Overview Flashcards

1
Q
EG. FLASHCARDS FOR NO LECTURE
EDRF
Effect of NO on smooth muscle 
Colour of nitrous acid 
Nitrous acid - formula
Nitric oxide - formula
Entonox - what is this and it's use?
What is formed when NO is oxidised
How does NO differ from nitrogen dioxide (it is a free radical)HAPE
A

a

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2
Q

Define endothelium

A

Thin (single) layer of simple squamous epithelium

Composed of endothelial cells

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3
Q

Define EDRF

A

Endothelium derived relaxing factor aka. NO

Causes vascular smooth muscle to relax

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4
Q

Function of NO in blood vessels

A

Causes vascular smooth muscle to relax - vasodilation

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5
Q

Appearance of nitrous acid (HNO2)

A

This is colourless (this is NOT NO)

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6
Q

Nitrous oxide vs. nitric oxide - chemical formula

A

Nitrous oxide - N2O

Nitric oxide - NO

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7
Q

Define Entonox

A

Anaesthesia gas

Composed of 50% NO and 50% O2

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8
Q

Use of entonox

A

Pre-hospital care
Childbirth
Emergency medicine

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9
Q

Define free radical

A

Molecule with an unpaired electron in it’s outer valence/reactive shell

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10
Q

Free radicals - oxidising or reducing agents?

A

Free radicals look to take electrons - oxidising agents

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11
Q

Effect of NO being free radical?

A

NO is very unstable (but much more stable than other free radicals)

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12
Q

When is NO stable?

A

In body tissues where the PO2 is lower than 50mmHg

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13
Q

Reaction of NO with hydroxyl (OH) radical

A

NO + OH –> HNO2

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14
Q

Enzyme that synthesises NO?

A

Nitric oxide synthase (NOS)

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15
Q

Function of NOS

A

L-arginine + 1/2 O2 –> citrulline + NO (+ H+ + e-)

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16
Q

Three isoforms of NOS

A

1 - bNOS - brain
2 - iNOS - induced (not calcium dependent)
3 - eNOS - endothelial

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17
Q

Location of bNOS

A

Central and peripheral neuronal cells

Calcium dependent

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18
Q

Location of iNOS

A

Found in macrophages (also most nucleated cells)

Induced - not calcium dependent

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19
Q

Location of eNOS

A

Vascular endothelial cells

Calcium dependent

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20
Q

What can induce production of iNOS?

A

Inducible in the presence of inflammatory cytokines

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21
Q

How is NO synthesis regulated in the vascular endothelium?

A

Main regulation is via movement of blood past the endothelial wall - sheer stress opens calcium channels - calcium enters the endothelial cells - production of eNOS

Also via binding of ACh to the ACh recepors on the endothelium allows the entry of calcium

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22
Q

Pathway of eNOS activation in the vascular endothelium

A

Calcium - activates calmodulin

Calmodulin activates eNOS

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23
Q

Three cofactors required for synthesis of eNOS

A

Biopterin H4
FMN
FAD

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24
Q

Composition responsible for the production of activated eNOS from inactivated eNOS

A

Ca2+ + calmodulin

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25
Q

What does NO activate in smooth muscle cells?

A

Guanylate cyclase

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26
Q

What is the mechanism of action of guanylate cyclase?

A

Conversion of guanosine triphosphate in the smooth muscle to cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP)

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27
Q

Effect of cGMP on the vascular smooth muscle?

A

cGMP - relaxation of vascular smooth muscle - vasodilation

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28
Q

Mechanism of action of NO causing smooth muscle relaxation

A

NO diffuses from endothelium to smooth muscle cells
NO activates guanylate cyclase
Guanylate cyclase converts guanosine triphosphate to cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP)
cGMP causes smooth muscle relaxation

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29
Q

Effect of vasodilation?

A

Vasodilation increases local blood flow

This maintains low peripheral vascular resistance and a normal blood pressure

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30
Q

Effect of whole body inhibition of eNOS by drug?

A

This causes increased blood pressure esp. pulmonary arterial pressure

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31
Q

Two antagonisers of NO i.e. vasoconstrictors of the blood vessels?

A

Noradrenaline

Angiotensin

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32
Q

Damage to the NO system results in what complication?

A

Hypertension

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33
Q

Effect on blood flow to exercising muscles?

A

Blood flow increases over ten fold

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34
Q

Effect on blood flow to heart during exercise

A

Blood flow increases up to three fold

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35
Q

Effect on blood flow to kidney during exercise

A

Blood flow decreases by nearly half

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36
Q

Effect on blood flow to skin during exercise

A

Blood flow increases nearly four fold

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37
Q

Effect on blood flow to brain during exercise

A

Blood flow to the brain does not change

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38
Q

Receptors causing vasoconstriction of arterioles

A

Alpha-1 receptors

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39
Q

What causes the vasodilation to exercising muscles?

A

Chemical factors - NO and adenosine

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40
Q

Effect of sympathetic nervous system on arterioles

A

Vasoconstriction - NO and adenosine overcome this

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41
Q

How is NO production increased during exercise?

A

Increased local blood flow - increased sheering forces and opening of calcium channels - increased activation of eNOS - increased production of NO

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42
Q

How is NO produced in anaerobic metabolism?

A

Depletion of ATP produces lactate which lowers pH

Lowered pH produces nitrous acid HNO2 - can form NO

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43
Q

Two effects of exercise on the coronary arterioles and cause

A

Diameter of the coronary arterioles increases
Number of open arterioles (collaterals) increases

Caused by NO

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44
Q

Cause of angina during exercise

A

If atheromatous plaque is present - vessel cannot dilate - ischaemia and angina

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45
Q

Usage of NO for treatment of angina is given in the form of?

A

GTN - glycerin trinitrate

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46
Q

Two areas where NO has an effect?

A
Smooth muscle (around blood vessels)
In the blood
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47
Q

Effect of NO in RBCs

A

NO reacts with oxyhaemoglobin to produce nitrosohaemoglobin

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48
Q

Effect of nitrosohaemoglobin

A

This displaces oxygen - increases delivery of oxygen to hypoxic tissue

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49
Q

Why does local hypoxia occur during exercise?

A

Occurs in muscles at the start of exercise

More ATP used than produced

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50
Q

Define persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)

A

Reduced pulmonary arterial resistance with the first breath does not occur - lungs are not properly perfused

Addition of NO to the inspired gas

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51
Q

Effect of low ventilation on NO levels and why?

A

Low ventilation causes low NO production because O2 is required for the production
SO low ventilation equates to low perfusion

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52
Q

Effect of exercise on the pulmonary circulation

A

Exercise causes increased CO - causes increased blood flow - the pulmonary arterial resistance decreases to maintain the BP

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53
Q

Receptors causing relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

A

Beta 2 receptors

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54
Q

Effect of reduced NO in the brain

A

Reduced NO - reduces the cerebral blood flow

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55
Q

Resting blood flow through the brain

A

50ml/min/100gm

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56
Q

Blood loss causing reversible brain damage

A

Blood flow falls to half of normal - around 25

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57
Q

Blood loss causing irreversible brain damage

A

Blood flow falls to one quarter of normal - around 10-15

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58
Q

Function of basal release of NO

A

Prevention of leucocytes (anti-inflammatory) and platelets (anti-thrombotic) from adhering to the surface of the endothelium

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59
Q

Four functions of NO

A

Direct vasodilation
Anti-thrombotic effect
Anti-inflammatory effect
Anti-proliferative effect

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60
Q

How can iNOS lead to shock?

A

Overproduction of NO from macrophages can result in septic shock - uncontrollable vasodilation

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61
Q

Equation for blood pressure

A

BP = CO x SVR

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62
Q

Define cardiac output

A

Blood flow produced by the heart per minute

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63
Q

Define systolic BP

A

Maximum BP during ventricular contraction

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64
Q

Define diastolic BP

A

Minimum level of BP measured between the contractions of the heart

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65
Q

Eight components that can effect BP

A
Activity 
Temperature 
Diet
Emotional state
Posture
Physical state
Medication usage
Ethnic background
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66
Q

Normal BP

A

120/80

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67
Q

Hypotension level

A

<90/60

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68
Q

Define postural hypotension

A

When the systolic decreases by 20 or the diastolic decreases by 10 when standing

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69
Q

Three causes of postural hypertension

A

Old age
Diabetes
Drugs

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70
Q

CNS effects of hypotension x4

A

Dizziness
Impaired cognition
Lethargy and fatigue
Visual disturbances (hypoperfusion of brain)

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71
Q

Muscle effects of hypotension x2

A
Paracervical backache (upper back)
General fatigue
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72
Q

Boundary for hypertension

A

140/90 persistently

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73
Q

Range of prehypertensio

A

130-139/85-89

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74
Q

Range of prehypertensio

A

130-139/85-89

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75
Q

Are prehypertensives candidates for drug therapy?

A

No - lifestyle modification

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76
Q

Isolated systolic hypertension

A

Systolic: >140
Diastolic: <90

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77
Q

Three lifestyle modifications to reduced BP

A

Weight loss
Increased physical activity
Limited alcohol consumption

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78
Q

What should be avoided prior to blood pressure measurements (x3) and for how long?

A

Caffeine
Exercise
Smoking

At least 30 minutes

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79
Q

Which BP increases with age?

A

Systolic

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80
Q

Four adverse effects of hypertension

A

Stroke
Coronary heart disease
Renal impairment
Peripheral vascular disease

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81
Q

Each 20/10mmHg increase in BP increases the risk of mortality by what rate? What age group is this prevalent in?

A

Doubles the risk

40-69 years

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82
Q

What is HOTT?

A

Hypertension Optimal Treatment Trial

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83
Q

What is HOTT?

A

Hypertension Optimal Treatment Trial

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84
Q

Results of HOTT - what did it tell us?

A

Lowest incidence of CV events when DBP maintained at 83
and maintained at <80 in diabetics

SO especially important to control hypertension in diabetics

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85
Q

Concentric hypertrophy

A

Thickened wall of the left ventricle
Decreased lumen diameter

Must increase the HR to maintain CO

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86
Q

Eccentric hypertrophy

A

Whole ventricle enlarges - enlarged heart is weaker

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87
Q

Effect of chronic hypertension on the heart

A

Results in concentric hypertrophy

SO then the HR increases

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88
Q

Effect of chronic hypertension on the eyes x3

A

Chronic hypertension damages the retina

Cotton wool spots
Silver wiring
Severe cases: swelling of the optic disc i.e. papilledema

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89
Q

Define pailledema

A

This is swelling of the optic disc of the eye

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90
Q

Primary hypertension cause

A

Idiopathic - genetic

90-95% of cases

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91
Q

Secondary hypertension cause x5

A

5% of cases

Renal disease
Endocrine disease
Coarctation of the aorta
Iagtrogenic i.e. hormonal/oral contraception, NSAIDs
Thyroid - hyper or hypo
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92
Q

Two systems to control BP

A

Neuronal - baroreceptors

Hormonal - RAAS

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93
Q

Location of baroreceptros

A

Carotid artery - carotid sinus
Aortic arch

These are mechanoreceptors

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94
Q

Timescale of the RAAS system to maintain BP

A

Maintenance of steady, long term pressure

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95
Q

Timescale of the RAAS system to maintain BP

A

Maintenance of steady, long term pressure

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96
Q

RAAS pathway

A

Angiotensinogen to angiotensin I via renin

Angiotensin I to angiotensin II via ACE

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97
Q

Effects of angiotensin II x3

A

Increased sympathetic action
Release of aldosterone
Increased secretion of ADH

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98
Q

Increased levels of what may be present in patients with hypertension? x2

A

Increased renin

Increased angiotensin II

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99
Q

Effect of hypertension on salt and water and why?

A

Excess salt retention - raised water levels causes change in osmotic pressure
Retention of water - raised ADH

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100
Q

Two key treatments in hypertension (non-pharmacological)

A

Dietary salt restriction

Diuretics

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101
Q

Normal sodium levels

A

Between 135 and 145mmol/L

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102
Q

Hyponatremia

A

Sodium levels <135mmol/L

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103
Q

Three symptoms of mild hyponatraemia

A

Loss of energy and fatigue
Confusion
Muscle weakness

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104
Q

Six symptoms of severe hyponatraemia

A
Nausea and vomiting 
Headache 
Spasms
Restlessness and irritability 
Seizures
Coma
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105
Q

Prevalence of hypertension in type II diabetics at age 45

A

40%

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106
Q

Prevalence fo hypertension in type II diabetics age 75

A

60%

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107
Q

BMI for obesity

A

> 30

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108
Q

Five factors that are raised in obese patients that can result in the onset of hypertension

A

Increased renal renin release
Increased angiotensin formation
Increased sodium retention
High levels of leptin - increased sympathetic vasoconstriction
Hyperinsulaemia - insulin induced hyperkalaemia

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109
Q

First line treatment for hypertension

A

Lifestyle changes - exercise, increased fruit and veg and decreased salt, reduced weight if obese

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110
Q

First line pharmacological treatment for hypertension

A

Thiazide diuretic

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111
Q

Name of thiazide diuretic used in the treatment of hypertension

A

Bendroflumethazide

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112
Q

Second and third line treatment of hypertension

A

Thiazide + beta blocker or ACE inhibitor

Angiotensin receptor blocker

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113
Q

Fourth line treatment of hypertension

A

Calcium channel blocker

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114
Q

Final line treatment of hypertension

A

Alpha blocker

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115
Q

First line pharmacological treatment for hypertensive diabetics

A

ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers

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116
Q

Most important first line treatment for obese hypertensives

A

Exercise and try to lose weight

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117
Q

Therapeutic target for hypertensives

A

<140/85 in clinic

<130/80 at home

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118
Q

Therapeutic target for diabetic hypertensives

A

<140/80 in clinic

<130/75 at home

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119
Q

Define erythropoesis

A

Production of red blood cells

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120
Q

Sites of erythropoesis prior to brith

A

1-3 week - yolk sac and mesothelial layers of the placenta
6 week - liver and spleen
3 month - bone marrow as the bones form

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121
Q

0-5 years - site of erythropoiesis

A

Bone marrow of all bones

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122
Q

5-20/25 years site of erythropoiesis

A

Bone marrow of the long bones

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123
Q

25 years + site of erythropoesis

A

Bone marrow of membranous bones - vertebrae, sternum, ribs, cranial bones, ileum

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124
Q

Name the 5 membranous bones

A
Verterbae
Sternum 
Cranium 
Ribs 
Ileum
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125
Q

Define myeloid tissue

A

Bone marrow

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126
Q

Red bone marrow function

A

Site of erythropoiesis

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127
Q

Yellow bone marrow function

A

Contains large amounts of fat droplets and cells

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128
Q

Stages of production of an erythrocyte

A
Haematopoetic stem cell 
Common myeloid progenitor cell (committed at this stage)
Proerythroblast
Early erythroblast
Late erythroblast
Erythroblast
Normoblast
Reticulocyte
Erythrocyte
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129
Q

Cytoplasm of what cell stains blue?

