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Pharmacology Exam 3 > Overview Drug Quiz > Flashcards

Overview Drug Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

This powerful opiod is about 100x stronger than morphine, often used as a patch for chronic pain relief, especially for cancer patients; not for “opioid naive” patients

A

fentanyl

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2
Q

This weak μ- and κ-agonist opioid provides moderate pain relief; thought to have less risk for dependence and is a Schedule IV drug

A

tramadol

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3
Q

This synthetic version of cortisol is a powerful antiinflammatory; it also suppresses the immune system; short-term AE include hyperglycemia; long-term AE include bone loss, muscle wasting, and Cushing’s disease

A

prednisone

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4
Q

This nonbiologic DMARD is the gold standard of treatment for RA; it helps to delay progression of the disease; AEs include serious risk of infection

A

methotrexate

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5
Q

This group of disease modifying drugs are used to treat RA and include oral and injectable products; the injectable products may be ergonomically designed to improve ease of administration

A

Biological DMARD

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6
Q

This drug provides analgesic, antipyretic, and antiinflammatory properties by inhibiting COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes; AEs affect the renal, GI, and cardiac systems

A

NSAIDs

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7
Q

This NSAID is often used as a topical product to treat osteoarthritis pain

A

diclofenac

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8
Q

Brand name: Levaquin; AEs tendon rupture and hypoglycemia

A

fluoroqionolones

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9
Q

Brand name: Z-pak; inhibits CYP450 enzymes whichs can result in DDIs

A

macrolide

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10
Q

This type of cancer treatment damages cancer cells by blocking specific genes or proteins

A

targeted therapy

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11
Q

Generic name: amoxillin; commonly used due to broad coverage of gram -/+ bacteria

A

penicillins

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12
Q

Generic name: gentamicin; has significant AEs of otoxicity/hearing loss

A

aminoglycoside

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13
Q

Generic name: doxyclycline; has a risk of photosensitivity

A

tetracycline

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14
Q

This type of cancer treatment includes drugs that inhibit growth and replication of cancer cells

A

chemotherapy

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15
Q

Generic name: clindamycin; can cause C.diff

A

lincosamide

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16
Q

This type of cancer treatment uses hormones and drugs that use the immune system to treat cancer

A

immunotherapy

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17
Q

This thiazide diuretic effectively lowers BP but can cause hypercalcemia and hypokalemia

A

HCTZ

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18
Q

This calcium channel blocker drug reduces smooth muscle tone to facilitate vasodilation and reduced BP; its negative inotropic effects reduces the workload of the heart

A

amlodipine

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19
Q

This beta-adrenoceptor blocker has negative inotropic and chronotropic effects to reduce BP; it effectively reduces resting heart rate and max heart rate

A

propranolol

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20
Q

This antihypertensive drug blocks binding of angiotensin 2 at the receptor; benefit of no AE of cough

A

losartan

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21
Q

This alpha-2 receptor agonist is used to treat hypertension as well as anxiety/PTSD

A

clonidine

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22
Q

This drug reduces blood pressure by blocking conversion of angiotensin 1 to 2 which causes vasodilation and Na+/H2O excretion; increased bradykinins can cause AE of cough; other significant AE is angioedema

A

losinopril

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23
Q

This drug works directly on smooth muscles to reduce O2 demand and relieve angina symptoms; it should have a tingling sensation when taken as a sublingual tablet; has specific storage requirements

A

nitroglycerin

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24
Q

This antiplatelet is often used after a heart attacke (MI); it is metabolized to an ACTIVE form by CYP2C19

A

clopidogrel (Plavix)

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25
Q

This LMWH has reduced risk for HIT, has simpler dosing than heparin, and requires no lab monitoring

A

enoxaparin (Lovenox)

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26
Q

This anticoagulant prevents vitamin K from converting to an active form; has many drug-drug and drug-food interactions

A

warfarin

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27
Q

This anticoagulant has a risk for HIT and may cause osteoporosis if used for more than 1 month; requires aPTT monitoring

A

heparin

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28
Q

This anti-arrhythmic drug has a very long half-life and extensive AEs including bluish discoloration; poor efficacy at reducing arrhythmias; be aware of potential for electrolyte imbalance if this drug is taken with a diuretic

A

amiodarone

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29
Q

This HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor blocks cholesterol synthesis and has significant food interactions with grapefruit juice

A

atorvastatin (Lipitor)

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30
Q

This cardiac medication reduces workload of the heart to treat CHF (among other conditions); has a NTI; toxicity can even occur in “therapeutic” ranges, and include AEs of confusion, N/V, visual changes (yellow-green halos)

A

digoxen

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31
Q

Inhaled antimuscarinic drugs used for maintenance treatment of COPD, duration of effect between 12-24 hours; dry mouth most common AE.

