cell telling it to stop producing antibodies.

129
Q

How is the signal of an antigen binding to a B cell enhanced?
Hint; what 2 things present on the B cell surface enhance this…

A

The B cell receptor (antibody on surface)

Together with a COMPLEMENT BINDING CORECEPTOR on surface

130
Q

What inhibits signalling on surface of the B cell?

A

Fc receptor

Binding to Fc region of an antibody

131
Q

How do T cells provide a costimulatory signal to tell B cells to produce antibodies?

A

They upregulate CD40 ligand
This engages with CD40 on B cell. Tells it to make antibodies.
Also T cell produces IL-4 and IL-5 which tell a B cell to make antibodies.

132
Q

What receptors (ABs) do B cells express once matured but before class switching?

A

IgM and IgD receptors

Remember; class switching and somatic hypermutations improve antibody affinity and function

133
Q

What are the only cells that can activate T helper cells?

A

Antigen presenting cells of class II MHC

134
Q

What can T helper cells further be divided into?

A

Th1 and Th2

Big cytokine producers

135
Q

What do Th1 cells stimulate?

A

Activate macrophages and cytotoxic T cells

Secrete cytokines such as IFNy (tells macrophages to kill a microbe)

136
Q

What do Th2 cells do?

A

Provide costimulatory help to B cells

Secrete the cytokines IL-4 and IL-5

137
Q

What cytokine promotes Th1 production but inhibits Th2?

A

IL-12

138
Q

What cytokine promotes Th2 production but inhibits Th1?

A

IL-4

139
Q

What is inhibition of development of Th1 or Th2 cells by cytokine IL-4 and IL-12 known as?

A

Reciprocal inhibition

140
Q

What activates cytotoxic T cells ?

A

Antigen presenting cells of class I MHC
Usually present viral fragments
Can also be stimulated by T helper Th1 cells

141
Q

What do T regulatory cells express? CD___ and CD___

A

CD4 and CD25

CD 25 also known as (IL-2Receptor.

142
Q

What anti-inflammatory cytokines do T regulatory cells secrete?

A

IL-10, TGFbeta

143
Q

Do T cell receptors undergo somatic hyper mutations?

A

No
They stay the same
With same low affinity for antigens

144
Q

Do T cell receptors have high affinity or low affinity for antigens?

A

Low affinity

That’s why T cells have to be presents antigens by antigen presenting cells.

145
Q

What are T cell receptors associated with on T cell surfaces?

A

CD3 signalling chains

146
Q

What cells recognise class I MHCs?

A

CD8 cytotoxic T cells

Presented on virally infected cells

147
Q

What cells recognise MHC class II?

A

CD4 T helper cells

Th1 and Th2

148
Q

What aspects of antigens are T cells able to recognise ?

A

Only able to recognise small fragments of antigens that’s been broken up by APCs and presented to T cell on MHC complex (tray)
In contrast to B cells that can recognise epitopes of whole antigens that haven’t been broken up.

149
Q

We react to antigens in different ways from individual to individual.
This is because we inherit ___ different genes coding for different ___ classes.

A

12 different genes

MHC classes

150
Q

What 2 chains are MHC class I peptides made of? What about MHC class II?

A

Class I alpha 1 and alpha 2 chains

Class II alpha 1 and beta 1 chains

151
Q

Which has a smaller antigen binding groove, class I or class II MHC?

A
Class I has a smaller
class II has a larger
152
Q

When an APC presents an antigen to a T cell, what does the TCR interact with?

A

Both the MHC protein and the antigenic peptide fragments.

It interacts with the MHC protein because this tells the t cell not to destroy the self cell.

153
Q

How do T cells decide whether to be cytotoxic T cells or T helper cells?

A

In the thymus T cells mature and encounter a range of self antigens
Once they engage with an MHC it helps to determine what they will become

154
Q

What is positive selection?

A

When undergoing Thymic selection and T cells are deciding whether they want to be T helpers or cytotoxic, if the T cell doesn’t encounter and bind and MHC the cell will be signalled to die as it has not recognised a self antigen.

155
Q

What is Negative selection?

A

When T cells are undergoing Thymic selection, and a Tcell binds too strongly to self antigen and becomes activated, these T cells are signalled to die as they must be SELF REACTIVE T cells!!

156
Q

What is peripheral tolerance?

A

TCR binding to an MHC bound to an antigen is not enough alone to activate T cell. You need costimulatory molecules to produce a second signal. This is the basis of why T cells don’t become activated in inappropriate situations.

157
Q

What 2 molecules make up signal 2, the ACTIVATION signal?

A

CD 28 on T cell surface.
B7-2 on APC surface.
These bind forming signal 2
These are the main costimulatory molecules.

158
Q

What 2 molecules make up the INHIBITORY SIGNAL of T cells , dampening the immune response?

A

CTLA-4 and B7-1
These switch off activation of T cell
Produced by T cell

159
Q

What do naive T cells (mature T cells that haven’t yet encountered an ANTIGEN ) posses? CD__

A

CD28

160
Q

Is type I diabetes mediated by destruction of pancreatic B cells by ANTIBODIES OR T CELLS?!!!

A

T CELLS!! NOT ANTIBODIES.

161
Q

What’s HLA - B27 associated with?

A

Increased risk of ankylosing spondylitis
Chronic arthritis.
Majority of ppl with B-27 are healthy