A

Proerythroblast

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130
Q

How to recognise proerythroblast?

A

Bright blue rim of cytoplasm around blue nucleus

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131
Q

How to recognise early erythroblast?

A

Polychromatic i.e. many coloured nucleus

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132
Q

Cells that contain ribosomal RNA in them are?

A

Reticulocytes

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133
Q

Define diapedesis

A

Passing of the erythrocytes through pores in the capillary membranes from the bone marrow into the blood

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134
Q

Diameter of erythrocytes

A

7.8um

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135
Q

Volume of erythrocyte

A

90cu mm

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136
Q

Volume of RBC in microcytic anaemia

A

<79/80fl

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137
Q

Volume of RBC in macrocytic anaemia

A

> 100fl

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138
Q

Normal RBC count - general

A

Around 5 million per microlitre

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139
Q

Normal lifespan of RBC

A

120 days (+/- 30 days)

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140
Q

RBC count in men

A

5.2 x0.3x10^6

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141
Q

RBC count in women

A

4.7 x0.3x10^6

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142
Q

Component that controls erythropoiesis is?

A

EPO - erythropoietin

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143
Q

Production site of EPO

A

Fibroblasts in the kidney - at the proximal convoluted tubule
Glomus cells of the carotid body

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144
Q

Why is EPO only produced in these specific locations?

A

Oxygen levels here are not affected by exercises or BP changes - steady usage of oxygen

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145
Q

What are EPO secreting cells sensitive to?

A

Hypoxia

Hypoxia stimulates increased EPO release

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146
Q

Anaemia caused by kidney damage and why?

A

Kidney damage - reduced EPO production

This can cause microcytic anaemia

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147
Q

Charge on erythrocytes

A

Outside negative surface charge due to presence of glycoproteins - causes them to repel and not stick to each other

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148
Q

Define rouleaux

A

Clumping of erythrocytes caused by reduced charge on their surface

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149
Q

Cause of rouleaux x2

A

Inflammatory reactions Bacteria in the blood

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150
Q

Define ESR

A

Erythrocyte sedimentary rate

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151
Q

Significance of raised ERS

A

Non-specific marker for infection in the blood (due to formation of rouleaux)

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152
Q

Two reasons RBCs need ATP

A

Sodium pumps in the membrane

GLUT1 transporters to consume glucose

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153
Q

Metabolism of RBCs

A

Anaerobic glycolysis (and pentose phosphate pathway)

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154
Q

Name the four myeloid cells

A
M M Me
Megacaryocyte 
Mast Cell
Myeoblast
Erythrocyte
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155
Q

Cells and site of removal of RBCs from the body

A

Removed via macrophages when passing through the spleen

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156
Q

Three signals indicating need for removal of RBCs

A

Cell surface antigens of old cells differ to that of young cells
Increased levels of methaemoglobin
RBCs become more rigid and trapped in splenic capillaries

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157
Q

Breakdown of haem via what enzymes

A

Haem to biliverdin via haemoxygenase

Biliverdin to bilirubin via biliverdin reductase

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158
Q

Colour of biliverdin

A

Green

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159
Q

Globin proteins are broken down into what?

A

Amino acids

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160
Q

Unconjugated bilirubin

A

When bilirubin is bound to albumin in the splenic macrophages and released into the blood

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161
Q

Conjugated bilirubin

A

Occurs in the liver

Bilirubin attaches to glucoronic acid via hepatocytes and is now more soluble

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162
Q

How is conjugated bilirubin excreted?

A

Converted to urobilnogen in the small intestine - passes out in faeces (10% in urine)

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163
Q

Site of haemoglobin to biliverdin

A

Spleen

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164
Q

Site of biliverdin to bilirubin

A

Liver

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165
Q

Site of bilirubin to urobilnogen

A

Small intestine

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166
Q

Acid that binds to bilirubin to form conjugated bilirubin

A

Glucoronic acid

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167
Q

Stercobilin

A

10% of urobilnogen converted to this - excreted in the urine

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168
Q

Define arteriosclerosis

A

Thickening of an arterial wall which then loses elasticity

Sclerosis - hardening

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169
Q

Most common form of ateriosclerosis

A

Athersclerosis

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170
Q

Three stages of atherosclerosis

A

Endothelial damage (and activation)
Uptake of modified LDLs, adhesion and infiltration of macrophages
Smooth muscle proliferation and formation of fibrous cap

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171
Q

Four functions of the endothelium

A

Vasomotor tone
Thrombosis - antithrombotic properties
Production of inflammatory factors
Production of cellular adhesion molecules (CAMs) - receptors for monocytes

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172
Q

Four causes of endothelial damage

A

Shear stress e.g. turbulent blood flow
Toxic damage e.g. free radicals
High levels of lipids
Viral or bacterial infection

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173
Q

Function of lipoproteins

A

Transportation of fat in the blood

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174
Q

Five types of lipoproteins

A
Chylomicrons 
VLDL
LDL 
IDL
HDL
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175
Q

LDL vs. HDL

A

LDL - bad - composed of mainly cholesterol

HDL - good - composed of mainly protein

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176
Q

Two ways in which LDLs can become modified

A

Oxidation

Glycation

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177
Q

Glycation of LDLs is prevalent in?

A

Diabetes mellitus - high glucose levels

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178
Q

Effect of oxidised LDL?

A

This can act to cause endothelial damage itself

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179
Q

Infiltration of macrophages occurs as?

A

Increased monocytes bind to CAM - crosses endothelium and transformed into macrophages

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180
Q

Define foam cells

A

Lipid laden macrophages

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181
Q

How are foam cells formed?

A

Macrophages pick up excess levels of modified LDL via scavenger receptor and grow larger and larger
LDL apolipoprotein B100

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182
Q

Apoliprotein B100 present on?

A

VLDL
IDL
LDL

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183
Q

Apoliprotein present on chylomicrons?

A

B48

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184
Q

Fatty streak of atheroma occurs in which layer of the artery?

A

Occurs in the tunica intima

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185
Q

Component causing smooth muscle proliferation in arteriosclerosis?

A

Platelet derived growth factor (PDGF)

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186
Q

Two cell types that release PDGF?

A

Endothelial cells

Macrophages

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187
Q

What are the two types of smooth muscle?

A

Resting - contractile

Proliferating - secretion of extracellular materials

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188
Q

What is broken down by the proliferating smooth muscles?

A

Internal elastic lamina

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189
Q

How is a thrombus formed by the smooth muscle cells?

A

Proliferating smooth muscle cells
Secretion of extracellular materials e.g. collagen
Collagen - platelets will stick to this and form a thrombus

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190
Q

Four common sites of atheroma formation

A

Carotid bifurcation
Aortic bifurcation
Lateral walls of the common iliac arteries
Coronary arteries

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191
Q

Unmodifiable risk factors for atheroma formation x3

A

Age
Sex
Family history

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192
Q

Modifiable risk factors for atheroma formation x5

A
Dyslipidaemia 
Smoking 
Hypertension 
DM 
Physical activity
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193
Q

Define dyslipidaemia

A

Elevated LDL/cholesterol levels

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194
Q

Desirable total cholesterol levels in adults

A

<200mg/dl

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195
Q

Desirable LDL and HDL levels in adults

A

LDL - <130

HDL - <40

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196
Q

Three emerging risk factors for the onset of atherosclerosis

A

Homocysteinaemia
Lipoprotein a
Infection

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197
Q

Three treatment options for atheroma formation

A

Modifiable risk factors
Plasma lipid reduction - statins
Polypill usage

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198
Q

What is contained in the polypill? x5

A

Statin
Three BP lowering drugs - thiazide, beta blocker, ACE inhibitor
Folic acid
Aspirin

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199
Q

Complications from atheroma formation x5

A
Coronary artery disease - MI/angina 
Peripheral vascular disease
Stroke 
Aneurysm 
Renal artery stenosis
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200
Q

Surgical interventions for atherosclerosis x3

A

CABG
PCI
Stent

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201
Q

Arterial stent generally done in which artery?

A

Generally done via radial artery rather than the femoral artery

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202
Q

Two types of angina and causes

A

Stable - coronary artery disease

Unstable - acute myocardial infarction

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203
Q

Typical history of stable angina (from the patient)

A

Central chest pain comes on following exertion

Stops when exertion is ceased

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204
Q

Two main causes of angina

A

Decreased myocardial oxygen supply

Increased myocardial oxygen demand

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205
Q

Two causes of reduced myocardial oxygen supply

A

Coronary heart disease

Severe anaemia

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206
Q

Three causes of increased myocardial oxygen demand

A

Left ventricular hypertrophy
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Rapid tachyarrythrmias

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207
Q

Five indications for cardiac referral of a patient

A

New onset angina
Exclusion of angina in high risk individuals with atypical symptoms
Worsening angina in patient with previously stable symptoms
New or recurrent angina in patient with history of e.g. MI
Assessment of occupational fitness eg. airline pilots

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208
Q

Four methods for diagnosis of angina

A

Clinical assesment
Electropcardiography
LV wall motion analysis
Perfusion imaging

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209
Q

Diagnostic features for assessment of angina x6

A
HISTORY
Character - tight
Location - chest central
Radiation - arms, throat, jaw
Duration - 5-10 minutes at the most
Provocation - exertion
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210
Q

ECG results of patient stable angina - resting vs. exercise ECG

A

Resting ECG - can be normal

Exercise ECG - abnormal

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211
Q

Exercise ECG - stable angina appearance

A

Planar or down-sloping ST depression

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212
Q

ST depression is indicative of what?

A

ST depression - indicates ischaemia

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213
Q

Main non-invasive investigation for angina

A

Exercise ECG

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214
Q

Functional imaging investigations for angina x3

A

Isotope perfusion imaging
MR perfusion imaging
Dobutamine stress echo

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215
Q

Drugs to increase O2 delivery for angina x4

A

Nitrates
Calcium channel blockers
Nicorandil
Revasc

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216
Q

Drugs to reduced oxygen demand in angina

A
Beta blockers
Nitrates
Nicorandil 
Calcium channel blockers
Trimetazidine 
Ivabridine
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217
Q

Secondary prevention of angina

A

Aspirin and statins primarily

Also ACE inhibitors

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218
Q

Surgical interventions for the management of angina

A

CABG

PCI

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219
Q

Diagnostic criteria for MI

A

Change in the troponin levels (increase) PLUS at least one of:
Symptoms of ischaemia
New ST segment/T wave changes
Pathological Q waves
Imaging evidence of lack of wall motility
Presence of thrombus on angiograph

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220
Q

Increased troponin levels indicate?

A

MI - cardiac muscle damage

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221
Q

Where is troponin found?

A

Found only in cardiac myocytes

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222
Q

Change on ECG required for MI?

A

Not for NSTEMI

YES for STEMI - ECG is diagnostic for STEMI

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223
Q

Two types of MI

A

NSTEMI - non-ST elevation myocardial infarction

STEMI - ST elevation myocardial infarction

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224
Q

STEMI vs. NSTEMI

A

STEMI - ruptured coronary plaque and occlusive thrombus

NSTEMI - ruptured coronary plaque and subocclusive thrombus

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225
Q

Type 1 AMI and cause

A

Spontaneous AMI

Plaque rupturing

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226
Q

Five cardiac signs of AMI

A
Chest pain 
4th heart sound 
Low grade fever
Leucocytosis and raised inflammatory markers 
Troponin leak (increased levels)
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227
Q

Three autonomic symptoms of AMI

A

Tachycardia
Sweating
Vomiting

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228
Q

Five traits that may result in a delay for calling for help when experiencing an AMI

A
Older people 
Women 
Nocturnal or weekend pain 
No previous AMI 
People with diabetes
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229
Q

What percentage of people who die from an AMI do so before reaching the hospital?

A

33%

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230
Q

What is the mortality rate after one year of an AMI?

A

40%

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231
Q

Major cause of morbidity in AMI patients?

A

Cardiogenic shock - left ventricular failure

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232
Q

Treatment for STEMI

A

Reduction of the size of the infarct via thrombolytic drugs

and reperfusion therapy

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233
Q

Two main types of thrombolytic drugs

A

Streptokinase

Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

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234
Q

What are thrombolytic drugs?

A

These work to dissolve the blood clots

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235
Q

Action of streptokinase

A

Lysis of fibrin in the thrombus

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236
Q

Action of tPA

A

Converts plasminogen to plasmin –> this lysis the fibrin in the thrombus

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237
Q

Main method for reperfusion therapy?

A

Primary PCI

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238
Q

What should be provided prior to primary PCI?

A

Anti-platelet drugs i.e. aspirin/heparin

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239
Q

Prevention treatment for AMI following discharge?

A

Lifestyle - smoking, diet, exercise
Prevention durgs - aspirin, statin, beta blocker, ACE-inhibitor , tricagrelor
Prevention devices e.g. ICD

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240
Q

Should tricagrelor be given for life treatment?

A

No

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241
Q

How many patients with AMI are smokers?

A

20%

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242
Q

How many patients with AMI under 60 years are smokers?

A

50%

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243
Q

What percentage of AMI sufferers quit smoking?

A

33%

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244
Q

Volume of RBCs in the body

A

24x10^12

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245
Q

RBC lifespan

A

120 days - about 4 months

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246
Q

RBCs make up what proportion of all body cells?

A

1/3

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247
Q

RBC approximate death rate

A

2x10^11

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248
Q

Average diet contains how much iron per day?

A

15mg

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249
Q

What is the total quantity of body iron?

A

3-5mg

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250
Q

Most iron in the body is in what form?

A

Circulating haemoglobin - 2mg

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251
Q

Where is the majority of iron absorbed in the body?

A

Duodenum

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252
Q

Cells that absorb iron are? Location?

A

Enterocytes in the duodenal lining

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253
Q

Two forms in which iron can be absorbed

A

Free iron in the ferrous form Fe2+

Protein e.g. haem

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254
Q

Ferrous iron formula

A

Fe2+

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255
Q

Ferric iron formula

A

Fe3+

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256
Q

Function of ferric reductase on iron

A

Ferric reductase reduces Fe3+ to Fe2+ (for absorption)

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257
Q

What component regulates the level of free iron in the plasma?

A

Transferrins

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258
Q

What component transports iron from the bone marrow into the blood?

A

Transferrins

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259
Q

How many iron atoms can transferrins hold and in what form?

A

Can hold two iron atoms in the ferric (Fe3+) form

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260
Q

Location of transferring receptor

A

Erythroblast

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261
Q

Release of iron from transferring occurs where?

A

Within the cell i.e. erythroblast via endocytosis

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262
Q

Free iron in the erythroblast is taken up by?

