other stuff Flashcards
1
Q
pericarditis can be caused by
A
uraemia
2
Q
key conounders of creatinine
A
muscle maass and diet
3
Q
overflow proteinuria
A
myeloma
4
Q
most common proteinuria
A
glomeruli
5
Q
what does microalbumuria mean
A
excretion of albumin in abnormal quantities but still below the limit of protein detection by dipstick
6
Q
what is used to assess tubular function
A
urine osmolality
7
Q
if urine osmolality is exactly the same as serum osmolality this indicates
A
tubules are not function
8
Q
especially at risk of what if on dialysis
A
osteopaenia
9
Q
are water and food restricted on dialysis
A
yes
10
Q
dialysis happens via
A
diffusion
11
Q
what is downside with fistula for dialysis
A
needs 6-12 weeks before can be used
12
Q
haemodialysis involves
A
diffusion, conventionna and adsorption
13
Q
adsorption affects what
A
plasma proteins
14
Q
haemofiltration mainly removes solutes via
A
convection
15
Q
key difference of haemofiltration as opposed to haemodialysis
A
haemofiltration- there is replacements of the ultra convective ultrafiltrare through the dialysis period
16
Q
in peritoneal dialysis solute removal is via .. and water removal is via…
A
diffusion, osmosis
17
Q
what dialysis is driven by high glucose concentration of the dialyse fluid
A
peritoneal dialysis
18
Q
complication sof HD/HDF
A
hypotension, haemorrhage
19
Q
tunneled catehter venous catheter infection is most likely due to … can lead to endocarditis
A
staph aureus
20
Q
antibiotics for TCVC infection
A
vancomycin and gentamicin
21
Q
complications of peritoneal dialysis
A
peritonitis, fluid overload, uraemia, hernias
22
Q
when to start dialysis
A
resistant hyperkalaemia, egfr <7, urea >40, unresponsive metabolic acidosis
23
Q
complaint of too rapid a correction of toxins in dialysis
A
disequilibrium syndrome- cerebral oedema and possible confusion and death
24
Q
patient needs to have a life expectancy of what to get kidney transplant
A
> 5years
25
what events can make you have antibodies that make you less likely to respond to kidney transplant
blood, transfusion, pregnancy or previous transplant
26
drug that can help with desesnsitation
rituximab
27
when kidney is transplanted it is attached to what
external iliac artery and vein
28
what rejection can be treated with immunosuppression
acute
29
what is an important morbidity in immunosuppressed patients in first 3 months of transplant
CMV
30
common malignancies after kidney transplant
non melanoma and lymphoma
31
referred to urology if got asymptotic non visible ahematuria and over
40
32
what is best to see on CT with no contrast
calculi
33
CT contrast induced nephropathy is when
impaired renal function occurs within 3 days follwoign contrast and get rise in serum creatine and urea
34
how to avoid CT contrast induced nephorpathy
oral hydration before and after scan
35
MR renal angiogram is only used to
see vessels only eg renal artery stenosis
36
MR is used for
renal cystic disease
37
CT urogram main indication isi
macroscopic ahematuria to look for filling defects suspicious of transitional cell carinoma
38
MR urogram is a
poor test not very good
39
ultrasound of the bladder requires what
full bladder to assess outline
40
Ct gold standard in bladder for
nodal and metastatic disease staging
41
MRi is gold standard for
local tumour staging
42
what scan to image urethra in males
urethrogram
43
scan to image urethra in females
MRI
44
uterus, ovaries and prostate imaging
biopsies
45
hysterolsapingofram assesses
tubal patency
46
what is used for prostate cancer
MRI
47
what tones can be used for those with tinnitus
warble
48
normal hearing is between
-10 to 20
49
damage to what occurs naturally as part of the ageing process
cochlear
50
rubella causes what kind of hearing loss
sensorineural
51
in conductive hiring loss what is within normal limits
boen conduction
52
charts notch at 2000
otoscerlsosi
53
tympanoemtry measures function of what part of the ear
middle
54
to get orlistat need to lose what % of weight in first 3 moths
greater than 5%
55
BMi for bariatic suregry
>30 or greater than 28 with co- morbidities
56
what deficit is recommended for diabetes
600kcal
57
glycemic index is
rate at which food makes blood glucose rise
58
hypoglycaemia from exercise can occur how long after
12-24
59
alcohol increases activity of what
insulin
60
battery
acting without consent
61
blood glucose should be tested at least how many times a day
5
62
diabetic who is unwell and stops eating they should still take
insulin
63
illness and infection raise
blood glucose levels
64
what is ultimately used to inform guidelines
critical appraisal
65
main issue with cohort study
confounders
66
case control
subjects with disease or condition are indentified
67
difference between cohort and case control
cohort - people with disease
case controlled - select disease and non disease
68
nonsense
generation of stop codon
69
