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Z. PATH 1 > Outcome 5 Neoplasms > Flashcards

Outcome 5 Neoplasms Flashcards

1
Q

List factors that influence cancer survival.

A

Stage at diagnosisAggressiveness of the tumorEarly detectionQuality of treatment servicesAgeSexCo-morbid health conditionsSocio-economic status

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2
Q

Increase in size of cells

A

Hypertrophy

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3
Q

Increase in number of cells

A

Hyperplasia

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4
Q

What are the characteristics of benign neoplasms?

A

EncapsulatedWell-differentiatedDevelop slowlyDo not infiltrate surrounding tissueRarely recur after surgical removal

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5
Q

What are the characteristics of malignant neoplasms?

A
  • Anaplastic
  • Can invade surrounding tissue
  • Can enter the bloodstream or lymph
  • Causes metastasis
  • Poorly differentiated
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6
Q

List the causes of cancer

A
  • External exposure to carcinogens

* Internal factors like hormones, immune conditions and inherited mutations

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7
Q

Listprimary cancer prevention guidelines.

A

Consume diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains low in saturated/trans fats Eliminate active and passive exposure to cigarette smoke
Limit skin exposure to sunlight
Limit use of alcohol
Avoid excessive exposure to radiation/radon
Avoid chemical agents known to be carcinogenic
Increase physical activity
Maintain healthy weight
Protect against STIs

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8
Q

External factors that can cause cancer

A
  • Chemicals
  • Radiation
  • Viruses (Papillomaviruses)
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9
Q

Internal factors that can cause cancer

A
  • Hormones
  • Immune conditions
  • Inherited mutations
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10
Q

Seven warning signs of cancer

A 
Change in bowel or bladder habits	
Asore that doesn't heal	
Unusual bleeding or discharge	
Thickening or lump	
Indigestion or difficulty in swallowing	
Obvious change in a wart or mole	
Nagging cough or hoarseness
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11
Q

List some cancer symptoms

A
  • pain
  • fatigue
  • anorexia and cachexia
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12
Q

List disorders associated with cancer.

A
  • anemia
  • leukopenia
  • thrombocytopenia
  • infection
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13
Q

List factors predisposing patients with cancer to infection.

A
  • Age
  • Tumor
  • Leukemias
  • Lymphomas and other mononuclear phagocyte malignancies
  • Surgical treatment
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14
Q

Gross (naked eye) descriptions of neoplasms

A

polypoid

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15
Q

What are the two types of polypoid tumors?

A
  • sessile

* pendunculated

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16
Q

What does a sessile tumor look like?

A

wide, flat, base

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17
Q

What does a pedunculated tissue look like?

A

stalk shaped, narrow based

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18
Q

What does a fungating tumor look like?

A

mushroom appearance, wider base where cells tend to grow over each other in a mushroom cap-like formation

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19
Q

What does a verrucous tumor look like?

A

Resembles warts

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20
Q

List some microscopic description terms of neoplasms.

A
  • carcinoma in situ (v early stage cancer)
  • diffuse
  • dysplastic
  • epidemoid
  • follicular
  • papillary
  • pleomorphic
  • scirrhous
  • undifferentiated
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21
Q

The earliest possible stage you can catch cancer

A

carcinoma in situ

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22
Q

Sebaceous cyst tumor that don’t tend to be cancerous

A

follicular

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23
Q

Type of tumor where you can’t tell what type of cell it was because it has changed so drastically

A

Undifferentiated

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24
Q

List classification categories.

A
  • carcinoma (epithelial tissue)
  • sarcoma (connective tissue)
  • mixed-tissue
  • lymphoma (lymphatic tissue)
  • glioma (glial cells of CNS)
  • leukemia
  • germ cell tumor (germ cells of ovaries and testicles
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25
Q

What is being determined when staging a tumor?

A
  • the size and extent of tumor spread
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26
Q

Staging generally uses a common international format known as _________.

A

TNM Staging System

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27
Q

What does TNM stand for?