A

Ferritin

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263
Q

How is iron stored in cells?

A

Bound to ferritin

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264
Q

How is iron released from ferritin?

A

Controlled fashion - when needed

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265
Q

Common diagnostic test for iron deficiency anaemia

A

Serum ferritin levels - indirect marker of stored iron

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266
Q

Define anaemia

A

Low hb. level <13.5g/dl male and <11.5g/dl female

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267
Q

Most common blood disorder of patients

A

Anaemia

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268
Q

Anaemia hb. level in child 6 months to 6 years

A

<11g/dl

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269
Q

Anaemia hb. level in child 6 years to 14 years

A

<12 g/dl

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270
Q

Three variables that alter normal hb. level

A

Age (decreases with age)
Sex
Racial background

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271
Q

Five further tests if hb. is low

A
History and examination 
Full blood count and blood film 
Serum 12, folate, ferritin
Renal and liver function tests
ESR
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272
Q

Symptoms of anaemia x5

A
Tiredness
Fainting
Shortness of breath 
Worsening angina/claudication
Palpitations
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273
Q

Signs of anaemia x6

A
Pallor 
Rapid heart rate
Bounding pulse
Systolic flow murmur 
Cardiac failure
Retinal haemorrhages
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274
Q

Causes of reduced production of RBCs leading to anaemia x6

A
Iron deficiency 
B12/folate deficiency 
Marrow infiltration e.g. cancer
Chronic disease
Infections e.g. HIV/parvovirus
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275
Q

Causes of increased destruction of RBCs leading to anaemia x1

A

Haemolytic anaemia

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276
Q

Causes of increased loss of RBCs leading to anaemia x1

A

Bleeding

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277
Q

Two most common causes of anaemia

A

Iron deficiency and B12/folate deficiency

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278
Q

MCV of microcytic anaemia

A

<76fl

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279
Q

MCV of macrocytic anaemia

A

> 96fl

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280
Q

Volume of normocytic anaemia

A

76-96fl

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281
Q

Two main microcytic anaemias

A

Iron deficiency anaemia

Thalassaemia

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282
Q

1ml of blood contains how many mg of iron?

A

0.5mg

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283
Q

Major source of haem iron is?

A

Food of animal origin

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284
Q

Factors that can enhance iron absorption x6

A
Haem iron - meat
Ferrous salts - Fe2+
Acidic pH
Iron deficiency 
Pregnancy 
Hypoxia
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285
Q

Factors that can impair iron absorption x5

A
Non-haem iron i.e. veg
Ferric salts - Fe3+
Alkaline pH
Iron overload
Inflammatory disorders
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286
Q

Common drug that can decrease iron absorption

A

Protein pump inhibitors for acid reflux/indigestion

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287
Q

Causes of iron deficiency anaemia x10

A
Menorrhagia
Varices
Ulcer
Inflammatory bowel cancer
Coeliac 
Atrophic gastritis
Growth spurts
Pregnancy 
Elderly 
Vegans
Hookworm
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288
Q

Histological cell which signifies iron deficiency anaemia is?

A

Pencil cell

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289
Q

Tablets given to treat iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Ferrous sulphate

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290
Q

Four causes of normocytic anaemia

A

Acute blood loss
Chronic disease
Cancer
Haemolysis

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291
Q

Three causes of macrocytic anaemia

A

B12/folate deficiency
Alochol/liver disease
Myelodysplasia

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292
Q

Specific function of B12/folate

A

Conversion of homocysteine to methionine (DNA synthesis)

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293
Q

B12 and folate deficiency result in what type of anaemia?

A

Macrocytic - cells fail to divide

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294
Q

B12/folate - which is destroyed by cooking?

A

Folate

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295
Q

How long is B12 stored for in the body?

A

Three years

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296
Q

How long is Folate stored for in the body?

A

Four months

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297
Q

Where is B12 absorbed?

A

Ileum - bound to IF

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298
Q

Where is folate absorbed?

A

Duodenum and jejunum

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299
Q

What is B12 bound to in the body?

A

Intrinsic factor

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300
Q

Cells that produce IF are?

A

Parietal cells of gastric mucosa

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301
Q

Lack of IF results in?

A

Pernicious anaemia

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302
Q

Histological appearance of B12/folate deficiency?

A

Hypersegmented neutrophils

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303
Q

Two main causes of B12 deficiency

A

Nutritional - lack in diet

Malabsorption - gastric i.e. IF or intestinal e.g. chron’s disease

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304
Q

Pernicious anaemia?

A

Lack of IF

Autoimmune disorder - action of autoantibody

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305
Q

Autoantibody in pernicious anaemia attacks what? x2

A

Gastric mucosa

IF

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306
Q

Five signs of pernicious anaemia

A
Insidious - gradual onset
Anaemia
Glossitis
Mild jaundice
Neurological symptoms
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307
Q

Treatment for pernicious anaemia

A

Intramuscular B12 once every three months for life

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308
Q

Four signs of folate deficiency

A

Insidious
Anaemia
Glossitis
Mild jaundice

NO neurological signs!

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309
Q

Treatment for folate deficiency

A

Oral folic acid

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310
Q

Define haemolytic anaemia

A

Lifespan of RBC <120 days

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311
Q

Three signs of haemolytic anaemia

A

Jaundice
Increased LDH levels
Spherocytosis

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312
Q

Three signs of haemolytic anaemia - explain

A

Jaundice - increased release of bilirubin (can lead to gallstones)
Increased levels of LDH - released from the cells
Spherocyte formation

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313
Q

Four haemolytic anaemias

A

Hereditary spherocytosis
Sickle cell disease
Thalassaemia
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

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314
Q

Signs of haemolytic anaemia x4

A

Pallor and anaemia
Jaundice
Gallstones
Splenomegaly

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315
Q

Inheritance pattern of hereditary spherocytosis

A

Autosomal dominant

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316
Q

G6PD function

A

Prevents/reverses the oxidation of Hb. membrane SO prolongs the lifespan of RBC

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317
Q

Inheritance of G6PD deficiency

A

X-linked

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318
Q

Immunoglobulin involved in autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

A

IgG

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319
Q

Investigation for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

A

Direct Coombs test/Direct antiglobulin test

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320
Q

Define stroke

A

Interruption of cerebral blood flow causing ischaemia and hypoxia

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321
Q

Two causes of stroke

A

Infarction - blockage of artery

Haemorrhage - rupture of aneurysm

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322
Q

Two divisions of haemorrhagic stroke

A

Parenchymal - into the brain tissue

Subarachnoid - into the subarachnoid space

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323
Q

Stroke is the ____ most common cause of death in the UK? After what?

A

Third most common

Heart disease
Cancer

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324
Q

Direct Coombs test/direct antiglobulin test is used for?

A

Investigation of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

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325
Q

Stroke symptoms are quick or gradual?

A

QUICK

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326
Q

Symptoms of stroke

A

Sudden numbness/weakness of face/limbs
Sudden confusion
Sudden trouble with vision
Sudden severe headache

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327
Q

FAST pneumonic for symptoms

A

Face
Arms
Speech
Time

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328
Q

Stroke golden hour

A

Interventions in the first hour following stroke make significant difference to outcome

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329
Q

Four types of stroke

A

TIA
Thrombotic - ischaemic
Embolic - ischaemic
Haemorragic

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330
Q

Maximum length of a TIA

A

24 hours - clinically this is only for 85% of patients

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331
Q

Typical length of a TIA

A

<1 hour

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332
Q

Cause of TIA

A

Release of small emboli from a thrombus

Temporary downstream blockage of vessel

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333
Q

What is thrombotic stroke?

A

Development of atheroma in a cerebral vessel - ruptures and forms local clot

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334
Q

What is embolic stroke?

A

Embolism occurs from an original thrombus

Original thrombus in this case is not in cerebral arteries

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335
Q

Main feature of embolic stroke?

A

Rapid development of neurological signs

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336
Q

Thrombotic and embolic strokes make up what percentage of all strokes?

A

85%

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337
Q

Source of embolism in embolic stroke is usually where?

A

Left side of heart

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338
Q

Key feature of haemorrhagic stroke is? x2

A

Severe headache

Stupor/coma that may progress with time

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339
Q

Cause of haemorrhagic stroke

A

Rupture of blood vessel

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340
Q

Define lacunar stroke

A

Occlusion of artery supplying deep structures rather than cortex

Basal ganglia, thalamus, pons, cerebellum

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341
Q

Presence of cortical infarct signs in lacunar stroke?

A

Absent

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342
Q

Three forms of lacunar stroke?

A

Motor hemiparesis with dysarthria
Ataxia and hemiparesis
Dysarthria and clumsy hand

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343
Q

Define dysarthria

A

Difficult or unclear articulation of speech due to poor articulation of the muscles of speech

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344
Q

Define ataxia

A

Loss of full control of bodily movements

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345
Q

Main feature of embolic stroke?

A

Rapid development of neurological signs

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346
Q

Thrombotic and embolic strokes make up what percentage of all strokes?

A

85%

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347
Q

Source of embolism in embolic stroke is usually where?

A

Left side of heart

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348
Q

Key feature of haemorrhagic stroke is? x2

A

Severe headache

Stupor/coma that may progress with time

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349
Q

Cause of haemorrhagic stroke

A

Rupture of blood vessel

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350
Q

Define lacunar stroke

A

Occlusion of artery supplying deep structures rather than cortex

Basal ganglia, thalamus, pons, cerebellum

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351
Q

Presence of cortical infarct signs in lacunar stroke?

A

Absent

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352
Q

Three forms of lacunar stroke?

A

Motor hemiparesis with dysarthria
Ataxia and hemiparesis
Dysarthria and clumsy hand

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353
Q

Define dysarthria

A

Difficult or unclear articulation of speech

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354
Q

Define ataxia

A

Loss of full control of bodily movments

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355
Q

Motor hemiparesis with dysarthria where is the lesion?

A

Infarct in the posterior limb of the internal capsule

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356
Q

Ataxia and hemiparesis where is the lesion?

A

Infarct in the posterior limb of the internal capsule

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357
Q

Dysarthria and clumsy hand where is the lesion?

A

Infarct in the anterior limb of the internal capsule

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358
Q

Impaired function of cerebral sodium pump results in? x2

A

Swelling of the brain nerve cells (increased leakage of Na+ and hence water into the cell)

This swelling results in increased ICP

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359
Q

Why do cerebral nerve cells require a very high level of sodium pumps?

A

Have a very large surfaced-area to volume ration - increased sodium leakage

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360
Q

Hypertension accounts for what percentage of stroke risk?

A

35-50%

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361
Q

Those with AF have what percentage risk of stroke per year?

A

5%

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362
Q

Name five lesser risk factors for stroke

A
Hypercholestrolaemia
Migraine
Obstructive sleep apnoea 
Diet low in potassium 
Thiazide and loop diuretics
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363
Q

Most common artery for stroke

A

Middle cerebral artery

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364
Q

Why is MCA prone to aneurysms and stroke?

A

Highly tortuous artery

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365
Q

Lenticulostriate arteries - supply and origin

A

Arteries to the basal ganglia and the internal capsule

Leave MCA at 90 degree angle

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366
Q

Function of internal capsule

A

Motor commands from motor cortex to brainstem and sinal cord

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367
Q

Function of cerebral sodium pump x2

A

Maintains the membrane potential

Maintains the nerve cell size and shape

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368
Q

Impaired function of cerebral sodium pump results in? x2

A

Swelling of the brain nerve cells (lack of movement of Na+ and water out of the cell)

This swelling results in increased ICP

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369
Q

Why do brain cells have the highest consumption of ATP?

A

Most of the ATP is required to fuel the sodium pump

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370
Q

Three main treatment strategies for stroke

A

Restore blood flow
Combat excitotoxicity
Combat free radical damage

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371
Q

How can blood flow be restored following stroke?

A

Introduce tissue plasminogen activators - to burst the clots

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372
Q

Which cells remove potassium from the extracellular space of the brain?

A

Glial cells - take up the potassium

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373
Q

Hypoxic brain - effect on potassium levels?

A

In a hypoxic brain, the glial cells do not take up the potassium - increased extracellular potassium levels

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374
Q

Superoxide dismutase

A

Free radical scavenging enzymes against ROS

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375
Q

Cause of exocitotoxicity in hypoxic brain

A

Excess release of nuerotransmitters

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376
Q

Two main glutamate receptors

A

AMPA

NDMA

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377
Q

Consequence of excitotoxicity in the brain

A

Increased influx of calcium in the cell - this increases the metabolic demand - formation of free radicals

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378
Q

Define penumbra

A

Middle region around a stroke focus - the neurones are damaged by they can survive if intervention occurs

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379
Q

Three main treatment strategies for stroke

A

Restore blood flow
Combat excitotoxicity
Combat free radical damage

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380
Q

Three drugs to combat the excitotoxicity

A

NMDA antagonists
AMP antagonist e.g. NBQX
Lithium

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381
Q

Three methods to reduce free radial damage of the brain

A

Antioxidants e.g. vitamin C and E
Enzymes - superoxide dismutase
Cool down the brain

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382
Q

Superoxide dismutase

A

Free radical scavenging enzymes against ROS

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383
Q

Define clinical shock

A

Acute circulatory failure with inadequate or inappropriately distributed tissue perfusion resulting in cellular hypoxia

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384
Q

Two components of shock syndrome

A

Hypotension

End organ injury

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385
Q

Normal CO

A

5l/min

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386
Q

Normal MAP

A

100mmHg

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387
Q

MAP of shock

A

MAP <60mmHg

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388
Q

Equation for BP

A

COxSVR

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389
Q

Equation for CO

A

CO = HR x SV

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390
Q

Two hormones that act to maintain SVR and their receptors

A

Noradrenaline - alpha-1 receptors
Angiotensin 2 - angiotensin AT1 receptor

These are vasoconstrictors

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391
Q

What is the most common cause of low CO

A

Generally due to low SV

HR tends to be compensation

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392
Q

Starling’s law of the heart

A

The force of contraction increases as the end diastolic volume increases

SO the greater the preload, the greater the force of contraction so the greater the stroke volume

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393
Q

Location of alpha-1 receptors and angiotensin receptors

A

Alpha adrenoreceptor - on the outside

Angiotensin receptor - lumen

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394
Q

Three factors that can increase myocardial contractility

A

Sympathetic NS
Catecholamines i.e. adrenaline/noradrenaline
Ionotrope drugs

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395
Q

Receptor for ionotropoic drugs

A

Beta-1 receptor

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396
Q

Four factors leading to reduced myocardial contractility

A

Cardiac disease
Hypoxia/hypercapnia
pH/electrolyte disturbance
Drugs e.g. BBs or CCBs

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397
Q

How is SVR maintained?

A

Constriction of arterioles in end organs

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398
Q

Two hormones that act to maintain SVR and their receptors

A

Noradrenaline - alpha-1 receptors
Angiotensin 2 - angiotensin receptor

These are vasoconstrictors

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399
Q

Two local vasodilators

A

No

Prostacyclin

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400
Q

Local vasoconstrictor

A

Endothelin

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401
Q

Cells that produce prostacyclin

A

Endothelial cells

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402
Q

Prostacyclin is produced from what?

A

Arachidonic acid

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403
Q

Two functions of prostacyclin

A

Inhibits platelet activation

Local vasodilator - reduces calcium entry into smooth muscle

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404
Q

Hormone that antagonises the effects of prostacyclin is?

A

Thromboxane

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405
Q

Compensated shock

A

Initial stage of shock

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406
Q

Decompensated shock

A

Later stage of shock - organs cannot be perfused and start to fail

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407
Q

Four main classes of shock

A

Obstructive shock
Distributive shock
Hypovolaemic shock
Cardiogenic shock

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408
Q

Obstructive shock and example

A

Physical obstruction causing failure of cardiac output e.g. pulmonary embolism

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409
Q

Main sign of septic shock

A

Fever

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410
Q

Hypovolaemic shock and eg

A

where you have bled and lost too much blood so there is not enough circulating blood so that even if you were to increase the heart rate, preload cannot increase e.g. haemorrhage

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411
Q

Cardiogenic shock and eg

A

Failure of the heart to pump efficiently and supply blood to the body e.g. myocardial infarction/heart failure

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412
Q

Classic presentation of hypovolaemic shock

A
Low BP 
High HR
Confusion 
Anxiety 
Greyish pallor 
Oligouria
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413
Q

Effect of breath sounds on obstructive shock

A

Breath sounds are absent on the affected hemiothorax

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414
Q

Volume of blood loss that is life threatening

A

> 40% - >2litres

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415
Q

At whcih stage of hypovolaemic shock will treatment be required

A

Stage 3 - prior to this can be compensated for

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416
Q

Immediate compensation to shock

A

Increased sympathetic - HR and contractility via baroreceptors
Release of ADH vasopressin

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417
Q

Longterm compensation to shock

A

Renin, aldosterone release, increased thirst sensation, increased EPO production

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418
Q

Name of cells that produce EPO

A

Peritubular fibroblasts

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419
Q

Four stages of hypovolaemic shock

A

1 - <15% loss of blood
2 - <30% loss of blood
3 - >30% loss of blood
4 - >40% loss of blood

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420
Q

Septic shock is a form of which type of shock?

A

Distributive

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421
Q

Composition of feotal hb

A

Two alpha

Two gamma

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422
Q

Composition of adult Hb. (HbA)

A

Two alpha and two beta

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423
Q

Genes for alpha subunit - chromosome?

A

Alpha subunit - 2 genes on chromosome 16

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424
Q

Genes for beta subunit - chromosome?

A

Beta subunit - 5 genes on chromosome 11

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425
Q

Five genes for beta subunit

A
Gamma A
Gamma G
Epsilon 
Delta
Beta
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426
Q

HbF compared to HbA

A

HbF can bind O2 more efficiently than HbA

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427
Q

Hb. Gower-1 and composition

A

Very first form of Hb - first six weeks
Two zeta
Two epsilon

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428
Q

Composition of HbA2

A

Two alpha

Two delta

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429
Q

Beta thalassaemia cause

A

Mutation on chromosome 11

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430
Q

Alpha thalassaemia

A

Deleted/faulty genes on chromosome 16

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431
Q

Beta thalassaemia

A

Deleted/faulty genes on chromosome 11

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432
Q

Four forms of alpha thalassaemia and cause

A

Minima - one gene defective - silent carrier
Minor - two genes defective
Hb H disease - three genes defective
Hydrops fetalis - four genes defective - incompatible with life

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433
Q

Hydrops fetalis stillborn infant cause

A

Four defective genes on chromoome 16

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434
Q

Beta thalassaemia cause

A

Point mutation on chromosome 11

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435
Q

MCV of haemolyic anaemia

A

6-8g/dL

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436
Q

Two forms of beta thalassaemia

A

Heterozygous - minor

Homozygous - major

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437
Q

Consequence of beta thalassaemia major

A

Cannot produce sufficient levels of HbA either

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438
Q

HbE

A

Hb with single point mutation in Beta chain

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439
Q

Mitral valve prolapse

A

> 2mm systolic prolapse of one or both valve leaflets into the LA

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440
Q

Cause of SCA

A

Mutant form of beta subunit

Mutation of glutamic acid to valine (GAG to GTG) at codon 6 of chromosome 11

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441
Q

HbC

A

Hb with abnormal beta subynit

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442
Q

HbE

A

Hb with single point mutation in Beta chain

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443
Q

Most common valve lesion

A

Mitral valve prolapse

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444
Q

Symptoms of mitral valve prolapse

A

Asymptomatic

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445
Q

Signs of mitral valve prolapse

A

Ejection click and late systolic murmur

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446
Q

Treatment of mitral valve prolapse

A

Usually none necessary

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447
Q

Symptoms of aortic stenosis x5

A
Dyspnoea
Angina
Syncope
LVF
Sudden death
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448
Q

Three causes of aortic stenosis

A

Calcific disease
Congenital bicuspid valve
Rheumatic disease

449
Q

Cause of rheumatic disease

A

Group A haemolytic strep infection

450
Q

Aortic stenosis indications for surgery

A

Any symptoms of AS
Echocardiographic evidence of worsening LV dilatation
Peak systolic pressure gradient >50mmHg

451
Q

Causes of aortic regurgitation

A
Calcification
Congenital bicuspid valve
Rheumatic disease
Infective endocarditis 
Ankolysing spondylitis
Marfan syndrome
Aortic dissection

SAME AS AORTIC STENOSIS + INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS

452
Q

Symptoms of aortic regurgitation x2

A

NB. Often none
Dyspnoea - contractile failure
Angina - increased O2 demand of LV

453
Q

Causes of aortic regugitation

A
Calcification
Congenital bicuspid valve
Rheumatic disease
Infective endocarditis 
Ankolysing spondylitis
Marfan syndrome
Aortic dissection
454
Q

Symptoms of aortic regurgitation

A

a

455
Q

Signs of aortic regurgitation

A

Rapidly rising carotid pulse (increased preload)
Early diastolic murmur
Ejection murmur

456
Q

Rising carotid pulse aortic stenosis vs. aortic regurgitation

A

Aortic stenosis - slow rising

Aortic regurgitation - rapid rising

457
Q

Effect of aortic regurgitation on the LV

A

Dilatation due to increased volume/volume overload

458
Q

Investigation for aortic regurgitation

A

Echo-doppler

459
Q

Aortic regurgitation - indications for surgery

A

Any symptoms of AR

Echocardiographic evidence of worsening LV dilatation

460
Q

Cause of mitral stenosis

A

Rheumatic fever

461
Q

Signs of mitral stenosis x3

A

Fast pulse
Mid-diastolic rumble
Increased JVP, Basal crepitations, Ankle oedema - due to volume overload

462
Q

Define orthopnoea

A

Shortness of breath i.e. dyspnoea when lying flat

463
Q

Signs of mitral stenosis x3

A

Fast pulse
Mid-diastolic rumble
Increased JVP, Basal crepitations, Ankle oedmea - due to volume overload

464
Q

Investigation for mitral stensos

A

Echocardiogram + doppler

465
Q

Treatment for mitral stenosis x2

A

Valvuplasty - replacement of valve

Angioplasty - dilate the valve

466
Q

Mitral valve disease - indications for surgery

A

Symptoms that fail to respond to medical treatment

Worsening cardiovascular complications

467
Q

Symptoms and signs of mitral regurgitation

A

Same as mitral stenosis

468
Q

Mitral valve disease - indications for surgery

A

Symptoms that fail to respond to medical treatment

Worsening cardiovascular complications

469
Q

Location of cardiac plexus

A

Anterior to the carina - bifurcation of trachea at L4/L5 and posterior to arch of aorta

470
Q

Cardioinhibitory centre

A

Parasympathetic to the heart - reduces the heart rate
Synapse with the vagus
To the SAN and the AVN

471
Q

Sympathetic innervation to the heart from?

A

Sympathetic trunk

Visceral general afferents

472
Q

Cardioinhibitory centre

A

Parasympethetic to the heart

Synapse with teh vagus

473
Q

Cardioinhibitory centre location

A

The medulla

474
Q

Three nuclei of the vagus nerve

A

Dorsal motor nucleus
Nucleus ambiguus
Solitary nucleus

475
Q

Cardioacceleratory centre function x2

A

Sympathetic innervation:
Increase HR
Increase force of contraction

476
Q

Location of cardioacceleratory centre

A

Medullar - reticular formation

477
Q

Autonomic region of grey matter in the spinal cord?

A

T1-T4

Lateral horn

478
Q

Anterior chamber of the heart is?

A

Right ventricle

479
Q

Surfaces of the heart

A
Anterior 
Base
Right pulmonary 
Left pulmonary 
Diaphragmatic
480
Q

Anterior chamber of the heart is?

A

Right ventricle

481
Q

Blood supply to the AVN and the SAN?

A

Right coronary artery

482
Q

Left dominant heart is what?

A

If the posterior descending artery comes from the left coronary artery rather than the right coronary artery - 15% of people

483
Q

Blood supply to the AVN and the SAN?

A

Right coronary artery

484
Q

Three bundle branches of the LAD

A

Posterior/septal branch fo the left bundle
Right bundle
Left bundle

485
Q

Bundle of His divides into what?

A

Right bundle

Left bundle

486
Q

Bachman’’s bundle?

A

This is a bundle coming straight from the SAN

487
Q

ECG presentation of AF?

A

Absent P waves

488
Q

Causes of concentric hypertrophy x2

A

Aortic stenosis

Chronic hypertension

489
Q

Why can concentric hypertrophy lead to eccentric hypertrophy?

A

Reduced compliance results in volume overload

490
Q

Causes of ventricular hypertrophy x2

A

Aortic stenosis

Chronic hypertension

491
Q

Cause of eccentric hypertropohy

A

Volume overload/preload

492
Q

Valves open during systole

A

Aortic and pulmonary

493
Q

Valves open during diastole

A

Mitral and tricuspid

494
Q

S1-S2 systole or diastole?

A

Systole

495
Q

S2-S1 systole or diastole?

A

Diastole

496
Q

Two effects of rheumatic disease

A

Fibrosis of the valve cusps

Softening of the cordae tendinae

497
Q

When is mitral regurgitation heart?

A

Systolic murmur

498
Q

When is aortic stenosis heart?

A

Systolic murmur (mid-systolic)

499
Q

Effect of mitral valve stenosis on left atrium?

A

Causes left atrial enlargement

500
Q

When is mitral stenosis heard?

A

Diastolic murmur

501
Q

Oedema in left sided heart failure?

A

Pulmonary oedema - respiratory crackles

502
Q

Cause of eccentric hypertropohy

A

Volume overload/preload

503
Q

Valves open during systole

A

Aortic and pulmonary

504
Q

Valves open during diastole

A

Mitral and tricuspid

505
Q

Parasympathetic outflow to the heart comes from which vagus nerve nuclei?

A

Mainly nucleus ambiguus - also some from from dorsal motor nucleus

506
Q

S2-S1 systole or diastole?

A

Diastole

507
Q

Two effects of rheumatic disease

A

Fibrosis of the valve cusps

Softening of the cordae tendinae

508
Q

When is mitral regurgitation heart?

A

Systolic murmur

509
Q

When is aortic stenosis heart?

A

Systolic murmur (mid-systolic)

510
Q

Effect of mitral valve stenosis on left atrium?

A

Causes left atrial enlargement

511
Q

When is mitral stenosis heard?

A

Diastolic murmur

512
Q

Pathological/Inferior Q waves show?

A

Shows that the patient has had a previous AMI - very likely to suffer from heart failure

513
Q

Oedema in right sided heart failure?

A

Systemic oedema - swollen ankles

514
Q

Oedema in congestive heart failure?

A

Symptoms of both

515
Q

CXR signs of pulmonary oedema?

A

Batwing sign

Kerley B lines

516
Q

Define pulmonary oedema

A

Excess fluid in the lungs - at the base of the lungs

517
Q

Is heart failure more common amongst men or women?

A

Men

518
Q

Four causes of heart failure?

A

Coronary artery disease
Hypertension
Cardiomyopathy
Valvular heart disease

Anything that causes something to be wrong with the heart

519
Q

Give four aggravating factors for heart failure

A

Cardiac arrhythmia e.g. AF
Hypertension
Anaemia
Infections

520
Q

Symptoms of heart failure x3

A

Fatigue
Dyspnoea
Oedema

521
Q

Signs of heart failure x8

A
Cool skin 
Peripheral cyanosis
Basal crackles
Increased JVP
Ankle swelling
Ascites
Tachycardia
Sweating
522
Q

Give six potential complications of heart failure

A
Inttravascular thrombosis
Infection
Functional valvular dysfunction
Multi-organ failure
Cardiac arrythmias
Sudden death
523
Q

Three common ECG findings in heart failure

A

Inferior Q waves
Anterior T waves
Left bundle branch block

524
Q

What should be present on an ECG for a patient to benefit from cardiac resynchronisation therapy (pacemaker)?

A

Prolonged QRS interval - >150ms (OR >120ms plus echo signs)

525
Q

Effect of heart failure on the lungs

A

Patient has wet lungs - pulmonary oedema

526
Q

Define pulmonary oedema

A

Excess fluid in the lungs

527
Q

Gold standard investigation for heart failure is?

A

Echocardiogram

528
Q

What is brain natriuretic peptide BNP?

A

Secreted by myocardial cells in response to raised left atrial pressure

Also secreted when ventricles are stretched

529
Q

Functions of BNP x4

A

Promotes natriuresis and vasodilation

Inhibitors ADH and aldosterone release

530
Q

Effect of pharmacological treatmetn on diastolic failure?

A

No proven value

531
Q

Define pulmonary effusion

A

Collection of excess fludi in the pleural cavity - potential space becomes a real space

532
Q

Main treatment groups for heart failure x2

A

Beta blockers - for sympatho-adrenal activation

ACE inhibitors, ARB, sprionolactone - for RAAS activation

533
Q

Why are diuretics commonly given for heart failure?

A

For treatment of fluid retention

534
Q

Indications for a heart transplant x4

A
Heart failure without the following:
Major organ failure
Major co-morbidity
Psychological disability 
Severe pulmonary hypertension
535
Q

Prognosis from heart transplant

A

80% one year survival (bad)

536
Q

Diastolic vs systolic heart failure

A

Systolic - heart cannot contract effectively

Diastolic - heart cannot relax sufficiently to fill completely

537
Q

Who is diastolic failure more common in? x2

A

Women

Older patients

538
Q

Treatment of diastolic heart failure x3

A

Treat the underlying cause - especially hypertension
Treat the systolic component if mixed
Treat fluid retention

539
Q

Effect of pharmacological treatmetn on diastolic failure?

