Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 2 CR > CR2 OVERVIEW > Flashcards

CR2 OVERVIEW Flashcards

1
Q

Cardioinhibitory centre

A

Parasympathetic innervation to the heart - synapsing with the vagus nerve

Release of ACh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cardioacceleratory centre

A

Sympathetic innervation of the heart - synapsing with sympathetic trunk and general visceral afferents in lateral horn of grey matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Autonomic region of the grey matter within the spinal cord

A

Lateral horn - T1 to T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Vagus nerve nuclei

A

Nucleus ambiguus
Dorsal motor nucleus
Solitary nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mechanism of action of ischaemia of the heart - angina

A

Nociceptors on the ends of the general visceral afferents are activated via the build up of lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Nerve roots of general visceral afferents

A

T1-T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where is angina referred to?

A

T1-T4 - inferior medial aspect of the arm and under the jaw

Also referred to the epigastrium - T5-T9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Surfaces of the heart

A

Anterior (top)
Right pulmonary
Left pulmonary
Diaphragmatic (bottom)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Blood supply to the interventricular septum

A

Posterior descending artery and the LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define afterload

A

The end load against which the heart contracts to eject blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Consequence of left ventricular hypertrophy

A

Reduced size of the ventricle chamber - reduced cardiac output and reduced compliance of the wall of the left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In which valvular disease will the atrium large?

A

Mitral valve stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the consequence of left atrial enlargement?

A

Atrial fibrillation - stroke
Loss of atrial kick
Decreased filling of the left ventricle - reduced cardiac output
Can result in emboli entering the circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pulmonary oedema vs plural effusion

A

PO - collection of excess fluid at the base of the lungs

PE - collection of excess fluid in the plural cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Isoforms of NOS

A

1 - bNOS - calcium dependent
2 - iNOS - not calcium dependent - inflammatory cytokines
3 - eNOS - vascular endothelium - calcium dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does exercise activate the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Exercise causes activation of the sympathetic nervous system via activation of the alpha-1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Receptors causing vasoconstriction

A

Alpha-1 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Receptors causing vasodilation

A

Beta-2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Chemicals causing vasodilation of exercising muscles

A

NO

Adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Reduced cerebral blood flow - when does this result in reversible and in permanent brain damage?

A

Reduced by half - reversible brain damage

Reduced by 3/4 - irreversible brain damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Formula to calculate BP

A

BP = CO x SVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hypotension

A

BP less than 90/60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hypertension

A

BP greater than 140/90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Prehypertension

A

BP in the range of 135-139/85-89

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define cardiac output

A

The volume of blood pumped out of the heart per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Concentric hypertrophy

A

The wall of the left ventricle increases in size - hypertrophy of the muscle wall and the size of the chamber decreases - must increase HR to maintain CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Eccentric hypertrophy

A

The size of the whole of the left ventricle increases - leads to heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Hyponatremia? Exact value

A

Low sodium levels in the blood - below 135mm/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

RAAS pathway

A

Angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1 via renin
Angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 via ACE
Angiotensin 2 - release of aldosterone, increased production of ADH and activation of sympathetic NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Location of baroreceptors

A

Mechanoreceptors in the carotid sinus and in the aortic arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Mechanism of thiazide diuretic

A

Inhibits reabsorption of sodium chloride from the distal convoluted tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

‘Myeloid tissue’

A

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Production site of EPO

A

Fibroblasts in the proximal convoluted tubule of the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Function of haemoxygenase enzyme

A

Conversion of haem to biliverdin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Enzymes involved in haem to bilirubin conversion

A

Biliverdin reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the three stages of atheroma formation?

A

Endothelial damage - activation
Uptake of modified LDLs and adhesion and infiltration of macrophages
Smooth muscle proliferation and formation of a fibrous cap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is meant by glycation?

A

Bonding of sugars to a lipid/protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are monocytes transformed into?

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the role of macrophages in ateriosclerosis development?

A

Monocytes bind to receptors that are sticking out into the lumen from the endothelium and then enter the blood vessel - transformed into macrophages - these release of proinflamamtory cytokines e.g. PDGF
Pick up excess levels of LDL via scavenger receptor - formation of foam cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a foam cell?

A

LDL laden macrophage/fat laden macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How is a foam cell formed?