A

LAMA

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32
Q

Inhaled corticosteroid typically used for exacerbations and more severe conditions of COPD; can cause oral candidiasis, hoarse voice

A

fluticasone

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33
Q

Short-acting beta-agonist used as a rescue inhaler with an onset of about 5 minutes; may cause tachycardia, tremor, and hypokalemia

A

albuterol

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34
Q

Inhaled antimuscarinic drug with an onset of 15-20 minutes and duration of effect between 6-8 hours

A

SAMA

35
Q

Inhaled beta-agonist used for maintenance treatment with a 12-24 hour duration; can cause tachycardia, tremor, and hypokalemia

A

LABA

36
Q

A mucolytic drug that is nebulized; works by cleaving DNA which reduces mucous viscocity in patients with Cystic fibrosis

A

dornase alfa

37
Q

Leukotriene receptor antagonist used to treat asthma

A

montelukast

38
Q

Keeps chloride channels open for longer and/or improves chloride transport to thin mucous in patients with Cystic fibrosis

A

CFTR modulators

39
Q

This laxative works by increasing water absorption which then softens and increases the bulk of intestinal content

A

bulk forming laxitive

40
Q

This antacid neutralizes gastric acidity to relieve GERD symptoms; not very effective for treating PUD; other medications should not be taken within 2 hours of taking this drug

A

Tums

41
Q

These acid-suppressive drugs inhibit the H+/K+-ATPase enzyme which prevents gastric acid secretion; typically a better OTC choice for treating ulcers than other OTC products

A

PPI inhibitor

42
Q

This anticholinergic drug prevents motion-sickness related nausea and vomiting; has typical anticholinergic AEs such as dry mouth, difficulty urinating along with dizziness and drowsiness

A

scopolamine

43
Q

This acid-suppressive drug works by blocking H2 receptors which suppresses the normal secretion of gastric acid

A

H2 blocker

44
Q

Laxatives that work by pulling water into the colon in order to increase stool movement; may lead to electrolyte imbalance

A

hyperosmotic, saline, emollient

45
Q

This synthetic T4 is converted to T3 to treat hypothryoidism; has a NTI and requires close monitoring and dose adjustments; overtreatment leads to hyperthyroidism symptoms

A

levothyroxine (Synthroid)

46
Q

Synthetic vasopressin, works to reduce water excretion by increaing urine concentration (AKA antidiuretic hormone); used for nocturia

A

DDAVP

47
Q

Used to treat primary adrenal insufficiency/hypoaldosteronism; may require a higher dose before strenuous exercise or during times of acute stress

A

fludrocortisone

48
Q

This drug is structurally similar to testosterone and has many potential AEs including cardiac death, MI, testicular and prostate cancer, ligament rupture, aggressiveness; may be used by body builders to increase muscle mass

A

AAS

49
Q

First line of treatment for osteoporosis, must be taken with plain water at least 30-60 minutes before any food and then stay upright afterward to avoid GI upset; rare but serious AE include atypical femur fracture (may present as groin, hip or thigh pain) and osteonecrosis of the jaw

A

bisphosphonates

50
Q

This injectable osteoporosis drug is given every 6 months; best for patients how can’t tolerate bisphosponates or are a high risk for fracture

A

anti-RANKL

51
Q

This drug inhibits intestinal absorption of glucose and increases insulin sensitivity to treat patients with DM2; most common AE is GI discomfort; may also cause B12 deficiency

A

metformin

52
Q

Also known as somatropin, this drug improves bone, skeletal, and organ growth along with increase RBCs; used to treat hypopituitarism

A

GH

53
Q

This drug control blood glucose levels in Type 2 diabetics by causing insulin release in the pancreas; due to its MOA it has a higher risk for hypoglycemia than other drug classes use to control blood glucose. One generic name for this drug is glipizide.

A

sulfonylureas

54
Q

This antithyroid medication blocks the formation of T4 and T3; overtreatment leads to hypothyroidism

A

methimazole

55
Q

The full name of this drug class is sodium-glucose cotransporter, which indicates it MOA for controlling blood glucose: it blocks glucose reabsorption in the kidneys and increases glucose excretion. As a result, AEs include volume depletion effects and urinary tract infections.

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors

56
Q

This drug class keeps incretin hormone levels active longer which increases insulin sythesis to help control blood glucose in type 2 diabtics

A

DPP-4 inhibitors

57
Q

This drug can be used as a potassium-sparing diuretic; it is also used to treat hyperaldosteronism because it is nonselective for aldosterone receptors

A

spironolactone

58
Q

This drug controls blood glucose in both types 1 and 2 diabetics; usually injected before meals.