A

No proven value

540
Q

Define pulmonary effusion

A

Collection of excess fludi in the pleural cavity - potential space becomes a real space

541
Q

Define cardiac myopathy

A

A disease of the heart muscle

542
Q

Cardiac myopathy usually caused by what type of mutations?

A

Missense mutations

543
Q

Four types of cardiomyopathy are?

A

Restrictive
Hypertrophic
Dilated

544
Q

What is restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

Lack of stretch/dilatation of the ventricles during diastole due to increased stiffness of the wall

Reduced compliance

545
Q

Appearance of the heart in restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

Heart appears normal visibly but does not stretch when required

546
Q

What is pericarditis?

A

Inflammation of the pericardium

Hardening and lack of movement of fluid - restrictive disorder

547
Q

Heart sounds present in restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

Third heart sound and fourth heart sound

548
Q

Hypertrophied cardiomyopathy is?

A

Hypertrophy of the myocytes - increase in size of the cardiac muscle of the ventricular wall

549
Q

Mutations of hypertrophied cardiomyopathy?

A

Missense mutations

550
Q

Main antihypertensive for under 55 year old

A

Ace inhibitor or ARB

551
Q

First heart sound caused by?

A

Closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves

552
Q

Second heart sound caused by?

A

Closing of the aortic and pulmonary valves

553
Q

Cause of third heart sound?

A

Ventricular gallop

554
Q

Cause of fourth heart sounds?

A

Atrial gallop

555
Q

What is pericarditis?

A

Inflammation of the pericardium

Hardening and lack of movement of fluid - restrictive disorder

556
Q

Main risk factor for CHD?

A

Atherosclerosis

557
Q

Four main risk factors for CHD?

A

Hypertension
High cholesterol - atherosclerosis
Obesity
Diabetes

558
Q

Lifestyle interventions to reduced CHD in hypertensives? x7

A
Smoking cessation
Diet - reduce body weight
Reduce salt intake <100
Reduced alcohol consumption
Regular aerobic exercise
Fruit and veg
Reduce sugar intake
559
Q

Target BP for hypertensives

A

<140/80

560
Q

Second line antihypertensive?

A

Thiazide-like diuretic

561
Q

Mortality rate for CHD?

A

50% of cardiovascular disease deaths

562
Q

Calcium antagonist action and s/e

A

Vasodilation

Flushing and oedema

563
Q

ACE inhibitor action and s/e

A

Inhibit RAAS and vasodilate

Cough and low BP

564
Q

ARB action and s/e

A

Block action of angiotensin - vasodilate

Low BP

565
Q

Function of folic acid in polypill

A

Reduce homocysteine

566
Q

Quantity of aspirin in polypill?

A

75mg

567
Q

Target BP for hypertensives with diabetes

A

<130/80

568
Q

Two antihypertensives unsuitable for diabetics + why?

A

Thiazide diuretics
Beta blockers

Worsen glucose control

569
Q

Treatment of MI x4

A

Humidified oxygen
Opiates
Aspirin
Thrombolysis/primary angioplasty

570
Q

Secondary prevention for MI

A

Beta blockers
ACE inhibitors
Statins

571
Q

Four components of polypill

A

Statin
Antihypertensives
Antplatelet aspirin
Folic acid

572
Q

Function of folic acid in polypill

A

Reduce homocysteine

573
Q

Quantity of aspirin in polypill?

A

75mg

574
Q

Define autoantibodies

A

Antibodies that react to self antigens

575
Q

Alloantibodies?

A

Antibodies that react to foreign antigens

576
Q

Antigens on surface of RBC are?

A

Sugar - ABO blood type

Protein - Rhesus blood type

577
Q

Protein/sugar antigen on RBC determined by?

A

Genes

578
Q

Alloantibodies are dangerous when?

A

Exposed to another blood type e.g. pregnancy or transfusion

579
Q

Sugar antigens present on RBCs?

A

A or B

580
Q

A antigen on RBC - what antibody do you have?

A

Have anti-B antibody

581
Q

What type of Ig are RBC antigens?

A

IgM or IgG

582
Q

Agglutinate means?

A

Attach to the antigen to prevent it from binding to anything

583
Q

Universal blood type donor?

A

Blood type O - not agglutinated by any antibody

584
Q

Universal blood type acceptor?

A

AB blood type - have no antibodies in the plasma

585
Q

Different rhesus blood types?

A

C or c
D or no D (no D is written as d)
E or e

586
Q

Are antibodies produced against the rhesus blood types?

A

Not naturally produced - will be produced by immune system upon exposure

587
Q

Temperature spike during transfusion indicates what?

A

Transfusion reaction - intravascular haemolysis

STOP transfusion immediately!!

588
Q

cdE will be agglutinated by which antibodies?

A

Anti-c

Anti-E

589
Q

Which rhesus antigen is the most clinically important and why?

A

D antigen
80% without D antigen will develop anti-D if exposed
CcDEe - rhesus D positive
Cde - rhesus D negative

590
Q

Haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) is what?

A

Rhesus negative mother develops anti-D antibodies upon exposure
Rhesus positive second baby - stillbirth or severe brain damage

591
Q

How is HDN prevented?

A

Rhesus negative mothers carrying rhesus positive babies are given prophylactic anti-D antibodies

592
Q

Five risks of blood transfusion

A
Transmit infection
Alloimmunisation - antibody can compromise future transfusion
Incompatible transfusion
Iron overload from multiple transfusions
Circulatory overload
593
Q

Purpose of indirect antiglobulin test?

A

Screen for atypical antibodies in the patient’s plasma

594
Q

Temperature spike during transfusion indicates what?

A

Transfusion reaction - intravascular haemolysis

STOP transfusion immediately!!

595
Q

Thrombosis vs. embolism

A

Thrombus - pathological clot formation

Embolism - part of clot breaks off and becomes obstructed in smaller vessels

596
Q

Composition of venous vs. arterial thrombi

A

Venous thrombi - RBCs

Arterial thrombi - platelets

597
Q

Two main types of venous thromboembolism (VTE)?

A

DVT

PE

598
Q

Location of distal DVT?

A

Calf veins only

599
Q

Location of proximal DVT?

A

Popliteal veins or above

600
Q

Three main causes of VTE and what is this known as?

A

Virchow’s triad:
Reduced blood flow - stasis
Vessel wall disorder
Hypercoagulability

601
Q

Four genetic risk factors for VTE

A

Antithrombin deficiency
Protein C deficiency
Protein S deficiency
Factor V Leiden

602
Q

Six major risk factors for VTE

A
Fracture of the hip/pelvis
Hip/knee replacement surgery
Major general surgery
major trauma
Spinal cord injury
Hospitalisation with acute medical illness
603
Q

Four complications of DVT

A

PE
Extension of clot
Recurrent VTE
Post-thrombotic syndrome

604
Q

Five weak risk factors for VTE

A
Bed rest>3 days
Travel-related
Obesity
Day-case surgery
Varicose veins
605
Q

DVT presentation? x8

A
Pain
Erythema
Tenderness
Swelling
Palpable cord
Warmth
Ipsilateral oedema
Superficial venous dilation
606
Q

WHY IS IT SO IMPORTANT TO HAVE CORRECT DIAGNOSIS OF VTE?

A

90% of presenting patients do not have VTE and drugs can be fatal

607
Q

What is D-dimer?

A

Fibrin degradation marker

Non-specific for clot formation

608
Q

Investigations for DVT

A

D-dimer

Radiology e.g. ultrasound, CT

609
Q

Scoring system used for DVT?

A

Wells score: >2 DVT likely and <1 unlikely

610
Q

What is post-thrombotic syndrome?

A

Recurrent pain and swelling in the leg - venous hypertension

611
Q

Three signs of PE

A

Tachypnoea
Tachycardia
Crepitations and pleural rub

612
Q

Three main investigations for PE

A

ECG
CXR
Arterial blood gasses

613
Q

Wells score for likely PE?

A

> 4

614
Q

Other conditions that D-dimer may be raised in are? x4

A

Infection
Cancer
Inflammation
Pregnancy

615
Q

Define thrombocytopenia?

A

Deficiency of platelets

616
Q

Half life of LMWH?

A

4 hours

617
Q

What is fondaparinux?

A

Anticoagulant

618
Q

Half life of fondaparinux?

A

18 hours

619
Q

When is fondaparinux unsuitable?

A

Patients with renal impairment

620
Q

Three side effects of heparin?

A

Major bleeding - 1-5% of patients
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia
Osteoporosis - exposure over several weeks

621
Q

Lifestyle treatment for VTE?

A

Graduated knee stockings

622
Q

What is warfarin?

A

Vitamin K antagonist

623
Q

Half life of warfarin

A

36 hours

624
Q

Function of warfarin

A

Affects INR - reduces risk of recurrence by 90%

625
Q

Who should warfarin not be used in?

A

Pregnancy - teratogenic

626
Q

Two surgical interventions for VTE?

A

Thrombolysis

Inferior vena cava filter

627
Q

Lifestyle treatment for VTE?

A

Graduated knee stockings

628
Q

Define haemostasis

A

Stopping of blood flow

629
Q

Vessel damage causes which two reactions?

A

Platelet release reaction

Coagulation cascade

630
Q

Vasomotor change during vessel injury is what and why?

A

Vasoconstriction occurs - to reduced blood flow

631
Q

What causes the vasoconstriction during vessel injury?

A

Serotonin

632
Q

Function of vWF?

A

Adherence of platelets to one another and to teh sites of vascular damage

633
Q

Factor that activates the coagulation cascade is?

A

Platelet phospholipid

634
Q

Primary haemostasis is?

A

Formation of primary platelet plug via platelet aggregation and reduced blood flow

635
Q

Secondary haemostasis is?

A

Coagulation cascade - stabilisation of primary platelet plug

636
Q

What is Von Willebrand factor? vWF?

A

Glycoprotein in the plasma

637
Q

Site of vWF synthesis?

A

Bone marrow and endothelial cells

638
Q

Receptors for vWF on platelets?

A

Primary - GpIb

Secondary - GpIX, GpV

639
Q

what is Von Willebrand disease?

A

Deficiency in/defective vWF - lack of ability to clot

640
Q

Inheritance of Von Willebran disease?

A

Autosomal

641
Q

Bernard Soulier syndrome is what?

A

Lack of GpIb

642
Q

Glanzmann’s syndrome is what?

A

Lack of GpIIb

643
Q

Platelet lifespan

A

8-14 days

644
Q

Roles of glycoproteins

A

Receptors for adhesive proteins, coagulation factors and proteins

645
Q

Three most abundant glycoprotein molecules

A

GpIIIa
GpIb
GpIIb

646
Q

Treatment for VWD?

A

Desmopressin

647
Q

DRAW OUT PATHWAY FROM ARUN

A

DRAW OUT PATHWAY FROM ARUN

648
Q

Function of thrombin

A

Fibrinogen to fibrin

649
Q

what is the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)?

A

Time taken for the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade

650
Q

Four components responsible for the regulation of coagulation

A

Antithrombin
Protein C
Protein S
Fibrinolytic clot

651
Q

What is the thrombin time?

A

Time taken for the final common pathway of the coagulation cascade

652
Q

Haemophilia A affects which factor?

A

VIII

653
Q

Haemophilia B affects which factor?

A

IX

654
Q

Five symptoms of haemophilia

A
Soft tissue bleeds
Bleeding into joint cavities
Psoas bleeding
Intracranial bleeds
Bleeding at operative sites
655
Q

Function of protein C

A

Inactivates Va and VIIIa

656
Q

What activates protein C?

A

Thrombin

657
Q

Risk factors for DIC x6

A
Infection 
Malignancy
Shock
Liver disease
Transmplantation
Snake bite
Intravascular haemolysis
658
Q

Where is vitamin K produced?

A

Liver

659
Q

What are the vitamin K dependent factors?

A

II, VII, IX, X

660
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is what?

A

Underlying condition activates coagulation cascade - pathological blood clots

661
Q

Risk factors for DIC x6

A
Infection 
Malignancy
Shock
Liver disease
Transmplantation
Snake bite
Intravascular haemolysis
662
Q

ECG - what shows HR?

A

RR intervals

663
Q

PR interval shows?

A

Action potential from the atria to the Bundle of His

664
Q

P wave shows?

A

Atrial depolarisation

665
Q

HR normal range?

A

RR interval

60-100 bpm

666
Q

P wave normal wave

A

80ms - 2 squares

667
Q

RR interval shows?

A

HR

668
Q

PR interval normal length?

A

120-200ms

669
Q

QRS interval normal length?

A

<120ms

670
Q

PR interval >200ms indicates?

A

Heart block

671
Q

QRS complex shows?

A

Ventricular contraction

672
Q

Normal HR?

A

60-100bpm

673
Q

Normal P wave length?

A

<80ms

674
Q

Sinus tachycardia is?

A

HR > 100bpm

675
Q

Normal QRS duration?

A

<120ms

676
Q

Sinus bradycardia is?

A

HR < 60bpm

677
Q

Sinus bradycardia normally seen when?

A

In patients on beta blockers

678
Q

Tachycardia is?

A

HR > 100bpm

679
Q

Ventricular tachycardia is?

A

Very very high rate - 180-190bpm

680
Q

Ventricular tachycardia on ECG?

A

No P wave

681
Q

Ventricular tachycardia vs ventricular fibrillation?

A

Tachycardia - regular

Fibrillation - irregular

682
Q

Ventricular fibrillation on ECG?

A

HIGH RATE - 300+!!!
Absent P wave
No QRS seen

683
Q

First degree heart block?

A

PR interval - fixed constant duration >200ms

684
Q

Second degree heart block type 1?

A

AKa. Wenkenbach
PR interval progressively longer - finally absent QRS
Regularly irregular

685
Q

Second degree heart block type 2?

A

Irregularly regular rate- random absence of QRS

686
Q

Third degree heart block on ECG?

A

Bradycardia
Ventricle contracts independently of atria
Inverted QRS

687
Q

When is heart block present?

A

If the PR interval is >200ms

688
Q

ECG of AF?

A

Cannot see P wave or PR interval

689
Q

Cause of AF?

A

Many separate sites of the atria are generating electrical impulses

690
Q

P wave inverted in which lead in junctional rhythm?

A

Inverted in lead II

691
Q

ECG of Atrial flutter?

A

P wave replaced with multiple F waves

300bpm

692
Q

What is junctional rhythm?

A

AVN takes over as the normal pacemaker

693
Q

ECG appearance of junctional rhythm

A

Bradycardia
Normal QRS
Absent P wave (or inverted)

694
Q

P wave inverted in which lead in junctional rhythm?