A

Macrophage normally picks up LDL due to apolipoprotein B100 receptor - modified LDL not recognised by this receptor and is picked up by scavenger receptor - excess levels picked up –> foam cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Summarise formation of atheromatous plaque

A

Activated endothelium
Uptake of modified LDL and infiltration of macrophages - formation of foam cells
Release of growth factors - migration of smooth muscle cells which lay down collagen
Formation of fibrous cap
Rupturing of fibrous cap - exposure of underlying collagen and platelets can stick here to form thrombus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the different levels of an artery?

A

Tunia adventia
Tunica media
Tunica intima

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is contained within the polypill?

A

Aspirin
ACE inhibitor/Beta blocker
Diuretic
Statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Through what artery is a stent usually inserted for atherosclerosis?

A

Radial artery (rather than femoral artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Arteriosclerosis vs. atherosclersosis

A

Ateriosclerosis - stiffening/hardening of arterial wall

Atherosclerosis - narrowing of an artery due to plaque build up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How does LDL modification occur?

A

Oxidation from ROS

Glycation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Common sites of atheroma formation

A

Aortic bifurcation
Carotid bifurcation
Common iliac artery - lateral wall
Coronary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Ferric reductase

A

Ferrous 2+ to ferric 3+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Chemical presentation of ferrous iron

A

Fe2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Chemical presentation of ferric iron

A

Fe3+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the normal levels of haemoglobin in males and females? (NEED TO KNOW)

A

Males - 13.5

Females - 11.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Define hypochromic

A

Paler than normal in colour (less colour)

54
Q

MCV of microcytic anaemia

A

<76

55
Q

MCV of macrocytic anaemia

A

> 96

56
Q

What is a pencil cell?

A

Cell that has shrunk down into a tube

Indicative of microcytic anaemia

57
Q

What are plasma ferritin levels indicative of?

A

Indicative of the level of iron that is stored in the body (diagnostic marker)

58
Q

Factors to increase iron absorption

A 
Increased haem consumption 
Pregnancy 
Iron deficiency 
Ferrous (Fe2+) salts 
Acid pH
59
Q

Factors to impair iron absorption

A 
Alkali pH
Consumption of non-heam iron (veg)
Ferric salts
Iron overload
Inflammatory disorders
Drugs use e.g. PPIs
60
Q

Cause of macrocytic anaemia

A

B12/Folate deficiency

61
Q

Where is B12 and where is folate absorbed in the body

A

B12 - absorbed in the ileum

Folate - absorbed in the duodenum and the jejunum

62
Q

Cells that produce intrinsic factor

A

Parietal cells in the gastric mucosa

63
Q

Cause of spherocytic anaemia

A

Haemoloysis - lack of proteins to hold the cell in bioconcave shape

64
Q

Splenomegaly occurs in what type of anaemia and why

A

Spherocytosis because there is increased premature haemolysis occurring

65
Q

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

A

G6PD - enzyme that prevents/reverses the oxidation of RBCs

66
Q

Significance of G6PD deficiency

A

Deficiency results in premature oxidation of RBCs - premature haemolysis

67
Q

Inheritance of G6PD deficiency

A

X-linked

68
Q

Clinical tests to test for the presence of antibodies to red blood cells (haemolytic anaemia)

A

Direct coombs test

Direct antiglobulin test

69
Q

RR interval represents?

A

Heart rate

70
Q

PR interval represents?

A

Action potential from the atria to the Bundle of His

71
Q

P wave represents?

A

Atrial depolarisation

72
Q

Normal range for heart rate

A

60-100pbm

73
Q

Normal length for p wave

A

<80

74
Q

Normal length for PR interval

A

120-200

75
Q

Normal length for QRS interval

A

<120

76
Q

Atrial fibrillation vs. atrial flutter

A

AFib: Many sites in the right atrium are firing action potentials to compete with the SAN
AFlut: One overexcited site of excitation in the left atrium competing with the SAN

77
Q

Ventricle tachycardia vs. ventricle fibrillation

A

Tachy: Abnormal but regular QRS complex
Fib: Abnormal and irregular QRS complex - no sign of organisation at all and the ventricles only quiver

78
Q

Junctional rhythm

A

Some form of damage to the SAN/the path through here and so the main pacemaker shifts to the AVN

79
Q

Supraventricular tachycardia

A

Atrial tachycardia

80
Q

Significance of right bundle branch block

A

Damage to the right hand side of the heart

81
Q

Significance of left bundle branch block

A

Heart disease

82
Q

Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome

A

Formation of a new (pathological) connection between the atria and the ventricles - known as the Bundle of Kent

83
Q

Atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia

A

There are two activations of the AVN - a fast cycle and a slower cycle SO inbetween each AVN depolarisation - there is another, pathological one

84
Q

Why does a low grade fever occur when you have an MI?