A

Tthe size or extent of the primarytumorNthe extent of regional lymphnodeinvolvementMthe number of distantmetasteses

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28
Q

Once TNM have been determined, they are combined to assign a stage number of __, __, __, or __.

A

I, II, III, IV

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29
Q

The most advance stage of cancer

A

IV

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30
Q

Grading of tumors is determined through ______ examination.

A

microscopic

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31
Q

Grade is assigned based on the degree of ______ of the tumor cells.

A

Differentiation

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32
Q

The tumor cells still retain features of the tissue cells from which they are derived.

A

Well-differentiated

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33
Q

The tumor do not resemble the tissue from which they are derived

A

poorly differentiated

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34
Q

Prostate cancer’s own grading system

A

The Gleason grade

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35
Q

Why was the Gleason grade designed?

A

Designed with the knowledge that prostate cancer has different patterns of growthand thatmultiple patterns coexistin the prostate.

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36
Q

Size and extent of tumor spread is important information used for _____ and _____.

A
  • prognosis

* treatment modality

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37
Q

TNM in charts are written asT1N2M0with the ____ indicating the varying degrees of each letter.

A

subscript

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38
Q

T or F. The higher the grade, the better the prognosis.

A

False. The lower the grade, the better the diagnosis

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39
Q

T or F. Grading numbers go from Grade 1 to 3.

A

True

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40
Q

What do Gleason grades 1 to 5 indicate?

A
  • small uniform glands
  • more stroma between glands
  • distinctly infiltrative margins
  • irregular masses of neoplastic glands
  • only occasional gland formation
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41
Q

Enzymes, antigens and hormones produced by some tumors or cancer that may be present in blood in higher-than-normal levels

A

tumor marker

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42
Q

T or F. The presence of a tumor marker alone can be used to diagnose cancer.

A

False. Some benign tumors may stimulate production of these markers and elevated cancer markers aren’t always present especially in the early stages

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43
Q

What are other uses for measuring tumor markers?

A
  • Tracks the progress of tumor growth
  • Measures the effectiveness of treatment
  • Identifies possible recurrence of tumor
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44
Q

PSA

A

Prostate-Specific Antigen

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45
Q

What type of cancer produces PSA?

A

prostatic cancer

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46
Q

What other exam should be done after a PSA screen?

A

digital rectal examination (DRE) to identify any abnormalities

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47
Q

What type of cancer may be indicated with elevated CA 125?

A

ovarian cancer

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48
Q

CA 19-9?

A

colorectal cancer

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49
Q

CA 15-3

A

breast cancer

50
Q

Why is the test measuring carcinoembryonic antigen used?

A

To monitor the spread or metastasis of colorectal cancer and other cancers

51
Q

Used to screen for fetal neural tube defects

A

Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)

52
Q

If a maternal AFP doesn’t return to normal after giving birth, what type of cancer may be indicated?

A

liver or germ cell cancer

53
Q

Physician may relate the results as normal or abnormal because surface cervical cells may appear abnormal but aren’t always malignant

A

Bethesda System

54
Q

Preinvasive cancer that hasn’t invaded deeper tissues and contains only surface cells

A

carcinoma in situ

55
Q

New abnormal growth of surface layers of cells

A

cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)

56
Q

Appearance of abnormal changes on the surface of the cervix; contains a large number of precancerous cells

A

Squamous intraepithelial lesion (SIL)

57
Q

Not cancer but may develop into very early cancer of the cervix

A

dysplasia

58
Q

Mammograms should be performed on an ___ basis for women older than ___ years of age to detect breast disease.

A

Mammograms should be performed on an annual basis for women older than 40 years of age to detect breast disease.

59
Q

What is the goal of cancer treatment?

A

To eradicate every cancer cell in body

60
Q

What is the purpose of neoadjuvant therapy?

A

To shrink tumor to aid in surgical removal

61
Q

When surgery is done to cure cancer, what is the surgeon trying to achieve?