A

Inverted in lead II

695
Q

Ventricular tachycardia is?

A

Very very high rate - 180-190bpm

696
Q

Ventricular tachycardia on ECG?

A

No P wave

697
Q

Ventricular tachycardia vs ventricular fibrillation?

A

Tachycardia - regular

Fibrillation - irregular

698
Q

Ventricular fibrillation on ECG?

A

HIGH RATE - 300+!!!
Absent P wave
No QRS seen

699
Q

First degree heart block?

A

PR interval - fixed constant duration >200ms

700
Q

Second degree heart block type 1?

A

AKa. Wenkenbach
PR interval progressively longer - finally absent QRS
Regularly irregular

701
Q

ELECTRICAL AXIS OF THE HEART LOOK AT

A

ELECTRICAL AXIS OF THE HEART LOOK AT

702
Q

Third degree heart block on ECG?

A

Bradycardia
Ventricle contracts independently of atria
Inverted QRS

703
Q

When is heart block present?

A

If the PR interval is >200ms

704
Q

ECG of AF?

A

Cannot see P wave or PR interval

705
Q

Cause of AF?

A

Many separate sites of the atria are generating electrical impulses

706
Q

Cause of Atrial flutter?

A

SAN firing too fast - prior to completion of ventricular contraction

707
Q

ECG of Atrial flutter?

A

P wave replaced with multiple F waves

300bpm

708
Q

What is dextrocardia?

A

Where the primiive heart folds to the left instead of right - the heart (apex) is on the right side of the body rather than the left

Aorta loops towards the right

709
Q

ECG appearance of junctional rhythm

A

Bradycardia
Normal QRS
Absent P wave (or inverted)

710
Q

P wave inverted in which lead in junctional rhythm?

A

Inverted in lead II

711
Q

What is supraventricular tachycardia?

A

Tachycardia generated in the atria

712
Q

What are endocardial cushions and what do these become?

A

Four areas of growth in the heart

Become the mitral and tricuspid valve - two each

713
Q

Most common supraventricular tachycardia is?

A

AVNRT

714
Q

AVNRT more common in men or women?

A

Women

715
Q

ECG appearance of a bundle branch block? x2

A

Prolongation/widening of the QRS complex

Notch on the R wave or double R wave

716
Q

What is represented by the ST segment?

A

The time during which both ventricles are fully depolarised

717
Q

Charge of the ST segment is?

A

Isoelectric

718
Q

Downsloping/depressed ST segments indicative of what? x2

A

Coronary ischaemia
OR
Hypokalaemia

719
Q

Diagnosis of STEMI requires what from an ECG trace?

A

New ST elevation in two or more adjacent ECG leads

720
Q

NSTEMI indicates what?

A

Cardiac ischaemia

721
Q

ELECTRICAL AXIS OF THE HEART LOOK AT

A

ELECTRICAL AXIS OF THE HEART LOOK AT

722
Q

Primitive heart tube forms/completes on what day of development?

A

21

723
Q

Heart starts to beat on what day?

A

22

724
Q

What is an atrial septal defect likely to be caused by?

A

Lack of development of the septum primum or the septum secondum

725
Q

Bulbus cordis becomes what?

A

Right ventricle

726
Q

Heart tube doubles in length at which day of development?

A

Day 22 to day 24

727
Q

Why does the heart loop when lengthening?

A

Contained within pericardial sac

728
Q

What is dextrocardia?

A

Where the primiive heart folds to the left instead of right - the heart (apex) is on the right side of the body rather than the left

729
Q

What situs inversus?

A

Organs are all in the reversed region

730
Q

Prevalence of situs inversus?

A

1:7000

731
Q

What is the AV canal during development adn what does this become?

A

Communication between atria and ventricles - becomes the mitral and tricuspid valves

732
Q

What is a cyanotic heart lesion?

A

Lesion with a shunt going from right to left - deoxygenated shunted to the left adn merges with oxygenated blood

Teratalogy of fallt
Transposition
Truncus arteriosus

733
Q

What is an acyanotic heart lesion?

A

Lesion where oxygenated blood joints deoxygenated blood

ASD
VSD
PDA
Coarctation

734
Q

What are the four characteristics of the teratalogy of fallot?

A

Overriding aorta
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Ventricular septal defect
Narrow RV outflow

735
Q

What is the significance of the endocardial cushions in embryology?

A

Abnormalities can often occur here - cardiac malformations form

736
Q

What day does atrial partitioning occur and how?

A

Day 28

Septum primum

737
Q

What is at the free edge of the septum primum?

A

Ostium primum

738
Q

Where is the foramen ovale in teh developing heart?

A

Septum secondum

739
Q

What is the function of the foramen ovale?

A

Shunting of blood from th right atria to the left atria

740
Q

Why do you require the foramen ovale in teh developing heart?

A

The foetus does not use it’s lungs

741
Q

What is the septum primum and it’s function?

A

Acts as a flap/valve over the foramen ovale

742
Q

How does the foramen ovale close following birth?

A

Increaed pressure in the left atrium - septum primum pushes up against septum secondum adn they seal

743
Q

What is the remnant of the foramen ovale known as in adults?

A

Fossa ovale

744
Q

What is an atrial septal defect likely to be caused by?

A

Lack of development of the septum primum or the septum secondum

745
Q

When do the ventricles start to form in the developing heart?

A

End of the 4th week

746
Q

Umbilical arteries - how many and what do these carry?

A

There are two of these from foetus to placenta

Carry deoxygenated blood

747
Q

Umbilical veins - how many and what do these carry?

A

One of these
Placenta to baby
Oxygenated blood

748
Q

What does the umbilical vein become at birth?

A

Ligamentum teres of the liver

749
Q

Umbilical arteries and veins are under high or low pressure?

A

High

750
Q

What is the ductus arteriosus?

A

Connects the pulmonary artery to the descending aorta

751
Q

What causes the ductus arteriosus to close?

A

Increased paO2

752
Q

What is a cyanotic heart lesion?

A

Lesion with a shunt going from right to left - deoxygenated shunted to the left adn merges with oxygenated blood

753
Q

What is an acyanotic heart lesion?

A

Lesion where oxygenated blood joints deoxygenated blood

754
Q

What are the four characteristics of the teratalogy of fallot?

A

Overriding aorta

Rijt ventricular hypertrophy

755
Q

What is a persistent truncus arteriosus?

A

Single artery arises from the heart - supplies both aorta and the pulmonary artery

756
Q

How does persistent truncus arteriosus present?

A

Progressive heart failure

757
Q

What is meant by transposition of the great vessels?

A

Right ventricle pumps into the aorta and the left ventricle pumps into the pulmonary artery

758
Q

What is teh presentation of the transposition of great vessles and what should be done?

A

BLUE BABY

Immediate surgical intervention

759
Q

Three symptoms of atrial septal defects

A

Exercise intolerance
Dyspnoea on extertion
Fatigue

760
Q

What is the most common cardiac defect?

A

Ventricle septal defect - 25%

761
Q

What are atrial and ventricular septal defects?

A

Opening between teh two atria/the two ventricles

762
Q

What is a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Connection between descending aorta and the pulmonary trunk

763
Q

Treatment of patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Prostaglandin inhibitor e.g. ibuprofen

Then surgery

764
Q

Treatment for coarctation of the aorta

A

Balloon angioplasty

765
Q

Medical term for breathlessness is?

A

Dyspnoea

766
Q

Define breathlessness

A

Undure awareness of breathing or awareness of difficulty breathing

767
Q

Two respiratory centres adn where are these located?

A

Pneumotaxic centre
Apneustic centre

In the pons

768
Q

Nerve groups involved with breathing and what do these innervate? x2

A

Phrenic nerve - diaphragm

Intercostal nerves - intercostals

769
Q

Ten causes of breathlessness

A
Hypoxia
Metabolic acidosis
Hypotension/reduced CO
Pulmonary oedema
Obstruction of the pulmonary artery
Anaemia
Exercise
Pregnancy
Anxiety, pain 
Breathing CO2
770
Q

Hormone involved in pregnancy causing breathlessness

A

Progesterone

771
Q

Receptors involved in metabolic acidosis causing breathlessness

A

Peripheral chemoreceptors

772
Q

Receptors involved in the lungs causing breathlessness during pulmonary oedema are?

A

J receptors

773
Q

Six associated factors for breathlessness

A
Smoking
Hypertension
DM
Hyperlipidaemia
Obesity
Family history
774
Q

What is meant by ‘shunting’?

A

An area of the lung that is perfused but is not ventilated

775
Q

Most important sign of respiratory failure and why?

A

Tachypnoea - >25 adn definately >30

This is the first sign to appear - all the others appear late

776
Q

Define tachypnoea

A

Abnormally rapid breathing

777
Q

Ten signs of respiratory failure

A
Tachypnoea
Use of accessory msuscles
Nasal flaring
Intercostal or suprasternal recession
Tachycardia
Hypertension
Sweating
Cyanosis
Flapping tremor
Boundign pulse
778
Q

Type 1 respiratory failure is?

A
Hypoxaemia only (and hypocapnia)
PaO2 < 8kpa
779
Q

Type II respiratory failure is?

A

Hypoxiaemia and hypercapnia
PaO2 < 8kPa
PaCo2 >6.5kPa

780
Q

Cause of type I respiratory failure is?

A

Due to damage to the lung tissue - prevents adequate perfusion of the tissue but can still excrete Co2

781
Q

Cause of type II respiratory failure is?

A

Ventilatory failure - alveolar ventilation is insufficient to excrete the Co2 being produced

782
Q

Four examples of type I respiratory failure

A
Pneumonia
Pulmonary oedema
Asthma/COPD
PE
Pneumothorax
783
Q

Main of type II respiratory failure

A

Hypoventilation e.g. airway obstruction, nerve trauma

784
Q

First line treatment for respiratory failure?

A

Provide O2

785
Q

Second line treatment of respiratory failure? x2

A

Control secretions

Treat lung infection - antibiotics

786
Q

Final line of treatment for respiratory failure?

A

Respiratory support - invasive OR non-invasive

787
Q

Three types of oxygen delivery masks?

A

Oxygen masks - nasal cannulae
Face mask with resevoir bag
Venturi mask

788
Q

Indication for use of oxygen mask with nasal cannulae?

A

Patient with normal vital signs e.g. post-op

789
Q

Indication for use of face mask with reservoir bag?

A

High O2 concednration needed by patient

E.g. asthma attach, pneumonia, sepsis

790
Q

Indication for use of venturi mask?

A

Controlled treatment required in long term respiratory failure e.g. COPD

791
Q

Oxygen saturation level required in human?

A

SpO294%

792
Q

What does pulse oxometre tell you?

A

Oxygenation of patient - not ventilation

793
Q

Five sources of error with pulse oximetry?

A
Poor peripheral perfusion
Dark skin - over reads
False nails/nail varnish
Bright ambient light
Lipidaemia
794
Q

Desired partial pressure of O2?

A

PaO2 > 10kPa

795
Q

If unsure of the cause of respiratory failure in the patient, what treatment should you administer whilst coming to a diagnosis?

A

High flow oxygen

796
Q

What is the volume for the tidal volume?

A

Half a litre

797
Q

Three factors that affect vital capacity

A

Age
Height
Sex

798
Q

Best method to analyse obstructive diseases?

A

Peak flow

799
Q

When should peak flow be measured?

A

Once in morning, once in evening

800
Q

Indication of asthma severity via peak flow?

A

The greater the peak flow difference between morning and evening, the more severe the asthma

801
Q

Define vital capacity

A

Volume from maximum expiration to maximum inspiration

802
Q

How to measure forced expiratory volume?

A

Vitalograph

803
Q

What is a vitalograph?

A

An electric peak flow metre

804
Q

Obstructive vs restrictive lung disease on a vitalograph?

A

Obstructive - FEV1 is reduced due tot eh narrow airways but the FVC will be the same
Restrictive - FEV1 AND FVC are reduced

805
Q

FEV1/FVC ration in obstructive and restrictive disease?

A

Obstructive - ratio is reduced

Restrictive - ratio is teh same (both reduce)

806
Q

When plotting from vitalograph, what is on each axis?

A

Y axis - volume, l

X axis - time, s

807
Q

FEV1/FVC ratio showing no obstruction?

A

> 70%

808
Q

FEV1/FVC ratio showing mild obstruction?

A

61-69%

809
Q

FEV1/FVC ratio showing moderate obstruction?

A

45-60%

810
Q

FEV1/FVC ratio showing severe obstruction?

A

<45%

811
Q

Smoking causes what type of lung disease?

A

Obstructive

812
Q

Key test result for obstructive disorders is?

A

Reduced peak flow rate

813
Q

Key test result for restrictive disorders is?

A

Reduced vital capacity

814
Q

Two main obstructive disorders are?

A

Asthma

COPD

815
Q

Three characteristics of asthma?

A

Reversible airway obstructive
Hyper-responsiveness of airways
Atopoic

816
Q

Three key features of the pathophysiology of asthma?

A

Bronchoconstriction
Secretion of mucous
Airway inflammation

817
Q

What is the cause of asthma?

A

Oversupplied IgE receptors

818
Q

Immediate response of asthma pathophysiology?

A

Inhaled allergens bind to Ige on mast cells and release inflammatory mediators - histamine

819
Q

Effect of inflammatory mediators/histamine released in asthma?

A

Increased mucous secretion
Bronchonconstrction
Oedema

820
Q

Asthma delayed response is?

A

Mast cells activate eosinophils and release proteisn to damage epithlial cells

821
Q

Common protein released by eosinophils in asthma is?

A

Eosinophil peroxidase

822
Q

Function of proteins released by eosinophils in asthma?

A

Damage to epithelium - stimulate afferent nerves

Activation of parasympathetic nerves - muucous secretion and airway constriction

823
Q

What autonomic control is involved in asthma?

A

Parasympathetic

824
Q

Why is there a build up of mucous in an asthmatic?

A

Increased mucous secretion BUT damaged epithelium SO cannot clear the mucous

825
Q

Four substances that can trigger asthma

A

Dusts
Polles
Medications
Food

826
Q

Five symptoms asthma

A
Troublesome cough - at night/after exercise
Wheezing
Chest tightness after exposure
Colds last more than ten days 
Relief upon medication usage
827
Q

Two key tests to diagnose asthma?

A

Peak flow

FEV1/FVC measuremetn

828
Q

Three long term medications to treat asthma

A

Inhaled corticosteroids
LABA - long acting beta-2 agonists
Leukotriene modifiers

829
Q

Function of long term medications x3

A

Reduce inflammation
Relax airway muscles
Improve lung function

830
Q

Quick relief asthma medication and function

A

Short acting beta-2 agonists

used in acute episodes

831
Q

Advantage of spacers?