test for single gene
genration sequencing
70
next generation sequencing uses for
disease with genetic heterogeneity
71
pituitary gland is well seen on
MRi
72
what sinus is anterior to pituitary
sphenoid
73
what arteries are lateral to pituitary
carotid
74
thyroid is in what relation to the trachea and oesophagus
it is anterior
75
thyroid scintigraphy of throidits
very dark grey
76
right adrenal lies posterior to what
IVC
77
deontology
patients right to refuse treatment
78
criteria used to clear c spine in minor trauma
nexus
CT in major trauma
79
bone scan is a map of what activity
osteoblastic
80
scan to see ligaments
ONLY MRI
81
damaged ligaments wil be what colour
light
82
best test for sciatica
MRI
83
soft tissue swelling is seen in
RA
84
what is the hallmark fo RA
marginal erosions
85
pannus in ra is
inflamed thickened synovium
86
seronegative arthritis characterised by
synovitis and enthesitis
87
Reiters tends to affect what kind of joints
large lower limb
88
early sign of inflammatory joint disease
periarticular bone marrow oedema
89
what fractures tend to occur with a shearing force
oblique
90
communication fracture has
3 or more fragments
91
segmental injury is when
bone is fractured in 2 separate places
92
bone that is a common mimic of avulsion fracture
sesamoid bone
93
intra articular fractures have a greater risk of what
stiffness, pain and OA
94
bone appears sclerotic in
impaction
95
spinal canal is also a
bony ring
96
what are often invisible on radiograph that are foreign bodies
plastic and wood
97
tomogram is used in what kind of fractures
mandibular
98
US good for seeing
tendons
99
what are good for detecting stress fractures
Technetium bone scans
100
what becomes visible if an elbow effusion is present
posterior fat pad sign
101
fracture mimic
sesamoid bones:
5th metatarsal in adolescents
posterior calcaennous in kids
fabella- femur
ostrigonum - talus
102
toxic shock organism
staph aureus
103
commonest cause of toxic shock
TSST-1
104
fever, hypotension and diffuse macular rash
toxic shock
105
what binding is seen in osteomyelitis
collagen
106
PVL has a specific toxicity for
leukocytes
107
PVL associated with
necrotising fasciitis
108
what comprises the most of strep A
progenes
109
pharyngitis associated with
s. pyrogens
110
necrotising fasciitis (2) moat common is caused by
pyrogens and aureus
111
nec. fasciitis type 1 is caused by
clostridia
112
layers of scalp
Skin
Conenctive tissue
Aponeurosis
Loose connective tissue
Periosteum
113
lignocaine
is an an anaesthetic
114
curettage and cautery involves
scraping of abnormal tissue
115
what holes from punch biopsy do not always heal well
round
116
heuristics
quick judgement based on previous experiences
117
uva or B penetrates the skin more
A
118
which phototherapy if first line
UVB
119
what is first line for pustular psoriasis or erythrdermsi psoriasis
UVA
120
UVB COMMON SIDE EFFEECT
erythema
121
PUVA is
Psoralen and UV A
122
treatment for granuloma annaualre
UVA1
123
birth by c-section can reduce what
transmission of HIV
124
should women in the Uk with HIV breastfeed
it is recommended to avoid
125
does breast size affects the amount of milk produced
no
126
what inhibits prolactin, inhibiting milk production
progesterone
127
oxytocin levels are greater when
mother and baby are in contact
128
what is the first form of milk produced immediately following delivery of the newborn
colostrum
129
colostrum paraticlary has
lactoferrin
130
painful swelling of the breasts
engorgeemtn
131
what is positive sign in terms of nappies within first 24hrs
6+ wet and 3+dirty
132
all pregnancy and breastfeeding mothers should take what supplement
vit d
133
do breast fed or formula fed babies need to take vitamin D up to 1 year of age
breastfed
134
do breast fed or formula fed babies need to take vitamin D up to 1 year of age
breastfed
135
is dried powder formula sterile
no
136
parental feeding
into bloodstream
137
exclusive breastfeeding recommended for
first 6 months
138
when can solid foods start
6 months
139
consequcen of late wearing
deficiency of iron and zinc
140
greater than what percentile is overweight
91st
141
greater than what percentile ic clinically obesity
98
142
what gender affected by x linked recessive
female
143
who are more severely affected by x linked dominant
males
144
is the test fro sex determination and trisomy testing invasive
no
145
you can terminate pregnancy before
13 weeks
146
first line for acutely unwell child with likely momongenetic disorder
tri exome sequencing
147
ngs to look for
small mutations
148
parental responsibility cut off sat
4 may 2006
149
difference between passive and active immunity
active- produced by individual own immune system
passive - passed from mother to baby
150
MMR, rotavirus are what vaccines
live
151
pertisos and typhoid are what vaccines
inactivated
152
can't give yellow fever or flu vaccine if got allergy to what
egg