A

To cure (achieving negative margins around the tumor)

62
Q

What else may be removed at the time of surgery and why?

A

regional lymph nodes to see whether cancer has entered the lymphatic system

63
Q

List chemotherapy side effects

A

alopecia, anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, anemia, bruising, infertility

64
Q

Uses medication to kill cancer cells but also destroys rapidly dividing normal cells

A

chemotherapy

65
Q

Can be effective against hormone dependent cancers

A

hormone therapy

66
Q

Hormone therapy can involve _____ of hormone producing glands or the use of ____

A

surgical removal, drugs

67
Q

Hormone therapy drugs can either suppress hormone ____ or block the _____ of hormones

A

Hormone therapy drugs can either suppress hormone synthesis or block the action of hormones

68
Q

One common example of a hormone therapy drug used to block the action of hormones in breast cancer

A

estrogen receptor modulator Tamoxifen

69
Q

Immunotherapy uses _____ that target certain products of cancer cells not found in normal cells

A

monoclonal antibodies

70
Q

Monoclonal antibodies in immunotherapy can trigger an _____ against the tumor cell

A

immune response

71
Q

Monoclonal antibodies in immunotherapy can deliver a lethal dose of _____ to the cell

A

radiation

72
Q

Monoclonal antibodies in immunotherapy can release a deadly _____ inside the cell

A

chemical

73
Q

Brand names of the four antibodies approved for use by the FDA

A
  1. Herceptin
  2. Rituxan
  3. Campath
  4. Mylotarg
74
Q

What types of cancers are patients who have undergone prior cancer treatment predisposed to developing?

A

lymphomas and leukemias

75
Q

What are the advantages of stereotactic radiosurgery over regular radiation therapy?

A
  • Normal tissues experience less TOXICITY
  • Only ONE TREATMENT is required
  • Short or no RECOVERY time
  • Offers hope in sites considered INOPERABLE by conventional surgery

TOTRI

76
Q

Current cancer vaccine research is focused on ____

A

treating cancer inpatients who already have the disease (triggering immune response to attack/kill cancer cells)

77
Q

Cancer research into inherited forms is focused on ____ and ___ genes which are genetic switches that cause healthy cells to become disorderly

A

oncogenes and tumor suppressor

78
Q

What is the difference between stereotactic radiosurgery and regular radiation therapy?

A

Traditional RT involves giving small doses of radiation while SRS involves many beams of low dose radiation coming in at different angles` to converge on one point, so that the tumor gets intense radiation but the normal tissue only gets a small amount

79
Q

Rare but still the second leading cause of death in children (after trauma)

A

cancer in children

80
Q

Unique feature of cancer in children is short ____ time

A

latency

81
Q

In children, ___ already have metastases at the time of diagnosis

A

80%

82
Q

Most cancer in children originate from the ____ layer

A

mesodermal germ

83
Q

Little or no pain is associated with early stages of cancer, but often occurs in later stages; The general mechanisms associated with cancer that cause pain are:

A

pressure (tumor pressing on surrounding tissues), obstruction, invasion, stretching of visceral surfaces, tissue destruction, inflammation

84
Q

What is the most frequently reported symptom of cancer and cancer treatment?

A

fatigue

85
Q

What can anorexia lead to, and what is the name of the syndrome that can result?

A

cachexia

86
Q

What blood condition is common in patients with a malignancy, and why does it occur?

A

anemia,caused by malnutrition, chronic bleeding = iron deficiency, chemotherapy, malignancies of the blood forming organs

87
Q

What conditions can tumor invasion of the bone marrow cause?

A

leukopenia thrombocytopenia

88
Q

Complication of cancer and death commonly result from what cause?

A

infection

89
Q

What is a gross pathological examination of a tissue?

A

done with the naked eye, before the tissue is prepared for microscopic study

90
Q

What are the common terms associated with gross description? What does each one look like?