A

Improve penetration of the drug into the lung

Reduce potential adverese effects from occurring

832
Q

Indications for use of nebulisers for asthma treatment?

A

Small children

Severe asthma episodes

833
Q

COPD is a combination of?

A

Chronic bronchitis

Emphysema

834
Q

Time period for bronchitis to become diagnosed?

A

Chronic productive cough for more than half the time over two years

835
Q

Main cause of emphysema?

A

Smoking

836
Q

Main structure present in emphysema?

A

Bullae

837
Q

Pathophysiology of bronchitis?

A

Proliferation of squamous cells

Massive mucous gland enlargment

838
Q

Enzyme involved in emphysema?

A

Serine elastase

839
Q

What is inactivated in emphysema?

A

Elastase inhibitor alpha-antitrypsin

840
Q

Steroids are useful in the treatment of which obstructive lung disease?

A

Asthma

841
Q

Four restrictive disorders of the lung?

A
Pneumonia
Pneumothorax
Pulmonary fibrosis
Pleura thickening
Ankolysing spondylitis
842
Q

Normal PaO2

A

95

843
Q

Normal PaCo2

A

40

844
Q

Normal PaHCO3-

A

24

845
Q

PvO2 (venous blood gas)

A

30-40

846
Q

PvCO2?

A

50

847
Q

What is respiratory acidosis?

A

Build up of CO2 in the blood - reduces pH

848
Q

Five main causes of respiratory acidosis

A
Hypoventilation - drugs
Diseases of the airways - asthma
Diseases of the chest - scoliosis
Disease affecting nerves/muscles
Severe obesity - restricted expansion of the lungs
849
Q

pH is controlled by the ratio of what?

A

HCO3-/CO2

850
Q

Respiratory acidosis effect on pCO2 and HCO3-?

A

CO2 increases a lot

HCO3- increases slightly

851
Q

Eight symptoms of respiratory acidosis?

A
Headache
Drowsiness
Lethargy
Anxiety
Sleepiness
Fatigue
Memory loss
Restlessness
Muscle weakness
852
Q

Five signs of respiratory acidosis?

A
Slowed breathing
Gait disturbance
Tachycardia
Tremor
Reduced BP
Papilledema
853
Q

What is the main cause of the signs and symptoms from respiratory acidosis?

A

Due to a low CNS pH - causes reduced cerebral blood flow

854
Q

What is the cerebral blood flow dependent on?

A

Dependent on plasma pH i..e CO2

855
Q

pH and pCO2 in respiratory acidosis?

A

pH <7.35

pCO2 >45mmHg

856
Q

Treatment for respiratory acidosis

A

Oxygen
Bronchodilators
Stop smoking

Treat underlyign lung condition

857
Q

Effect of respiratory acidosis on the kidneys and consequence of this?

A

Retention of K+ by the kidneys - hyperkalaemia

858
Q

Effect of respiratory acidisos on the heart and why?

A

Respiratory acidosis causes hyperkalaemia

This causes heart arrythmias - disrupts resting potential

859
Q

Acute respiratory acidosis test results?

A

PaCO2 > 6.3kPa/47mmHg and pH <7.35

860
Q

Chronic respiratory acidosis test results?

A

PaCo2>6.3kPa/47mmHg
BUT pH is normal/near normal
High HCO3-

861
Q

Acute vs. chronic respiratory acidosis?

A

Acute - reducded pH

Chronic - nromal pH due to renal compensation

862
Q

Cause of respiratory alkalosis?

A

Hyperventilation

863
Q

Four symptoms of acute respiratory alkalosis?

A
Hyperventilation
Dizziness
Light headedness
Confusion
Cramps
864
Q

Five other acuses of respiratory alkalosis?

A
Meningitis
Stroke
Anxiety
Cirrhosis
Sepsis
Hypoxia
865
Q

Symptoms of chronic respiratory alkalosis?

A

Generally symptomless

866
Q

Three matbolic changs in respiratory alkalosis?

A

Constriction of cerebral blood vessels
Increased neuromuscular activity
Hypoklaemia

867
Q

Blood test results for respiratory alkalosis

A

pH > 7.44

PaCo2 < 35mmHg

868
Q

Type I respiratory failure is?

A

Hypoxia with normal or low PCO2

869
Q

Type II respiratory failure is?

A

Hypercapnia with or without hypoxia

870
Q

What is the more common type of respiratory failure?

A

Type I

871
Q

Ventilation/perfusion mismatch occurs in whcih type of respiratory failure?

A

Type I

872
Q

Anion gap in rspiratory acidosis?

A

High

873
Q

CO2/HCO3 ratio in respiratory acidosis?

A

High

874
Q

CO2/HCO3 ratio in respiratory alkalosis?

A

Low

875
Q

What is dependent on the CO2/HCO3 ratio?

A

pH

876
Q

What is meant by ‘shock’?

A

Inadequate maintainance of CO

877
Q

Cells involved in innate immunity are? x4

A

Neutrophils
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Mast cells

878
Q

Cells involved in adaptive immunity are? x2

A

B adn T lymphocytes

879
Q

What are the two main features of the adaptive immune system?

A

Self-tolerace

Memory

880
Q

Clonal deletion is?

A

Deletion of B or T lymphocytes expresseing receptors for self antigens

881
Q

Clonal expansion is?

A

Proliferation of B or T lymphocyte once it binds to foreign antigen

882
Q

Which lymphocytes mature in the thymus?

A

T-lymphocytes

883
Q

Function of IgG?

A

Block pathogen binding
Activate complement
Opsonise antigen for phagocytes

884
Q

Role of IgG in pregnancy?

A

Specially transported across the placenta

885
Q

Function of IgM?

A

Block pathogen binding, activate complement

886
Q

Function of IgA?

A

Block pathogen binding

NB. no activation of complement

887
Q

Where is IgA found?

A

Tears

Digestive juices

888
Q

Function of IgE?

A

Activation of MAST cells

889
Q

Function and secretion of IgD?

A

Both of these are unknown?

890
Q

Proteins generated via complenet? x2

A

C3a

C5a

891
Q

Role of histamine in type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

Increased permeability of venules
Vasodilation of arterioles
Itch
Contraction of smooth muscle - bronchial tree

892
Q

Role of leukotrienes in type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

Increased permeability of venules

Chemotaxis

893
Q

Role of prostaglandins in type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

Arteriolar dilatation
Pain
Fever

894
Q

Cells activated in type I hypersensitivity?

A

MAST cells

895
Q

Five clinical manifestations of anaphylactic shock

A
Drop in blood pressure
Warm peripheries
Urticaria - hives
Erythema
Sore red itchy eyes
Swelling of face, lips, hands, feet
Bronchoconstriction
Nuasea and vomiting
Headache
Cardaic arrest 
Death
896
Q

Four antigens that can trigger anaphylaxis

A
Drugs - penicillin, beta-lactams, NSAIDS, aspirin
Latex
Foods - peanuts, fish
Arthropon venoms
Exercise can predipose
897
Q

Acute treatment of anaphylaxis x5

A
Intramuscular adrenaline - 500mg
Oxygen high flow
Fluids iv
Antihistamines
Glucocorticoids
898
Q

What is omalizumab and why is this not used?

A

Monoclonal antibody against IgE

Very very expensive and impractical - intravenous injections lifelong

899
Q

Interleukin involved primarily in allergens and shock?

A

IL4

900
Q

Main significance of lower respiratory tract infections?

A

One of three most important infective causes of death in children under the age of 5

901
Q

Five bacteria causing respiratory tract infections

A
Streptococcus pneumonia 
Haemophilius nfluenza
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptoccus pyogenes
Mycoplasma pneumonia
902
Q

Two viruses causing respiratory tract infections

A

Influenza

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

903
Q

Protozoa causing respiratory tract infections and in who?

A

Toxoplasma gondiii

In the immunocompromised

904
Q

Community acquired pneumonia occurs in who typically?

A

Very young and very old

Also those with co-morbidities

905
Q

Pathogens taht can cause community acquired pneumonia are grouped into which two groups?

A

Typical OR atypical pathogens

906
Q

What can community acquired pneumonia be secondary to?

A

Viral respiratory tract infection

907
Q

How frequently can the cause of community acquired pneumonia not be identified?

A

40-60% - even after extensive testing for known respiratory pathogens

908
Q

How common is hospital acquired pneumonia in the world?

A

Third commonest nosocomial infection

909
Q

What is the mortality rate of hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

Nosocomial infection with the highest mortality rate

910
Q

Five risk factors for hospital acquired pneumonia

A
Abnormal conscious state
Intubation
Ventilation
Surgery
Immunosuppression
911
Q

cteria type typically causing hospital acquired pneumonia is?

A

Gram negative

912
Q

Most common cause of typical lobar pneumonia - community acquired?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

913
Q

Typical presentation of community acquired pneumonia? x4

A

Sudden onset of chills
Fever
Pleuritic chest pain
Productive cough

914
Q

Investigation to identify S. pneumoniae?

A

Gram stain of sputum

915
Q

Presentation of atypical pneumonia?

A

Non-productive cough
Fever
Headache
Chest x-ray is more normal than typical pneumonia

916
Q

Top five organisms causing atypical penumonia

A
Mycoplasma pnumonia - most common
Chlamydia pneumoniaae
C.pittaci
Legionella pneumophilia
Coxiella burnetti
917
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia - how is this transmitted?

A

Droplet infection

918
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia who does this typically occur in?

A

School age children and young adults

919
Q

Symptoms of M.pneumoniae?

A
Fever
Headache
Myalgia
Earache
Dry cough
920
Q

Oragnism causing Q fever

A

Coxiella Burnetti

921
Q

Three typical complications associated with pneumonia are?

A

Pleural effusion
Empysema thoracis
Lung abscess

922
Q

Hospital acquired pneuminia occurs in whom?

A

Immuno-compromised patients

923
Q

What is the mortality rate of hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

20-50%

924
Q

What is the CURB65 score used for?

A

TO determine who requires treatment for pneumonia

925
Q

What does CURB65 stand for?

A
C - confusion
U - urea >7mmol
R - respiratory rate >30
B - blood pressure <90mmHg
65 - age >65

Increased risk of death as the score increases - score 0-5

926
Q

CURB-65 score of 0 equates to?

A

Low risk of death - do not require hospitalisation

927
Q

CURB-65 score of 1/2 indicates?

A

Increased risk of death - consider hospitalisation

928
Q

CURB-65 score of 3+ indicates?

A

High risk of death - requires urgent hospital admission

929
Q

Treatment for community acquired pneumonia?

A

Beta lactams

930
Q

Risk of death with CURB-65 score of 0?

A

0.7%

931
Q

Risk of death with a CURB-65 score of 5?

A

57%

932
Q

Which community acquired pneumonia pathogen should not be treated with beta lactams?

A

M. pneumoniae

933
Q

Pathogen that causes TB is?

A

Mycobacterium turburculosis

934
Q

Five symptoms of TB?

A
Dry cough
Poor appetite
Weight loss
Weakness
Fever
935
Q

M. turburculosis gram negative or positive?

A

Negative

936
Q

What is the Mantoux test?

A

To identify TB immunology

937
Q

Vaccine protecting against TB?

A

BCG

938
Q

Efficacy of BCG vaccine against TB?

A

60-80% <16y/o

939
Q

What is the upper respiratory tract?

A

Nose, paranasal sinuses, middle ear, nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, tonsils, adenoids

940
Q

Four most common infections of the upper respiratory tract are?

A

Colds
Pharyngitis - sore throat
Tonsilitis
SInusitis (adults)and otitis media (children)

941
Q

Most common pathogen group responsible for upper respiratory tract?

A

Viruses

942
Q

Four most common virsuses causing upper respiratory tract infections?

A

Adenovirus
Parainfluenza virus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Rhinovirus

943
Q

Virus most responsible for colds?

A

Strains of rhinovirus - 50%

944
Q

Bacteria most responsible for URTIs?

A

Group A strep - pharyngitis

945
Q

Significance of epiglottitis?

A

This is a medical emergency

946
Q

Three symptoms of epiglottitis

A

Fever
Sore throat
Dysphagia

Rapid onset of these

947
Q

ORganism group mostly responsibel for epiglotttitis

A

bacteria

948
Q

Organism responsible for Whooping cough?

A

Bordetella Pertussis

949
Q

Treatment for whooping cough?

A

Erythromycin

950
Q

Bordetella Pertussis positive or negative gram staining?

A

Negative

951
Q

Pathogen causing glandular fever?

A

Epstein Barr virus

952
Q

Which organs enlarge in EBV?

A

Hepatosplenomegaly

953
Q

Intercostal muscles are innervated by which nerves?

A

Anterior rami of thoracic spinal nerves

954
Q

Where is the intercostal VAN found in the anterior thoracic wall?

A

Between the intercostal and the innermost intercostal muscles

955
Q

Define thoracocentesis?

A

To sample the pleural fluid

956
Q

Where is the needle inserted in the thoracentesis and why?

A

Superior to the rib to avoid damage to teh nerves (intercostal)

957
Q

What level is thoracocentesis carried out

A

9th mid-axillary line

958
Q

Where is a chest drain inserted?

A

5th intercostal space - mid-axillary line

959
Q

Innervation of diaphragm is?

A

Phrenic nerve C3, 4, 5

960
Q

Three muscles of inspiration

A

External intercostal
Diaphragm

(Also internal intercostal but only to a small degree)

961
Q

Two accessory muscles of inspiration are?

A

Sternoceidomastoid

Scalene muscles

962
Q

Muscle/mechanism of expiration is?

A

Elastic recoil

963
Q

Muscles that carry out forced expiration? x2

A

Internal intercostal

Abdominal muscles

964
Q

Nerve root of phrenic nerve

A

C3, 4, 5

965
Q

Nerve roots of intercostal nerves

A

T2 - T12

966
Q

Nervous innervation to the parietal pleura?

A

Intercostal nerves

967
Q

Nervous innervation to the visceral pleura?

A

Sympathetic trunk and parasympathetic vagus

968
Q

Nervous innervation to the diaphragmatic pleura?

A

Phrenic nerves

969
Q

Bronchial tree is included in which pleural type?

A

Visceral pleura

970
Q

Normal CXR - is the pleura of the lungs visible?

A

No

971
Q

Lung apex is at what level?

A

2cm above the clavicle

972
Q

Cardiac notch is at what level?

A

4th rib

973
Q

Where does the vena cava leave the diaphragm?

A

T8

974
Q

Where does he oesophagus leave the diaphragm?

A

T10

975
Q

Where does the aorta leave the diaphragm?

A

T12

976
Q

What are the pleural boundaries?

A

T8, T10, T12

977
Q

Divisions of the bronchial tree are? x7

A

Trachea - main bronchi - lobar bronchi - segmental bronchi - terminal bronchioles - conducting bronchioles - respiratory bronchioles

978
Q

Emphysema is ?