A

bolus insulin

59
Q

This drug class controls blood glucose in type 2 diabetics by increasing insulin sensitivity in muscle/fat; referred to as an “insulin sensitizer,” boxed warning for heart failure

A

TZD

60
Q

This drug class is an analog to glucagon-like peptide 1 and increases insulin secretion when glucose is elevated; AE similar to metformin (GI issues)

A

GLP1 receptor agonist

61
Q

This drug is usually injected once daily to control blood glucose in diabetics over a 24 hour period

A

basal insulin

62
Q

This dopamine replacement drug reduces tremor and improve movement quality in people with Parkinson disease; prolonged use leads to end of dose wearing off, increased off-states, and dyskinesias

A

levodopa-carbadopa (Sinimet)

63
Q

This SNRI is used to treat ADHD; it is less effective than stimuant drugs such as Ritalin, but it also has less potential for abuse and sleep disturbance; it takes weeks for onset and up to 3 months for its full effect

A

atomoxetine (Strattera)

64
Q

This drug treats MS by reducing a person’s autoimmune response which helps to reduce MS exacerbations and brain lesion; it is an injectable product so its most common AE is injetion site reaction

A

glatiramir acetate

65
Q

This oral MS drug reduces exacerbations and overall disease severity possibly through anti-inflammatory properties; GI issues are the most common AE

A

dimethyl fumarate

66
Q

This dopamine agonist binds to dopamine receptors to help restore motor coordination in patients with Parkinson disease; may be used as a monotherapy for younger patients or adjunct therapy to reduce wearing off issue

A

ropinirole (Requip)

67
Q

The MOA of this drug to treat multiple sclerosis is not well understood but it appears to impact immune function; it helps to reduce MS exacerbations and physical disabilty; primary AE is flu-like symptoms

A

interferon-beta

68
Q

This cholinesterase inhibitor helps correct ACh deficiency in patients with Alzheimer disease; provides only modest benefits. GI issues are most common AE.

A

donepezil (Aricept)

69
Q

This antispasmodic drug is meant for short-term maintenance of muscle spasms; AE include sedation and dizziness

A

cyclobenzaprine (Flexerol)

70
Q

This class of antidepressants inhibit the reuptake of serotonin and NE; due to the many AEs including cardiac problems for overdose, they are not as frequently prescribed as other antidepressants

A

TCAs

71
Q

This dopamine replacement drug increases dopamine levels by inhibiting monoamine oxidase B; risk of serotonin syndrome when combined with serotergic medications (ie, SSRIs)

A

MOA-B inhibitors

72
Q

This dopamine replacement drug works by decreasing the breakdown of l-dopa by inhibiting COMT; used as an adjunct therapy to reduce wearing off effect

A

COMT inhibitor

73
Q

This NMDA antagonist is used to treat Alzheimer disease; it can be used as a monotherapy or as an adjunct to cholisterase inhibitors; it can cause dizziness so monitoring for falls is critical for anyone on this drug

A

memantine (Namenda)

74
Q

This drug treats spasticity by inhibiting the alpha motor neuron; since it is a CNS depressant, AEs include sedation, ataxia, and respiratory/cardiac depression; it can also cause muscle weakness and it can worsen cognitive function in populations who may already have impairments (older adults, brain-injured pts); if PO doesn’t manage spasticity, an intrathecal pump can be used. There are significant and life-threatening consequences if this drug is stopped without being tapered

A

baclofen

75
Q

This alpha-2 agonist is used to treat spasticity by reducing excitability of postsynaptic neurons; it is also used to treat hypertension; like other antispasmodics its AEs include sedation, drowsiness, dizziness

A

tizanidine

76
Q

This antidepressant class inhibits the reuptake of serotonin and is often a first line treatment due to its efficacy; typical AEs include HA, GI upset, sexual dysfunction; include drugs like Celexa

A

SSRI

77
Q

This drug is used to treat anxiety; it has no risk of abuse or physical dependence; since it takes up to 3 weeks to impact anxiety, benzodiazepines may be used as a bridge

A

buspirone (Buspar)

78
Q

This drug class is commonly referred to as “benzos” and is used for acute anxiety; meant for short-term use due to its risk of psychological and physical dependence

A

benzodiazopines

79
Q

These conventional antipsychotic drugs can treat schizophrenia; however, they have many neurologic AEs including extrapyramidal symptoms; Haldol is an example

A

FGA

80
Q

This drug is used to treat bipolar disorder; it has many AEs including GI issues, weight gain, increased urination and thirst; it also has a high risk for toxicity even in therapeutic ranges; adequate hydration is KEY with this drug

A

Lithium

81
Q

These atypical antipsychotics are used more often than FGA to treat schizophrenia due to decreased incidence of extrapyramidal symptoms; these drugs do have a high risk for metabolic dysfunction (glucose, lipid abnormalities and weight gain)

A

SGA

82
Q

This antidepressant class is similar to the SSRI class except that is also inhibits reuptake of NE; because of its effectiveness it is often a first-line treatment; it has similar AEs to SSRIs including HA, nausea, sexual dysfunction

A

SNRI

83
Q

These drugs have their effect by blocking glutamate and binding of NMDA receptor in order to treat seizures and bipolar disorder; have many AEs including neurotoxicity, weight gain, hypothyroidism and skin rash

A

anticonvulsant/antiseizure

Pharmacology Exam 3 (10 decks)

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