A

polypoid, fungating, verrucous

91
Q

Microscopic description: An epithelial tumor that hasn’t broken through the basement membrane of the site

A

carcinoma in situ (CIS)

92
Q

Microscopic description: The tumor is spread evenly throughout the affected tissue

A

diffuse

93
Q

Microscopic description: a tumor that displays highly abnormal alteration in ____, ____, and ___ of the adult cell, but not clearly ____ in appearance.

A

Dysplastic: a tumor that displays highly abnormal alteration in size, organization and shape of the adult cell, but not clearly cancerous in appearance

94
Q

Microscopic description: a tumor that arises from ____ deviating from normal epidermal cells

A

Epidermoid; arises from aberrant epidermal cells

95
Q

Microscopic description: a tumor that arises from a _____ cyst.

A

follicular; sebaceous cyst

96
Q

Microscopic description: the formation of small, finger-like or nipple-like projections of cells

A

papillary

97
Q

Microscopic description: tumor composed of a variety of cells (mixed)

A

pleomorphic

98
Q

Microscopic description: tissue that is hard, densely packed, and overgrown with _____ tissue.

A

schirrous

99
Q

Microscopic description: tumor that has been altered to a more embryonic type, or toward a malignant state

A

undifferentiated

100
Q

How are neoplasms classified?

A 
cell TYPE
tissue of ORIGIN
degree of DIFFERENTIATION
ANATOMIC site
FUNCTION

TOD SF type, origin, differentiation, site, function

101
Q

Carcinomas are composed of _____ tissue

A

Carcinomas are composed of epithelial tissue

102
Q

Sarcomas are composed of ____ tissue

A

Sarcomas are composed of connective tissue

103
Q

Mixed-tissue cancers are composed of tissue that is capable of differentiating into both _____ and _____ tissue

A

Mixed-tissue cancers are composed of tissue that is capable of differentiating into both epithelial and connective tissue

104
Q

Lymphoma is a cancer of the ____ tissue of the lymph nodes and vessels

A

Lymphoma is a cancer of the lymphatic tissue of the lymph nodes and vessels

105
Q

Gliomas are composed from the _____ cells of the CNS

A

Gliomas are composed from the neuroglial cells of the CNS

106
Q

Leukemia is cancer of the _____ organs, primarily ______

A

Leukemia is cancer of the blood forming organs, primarily bone marrow

107
Q

Germ cell tumors arise in the ______ and ______

A

Germ cell tumors arise in the ovaries and testes.

108
Q

What is the most common childhood cancer?

A

leukemia

109
Q

What are the two main types of lymphoma?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma, non hodgkin lymphoma

110
Q

What are the 3 general embyonic tumor types, and where does each tend to occur?

A

neuroblastoma - SNS
Wilms tumor - kidney
retinoblastoma - retina (unilateral, hereditary)

111
Q

What is the most common type of soft tissue sarcoma?

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

112
Q

What are the two main types of bone tumors?

A

osteosarcoma

ewing sarcoma

113
Q

How are dysplasia, SIL, CIN and CIS different?

A

DYSPLASIA: changes in appearance (mild, moderate, severe) that can develop into early cervical cancer
SIL: appearance of abnormal changes on the surface of the cervix
CIN: new abnormal growth of surface layers of cells
CIS: preinvasive cancer that contains only surface cells

114
Q

Usually done in conjunction with a perfusion scan to diagnose pulmonary emboli

A

ventilation lung scans

115
Q

T or F. Carcinomas are solid tumors

A

True

116
Q

T or F. Carcinomas are the least malignant neoplasms

A

False. Most

117
Q

Leukemias involve abnormal growth or _____ of blood-forming cells that infiltrate and replace normal bone marrow

A

proliferation

118
Q

Embryonic tumors originate during ______ life

A

intrauterine

119
Q

Embryonic tumors are often names with the word ____ which refers to the immature nature of the cells

A

blast

120
Q

T or F. Carcinomas almost never occur in children because they result from environmental carcinogens and reqire a long period from exposure to the appearance of the carcinoma

A

T

Z. PATH 1 (7 decks)

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