A

Ddestruction fo the avleolar walls - permenant enlargement of air spaces

979
Q

Cartilage shape in teh trachea?

A

C shaped rings

980
Q

Cartilage shape in teh bronchi?

A

Plates - all the way around

981
Q

Cartilage shape in the bronchioles?

A

No cartilage in the bronchioles

982
Q

Superior mediastinum is found above which landmark?

A

Angle of Louis

983
Q

Function of recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A

Vocal cord innervation

984
Q

Hoarsness of voice - damage to which nerve?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

985
Q

Recurrent laryngeal nerve loops around which structure? - left and right

A

Arch of the aorta - left

Subclavian artery - right

986
Q

Long thoracic nerve supplies what?

A

Serratous anterior muscle

987
Q

When are lung tumours felt and why?

A

Once they reach teh parietal pleura

The visceral pleura has no sensory innervation

988
Q

Blood supply and drainage of lungs?

A

Bronchial arteries and bronchial veins

989
Q

Origin of bronchial arteries?

A

Descending aorta

990
Q

Bronchial veins drain to?

A

Azygous and hemi-azygous veins

991
Q

The pulmonary trunk is?

A

Blood vessel from the right ventricle - bifurcates into the left and right pulmonary arteries

992
Q

Trachea is where is relation to teh oesophagus?

A

Trachea is anterior to the oesophagus

993
Q

Level of the dome of the left diaphragm is?

A

Lower boarder of the 5th rib

994
Q

At what level does the vagus nerve perforate the diaphragm?

A

With the oesophagus - T8

Through the oesophageal hiatus

995
Q

Anterior intercostal arteries originate from where?

A

The internal thoracic artery

996
Q

Two terminal branches of the internal thoracic artery?

A

Superior epigastric artery

Musculophrenic artery

997
Q

Superior epigastric artery originates from where?

A

Internal thoracic artery

998
Q

Three effects of the sympathetic innervation to the bronchi, bronchioles and pulmonary vessles?

A

Bronchodilation
Vasoconstriction
Inhibition of glandular secretion

999
Q

Three effects of parasympathetic innervation to teh bronchi, bronchioles and pulmonary vessles?

A

Bronchoconstriction
Vasodilation
Stimulation of glancular secretion

1000
Q

Three functions fo the diaphragm

A

Separate abdominal and thoracic cavities
Inspiration
Expiration

1001
Q

Muscle type of the diaphragm?

A

Skeletal

1002
Q

Nerve type of teh phrenic nerve?

A

Mixed - somatic and autonomic

1003
Q

Origin of intercostal arteries?

A

Internal thoracic artery

1004
Q

Intercostal veins drain to where?

A

Anterior - intenral thoracic vein

Posterior - azygous adn hemiazygous

1005
Q

Pleural reflection is?

A

Extent of the lung pleura whcih the lung does not extend to

1006
Q

Position of trachea in tension pneumothorax?

A

AWAY from the affected side

1007
Q

What si teh most preferred orientation of a CXR?

A

PA - posteriro to anterior

1008
Q

Why is PA CXR preferred?

A

Can accurately comment on size of the heart

1009
Q

When might you use an AP CXR?

A

Bed bound patietn

1010
Q

What is teh problem with an AP CXR? x3

A

Heart appears larger
Scapula is over the lung field
Clavicles are horizontal

1011
Q

Trachea will be deviated away from? x2

A

Mass

Tension pneumothorax

1012
Q

Trachea will be pulled towards? x4

A

Collapsed lung
Loss of lung volume
Consolidation
Fibrosis

1013
Q

Consolidation of the lung appears as?

A

Dense (white) material

1014
Q

Four causes of consolidation are?

A

Pneumonia
Haemorrage
Fluid - pulmonary oedema
Cells - cancer

Anything increasing teh density

1015
Q

Characteristic features of pneumothorax on CXR? x2

A

Asymmetrical

Lack of lung marking to the edge of the lung field

1016
Q

Pleural effusion is?

A

Collection of fluid in the pleural space - lowest part

1017
Q

Recognise pleural effusion from CXR?

A

White

Meniscus

1018
Q

Abnormal cardiothoracic ratio is?

A

> 50%

1019
Q

What is below right dome of diaphragm?

A

Liver

1020
Q

What is below left dome of diaphragm?

A

Bowel

1021
Q

Emphysema on CXR visible when?

A

More than 6 anterior ribs/more than 8 posterior ribs

Flattening of hemidiaphragm

1022
Q

Five signs of congestive cardiac failure?

A
Alveolar oedema
Kerly B lines
Cardiomegaly - boot shaped
Upper lobe divisions
Bilateral effusions
1023
Q

Anterior vs. posterior ribs CXR

A

Posterior - attached to the sternum

Move forwards and become teh anterior ribs

1024
Q

Diapghram at the level of which rib?

A

7

1025
Q

Two causes of emphysema

A

Smoking

Air pollution

1026
Q

Three risk factors of TB?

A

HIV
Diabetes
Smoking

1027
Q

Four symptoms of pneumonia?

A

Cough
Fever
Dyspnoea
Chest pain

1028
Q

Horner’s syndrome is what?

A

Daamge to sympathetic nerves

1029
Q

Horner’s syndrome caused by tumour at whch part of the lung?

A

Apex

1030
Q

Signs of Horner’s syndrome

A

Constricted pupil (meiosis)
Drooping upper eyelid (ptosis)
Local inability to swear on ne side of teh face

1031
Q

Three features of asthm

A

Hypertrophy fo airway wall muscle - decreased lumen
Increased mucous production
Inflammatory cell infiltration

1032
Q

Two main symtptoms of asthma

A

Producing a wheeze cough

Breathlessnes

1033
Q

DDx for wheeze?

A

Infection

1034
Q

Asthma - allergens activate what cells?

A

Th2 cells

1035
Q

Th 2 cells asthma - these release what?

A

IL4

1036
Q

IL4 of asthma activates what?

A

B cells and MAST cells

1037
Q

Interleukins that activate B cells in asthma are? x2

A

IL4

IL13

1038
Q

Interleukins that activate Mast cells in asthma are?

A

IL4
IL6
IL9

1039
Q

Immunoglobulin in asthma activates what?

A

IgE activates Mast cells

1040
Q

Action of B cells in asthma?

A

Production of IgE - activates Mast cells

1041
Q

Four inflammatory components released by mast cells?

A

Histamine
PGD3
LTC4
Kinins

1042
Q

Summarise pathogenesis of asthma

A
ALlergens activate Th2
Th2 activates B cells and MAST cells
B cells produced IgE
IgE activates Mast cells, along with Il4
Mast cells release inflammatory mediators
1043
Q

Function of inflammatory mediators in asthma? x4

A

Activate nerve endings
Make mucous
Produce airway oedema
Bronchoconstriction

1044
Q

Four triggers for asthma

A

Allergens
Irritants
Infection
Exercise

1045
Q

Two DDx for wheeze when not asthma

A

Brnchiolitis - children

COPD

1046
Q

Bronchodilator treatment for asthma causes FEV1 to increased by how much?

A

15% / 200ml

1047
Q

Asthma attack - vital capacity increases or decreases?

A

Decreases

1048
Q

ASthma - airway resistance is greatest where?

A

In the larger airways

1049
Q

Asthma - compliance increases or decreases and why?

A

Increases - reduced alveolar elastic recoil

1050
Q

What is peak flow?

A

Person’s maximum speed of expiration

1051
Q

Peak flow morning vs/ evening

A

Wrose in teh morning adn better in teh eveing

1052
Q

Significance of peak flow in asthmatic?

A

Difference between morning and evening is greater in asthmatic

1053
Q

Airflow through a tube is dependent on which four variables?

A

Radius of the tube
Viscosoty fo the gas
Pressure difference across teh tube
Length fo teh tube

1054
Q

Four stimulus challenges to monitor asthma?

A

Histamine challenge
Metacholine challenge
Allergen challenge - risky
Cold air

1055
Q

What is the reason for challenge testing in asthmatic?

A

To see which stimuli the asthmatic responds to

1056
Q

What is reactive airways dysfunction syndrome RADS?

A

Bronchial hyperreactivity following infection - set off by irritants

1057
Q

Does RADS involve reacting to an allergen?

A

No

1058
Q

Untreated asthma over time has what effect on teh bronchi?

A

Chronic narrowing of the bronchi

1059
Q

Five common allergens for asthma?

A
Dust
Grass
Tree pollen
Pet fur
Urine
1060
Q

Three common irritants for asthma?

A

Sulphur dioxide
Nitrogen dioxide
Ozone

1061
Q

Whic infection isthhas the worst effect on asthma?

A

Viral infection

1062
Q

Why can exercise cause asthma?

A

Exercise - increased ventilation - cooling - cooling causes spasm

1063
Q

Significance fo asthma at night?

A

Asthma gets worse at night

1064
Q

Two main reasons asthma is worse at night?

A

Allergens in teh bed?

Did teh patient take their inhaler at night?

1065
Q

Menstrual asthma affects what percentage of women?

A

30%

1066
Q

Poor control of asthma can result in what?

A

COPD

1067
Q

First line treatmetn for asthma

A

Salbutamol as required

1068
Q

Second line treatment for asthma

A

Regular inhaled steroids

1069
Q

Fourth line treatment for asthma?

A

theophyllines

Leukotrient antagonists

1070
Q

Last line treatment of asthma

A

Oral steroids

Anti-IgE therapy
Steroid sparing agents

1071
Q

Treatment for acute severe asthma?

A

Immediate treatment with inhaled high dose bronchodilators, oxygen adn steroids

1072
Q

Acute severe asthma causes how many deaths per year?

A

1200

1073
Q

Two ways smoking leads to asthma

A

Increases NFkB

Blocks steroid response HDAC2

1074
Q

Prevalence of asthma in children

A

20%

1075
Q

Prevalence of asthma in adults

A

15%

1076
Q

Normal respiratory rate is?

A

<25 per minute (6-28)

1077
Q

Main facotor that can cause a change in respiratory rate?

A

Equipment usage e.g. mouthpieces

1078
Q

Most common test for measurement of lung function?

A

Spirometry

1079
Q

Normal FEV1/VC result?

A

75% FEV1/VC ratio

1080
Q

FEV1/VC ratio for obstructive lung disease?

A

<75%

1081
Q

FEV1/VC ratio for restrictive lung disease?

A

75% (reduced FVC)

SO >75% ratio

1082
Q

What is the Fick principle?

A

Volume of gas per unit time which diffuses across a tissue sheet is prportional to teh area of teh sheet

Inversely proportional to the thickness

1083
Q

Fick principle is dependent on?

A

Permeability coefficient for the gas that is diffusing

1084
Q

Graham’s law is?

A

The rae of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of it’s molecular weight (big things diffuse slower)

1085
Q

Four components that reduces gas transfer?

A

Reduced surface area
Increased thickness fo teh memrbrane
Reduced oxygen concentration
Inadequate time for gas transfer to occur

1086
Q

Pathogen responsible for majority of TB cases?

A

Mycobacteria tuberculosis

1087
Q

Five bacteria that cause TB

A

M. tuberculosis
M. bovis
M. microti
M. canetti

1088
Q

Mycobacteria that does not cause TB?

A

M/.avium complex

1089
Q

Four factors affecting likelihood of TB inheritance

A

Infectiousness of the person with TB
environment in which exposure occurs
Length of teh exposure
Virulence (strength) of teh tubercle bacilli

1090
Q

Pharmacological treatmetn for TB x4

A

Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

1091
Q

How long should Ethambutol be provided for the treatmetn of TB?

A

2 months

1092
Q

How long should Rifampicin adn Isoniazid be provide for the treatmetn of TB?

A

4 months

1093
Q

What is DOTS in TB therapy?

A

OTS - directly observed therapy

This is used if you think that the patient is not likely to follow the therapy as they should

1094
Q

Why does hypoxia occur at high altitude?

A

PaO2 is reduced at high altitude so lungs are less saturated with oxygen

The drive to increase ventilation is suppressed by chemoreceptors to prevent teh excess loss of Co2

1095
Q

Hypoxic drive controlled by which site?

A

Carotid bodies

1096
Q

Hypoxic drive kicks in at what concentration of O2?

A

PO2 <60mmHg

1097
Q

what happens if there is a rapid ascent to high altitude?

A

Pulmonary circulation reacts to hypoxia with vasoconstriction - worsens the case of hypoxia SO pulmonary arterial hypertension

1098
Q

At what altitude will affects of hypoxia start to occur?

A

200m

1099
Q

People without respiratory disease can eventually acclimatise to what altitude?

A

2000-6000m

1100
Q

what altitude is regarded as the death zone?

A

7500m

1101
Q

Majority of time that can be spent in teh death zone is?

A

2-3 days

1102
Q

Significant hypoxia occurs at which altitude, even in the most experienced climbers?

A

7000m

1103
Q

What are the three components that occur during acclimatisation?

A

Metabolic acidosis
Increased erythrocyte number - increased haematocrit
Reduced pulmonary vascular resistance

1104
Q

Why does metabolic acidosis occur at high altitude?

A

To compensate for the respiratory alkalosis - reduced renal excretion of acid

1105
Q

How is haematocrit increased at high altitude?

A

Increased production of EPO

1106
Q

How can increased haematocrit prove to be fatal?

A

Increased haematocrit can increase teh viscosity of the blood which can lead to increased pulmonary vascular resistance adn lead to pulmonary arterial hypertension

Rigth heart failure

1107
Q

Effect of high altitude on pulmonayry vascular resistance?

A

Increaes

1108
Q

What happens to the pulmonary vascular resistance upon acclimatisation?

A

The pulmonary vascular resistance will fall

increased NO production

1109
Q

What is acute mountain sickness? AMS

A

Ascent to hgih altitude is too rapid - first sign taht something is wrong

1110
Q

HACE vs HAPE

A

HACE - high altitude cerebral edema - neurological condition

HAPE - hgih altitude pulmonary edema - pulmonar condition

1111
Q

SYmtoms of AMS x5

A
Headache - essential for diagnosis 
Poor sleep
Tiredness
Loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting
Dizziness

Think alcohol hangover

1112
Q

How are the symptoms of AMS scored?

A

Each symptoms is scored 0-3 for severity and >3 is diagnosis fo AMS

1113
Q

At what height will everyone suffer from AMS?

A

5000m

1114
Q

What si teh treatmetn for mild AMS?

A

rest and no further ascent

1115
Q

hat is the treatmetn for severe AMS? x4

A

Descent
Oxygen
Acetaxolamide
Dexamethasone

1116
Q

What is acetaxolamide?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

1117
Q

Function of carbonic anhydrase?

A

Renal reabsorption of bicarbonate

1118
Q

Location of carbonic anhydrase?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

1119
Q

Normally - how much bicarbonate is reabsorbed?

A

All of it