A

MI - ischaemia - there is a leakage of proteins and this can stimulate an inflammatory response

85
Q

Cardiogenic shock

A

Inadequate circulation of blood and insufficient perfusion of tissues to meet the O2 demand

86
Q

Cardiac arrest

A

A sudden stop in effective blood flow due to a failure of the heart to contract effectively

87
Q

Thromboembolytic drugs (name two main)

A

Streptokinase

Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

88
Q

What is the main problem with thromboembolytic drugs?

A

Major risk of haemorrhage and bleed

89
Q

Why can streptokinase only be used once?

A

Develop antibodies against it - risk of anaphylaxis and allergy

90
Q

Define dyspnoea

A

Difficult or laboured breathing where the subject is short of breath
Undue awareness of breathing/difficulty breathing

91
Q

What are J receptors?

A

Pulmonary c-fibre receptors (slow)
Sensory nerve endings in alveolar walls innervated to vagus nerve
Feedback - shortened expiration and increased respiratory frequency

92
Q

Value for hypoxia

A

pO2 <8kPa

93
Q

Value for hypercapnia

A

pCO2 >6.8

94
Q

Type 1 vs type 2 respiratory failure

A

Type 1 - hypoxia and hypocapnia

Type 2 - hypoxia and hypercapnia

95
Q

Different types of heart block

A

a

96
Q

How can you recognise macrocytic anaemia from blood film?

A

a

97
Q

Cause of macrocytic anaemia

A

a

98
Q

Common causes of sinus bradycardia

A

a

99
Q

Cause of type 1 respiratory failure

A

Ventilation/perfusion mismatch

100
Q

Cause of type 2 respiratory failure

A

Inadequate alveolar ventilation

101
Q

What is released from the blood vessel when it is damaged? Local effect of this?

A

Endothelin - vasoconstriction

102
Q

Sepsis vs. septic shock

A

Sepsis - systemic response to the presence of pathogens in the blood
Septic shock - sepsis + hypotension

103
Q

Stroke volume vs cardiac output

A

a

104
Q

Obstructive vs. restrictive disease

A

a

105
Q

Vitalograph and function

A

a

106
Q

Define tidal volume

A

a

107
Q

Define expiratory reserve volume

A

a

108
Q

Define inspiratory reserve volume

A

a

109
Q

Define vital capacity

A

a

110
Q

Define functional residual volume

A

a

111
Q

Define residual capacity

A

a

112
Q

Define total lung capacity

A

a

113
Q

Define peak flow rate

A

a

114
Q

Vitalograph and function

A

a

115
Q

Obstructive vs. restrictive disease

A

a

116
Q

Peak flow rate morning vs. evening

A

a

117
Q

Define asthma

A

a

118
Q

Investigation to determine presence of obstructive vs. restrictive disease

A

a

119
Q

Asthma - on which cells are the IgE receptors found?

A

a

120
Q

Which mediator results in the immediate bronchoconstriction in asthma?

A

a

121
Q

Pathophysiology of bronchoconstriction in asthmatics (immediate and delayed)

A

a

122
Q

Main immunoglobulin (Ig) involved in asthma/allergies/atopic condtions

A

a

123
Q

Four substances that can trigger asthma

A

a

124
Q

Alpha-1-anti-tripsin and cause

A

a

125
Q

Main cause of emphysema

A

a

126
Q

Significance of virchow’s node

A

Metastasis from the gut

127
Q

Where is the lymphatic drainage to and which is most major?

A

Right - right lympatic duct
Left - thoracic duct - this is the major drainage

Right - only from the right arm, right side of head and the right thorax

128
Q

Where are the superficial lymph nodes located?

A

Cervical - drain above the clavicle
Axillary - drain between clavicle and the umbilicus
Inguinal - drainage below the umbilicus

129
Q

State the lymph nodes of the head adn neck

A

Think from osce

130
Q

Two groups of inguinal lymph nodes

A

Horizontal - superficial to the inguinal ligament - drain from perineum and the external genitalia
Vertical - along great saphenous vein - drain from the leg

Year 2 CR (37 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions