ENT Flashcards
1
Q
how must septal haematoma be managed
A
must be drained
2
Q
how long after injury should nasal fracture be suspected
A
5-7 days
3
Q
digital manipulation of the nose should be done in less than how many weeks
A
3
4
Q
epistaxis from nasal trauma is often what artery
A
anterior ethmoidal artery
5
Q
what is fractured to cause CSF leak out of nose
A
cribiform plate
6
Q
what presents as perisient clear rhinorrhoea and headache
A
CSF leak
7
Q
management for CSF leak
A
often settle themselves only need repair if not settled within 10 days
8
Q
why should you not give antibiotics initially in CSF leak
A
can mask meningitis
9
Q
2 drugs that can cause nose bleeds
A
warfarin and aspirin
10
Q
is hypertension a cause of epistaxis
A
no but can cause prolonged bleeding
11
Q
what is treatment if there is an identifiable cause of anterior bleeding
A
silver nitrate cautery
12
Q
what temporal bone fracture is more common
A
longitudinal (80%)
13
Q
battle sign indicates
A
base of skull fracture
14
Q
investigation for temporal bone fracture
A
CT
15
Q
longitudinal fractures cause what kind of hearing loss
A
conductive
16
Q
transverse fractures cause what kind of hearing loss
A
sensorineural
17
Q
are maxilla fractures dangerous
A
yes potentially life threatening
18
Q
what identifies tear drop suggesting a blow out fracture
A
CT
19
Q
what classification for mid facial fractures
A
Le fort
20
Q
what causes persistent allergic rhinitis
A
house dust , cat, dog
21
Q
vasomotor rhinitis is caused by overdrive of what
A
parasympathetic
22
Q
what treatment for vasomotor rhinitis
A
anticholinergics eg ipratropium
23
Q
acute sinusitis lasts less than
A
12 weeks
24
Q
sinusitis can spread from
A
dentition
25
in sinusitis when to prescribe steriod
10 days
26
severe cases of sinusitis causing bacterial infection. what antibiotic is first line
phenoxlymethylpenicilin
27
sinuses can spread to where
orbit
28
complication of sinusitis where infection spreads into superior saggital sinus and becomes very unwelll
thrombosis of retinal vein or cavernous sinus
29
are nasal polyps cancerous
no
30
nasal polyps are not common in who
children
31
nasal polyps if young consider
cf
32
what can cause blocked or runny nose and reduced sense of taste or smell
nasal polyps
33
how to treat nasal polyps
oral then topical steriods
34
saddle nose
GPA
35
what kind of hearing loss in GPA
sensorineural
36
management for most gpa
IV steriods and cyclophosphamide
37
what are the most common benign lesion of the nose
squamous cell papilloma
38
sinonasal papilloma can be
inverted, exophytic or oncocytic
39
what type of sinonasal papilloma occurs on the nasal septum
exophytic
40
what can present in children with hoarse voice and progressive SOB
recurrent respiratory papillomatosis
41
most common malignant tumour in the nose
SCC
42
what has a strong associated with EBV and volatile nitrosamines in food
nasopharyngeal carcinoma
43
epstein barr is seen in association with
burritos lymphoma, Hodgkins Lymphoma
44
is herpes simplex single or double stranded
double
45
herpes simplex virus 2 is mainly seen in
genital herpes
46
primary gingivostomatitis
fever, lymphadenopathy, vesicles and ulcers on lips, buccal mucosa, may take up to 3 weeks to recover
47
what is the hallmark for all herpes viruses
the ability of the viruses to establish latent infection that persist for the life of the individual
48
latent infection of herpes simplex is
herpes labialis - cold sore
49
recurrent intra oral lesions are rarely
herpes simplex
50
herpetic whitlow is infection of what
HSV
51
can acyclovir cure hsv infection
no can only help reduces the severity and frequency of symptoms
52
alongside papulovesicular lesions in herpangina what also occurs
high fever
53
hand foot and mouth is caused by what virus
cocksackie
54
what are recurring and painful ulcers of the mouth that are round or ovoid and have inflammatory halos
apthous ulcer
55
apthos ulcer is most commonly due to what
immune dysfunction eg stress and is NON viral
56
rf for candiassi
post antibiotics, inhaled steriods
57
treatment for oral candiasis
nystatin or fluconazole
58
symphillis bacterium
treponema pallidum
59
painless ulcer
syphillsi
60
recurrent oral ulcers, genital ulcers and uveitis
behcets disease
61
recurrent what ulcers are frequently seen in coeliac and IBD
apthous
62
reactive arthritis can cause what ulcers
painless
63
what drugs can cause ulcers
NSAIDs, beta blockers
64
painless lesion most comply found in the mucosa of the hard and soft palate
squamous cell papilloma
65
squamous cell papilloma is related to hpv exposure
6 and 11
66
what is the second most common benign salivary gland tumour - usually males over 50 - strong association with smoking and is often bilateral
warthins
67
what is the most common malignant salivary gland tumour worldwide
mucoepidermoid carcinoma
68
most common malignant salivary gland tumour in uk
adenoid cystic
69
mumps can cause a salivary gland infection and is due to what virus
paramyxoma
70
most common bacterial cause of pharyngitis or tonsillitis
strep pyogeens
71
in pharyngitis/ tonsillitis what is not routinely carries out in primary care
swab
72
if need to prescribe antiobiotics in tonsillitis what ones
penicillin
73
hospital for tonsillitis and strep progenies infection need
isolation in first 48hrs
74
lemierre syndrome is a complication of tonsillitis. what is it
thrombophlebitis of jugular vein
75
late complication of strep pyogesns infection that occurs 1-3 weeks post sore throat
gloemrulonephritis
76
late complication of strep pyogense infection that presents as fever, arthritis and pancarditis 3 weeks post
rheumatic fever
77
treatment for quinsy
aspirate and antibitoics
78
chronic tonsillitis if had for over
2 weeks
79
what do you manage with dental mouthwash
chronic tonsiltits
80
what do you manage with dental mouthwash
chronic tonsiltits
81
DMARD with sore throat
neutropenia
82
hepatosplenogmahly can be seen
glandular fever
83
what shows atypical lymphocytes
glandular fever
84
what is the most accurate test for glandular fever
EVB serology
85
are antivirals given in glandular fever
nope
86
what can be prescribed to prevent secondary infection for glandular fever
penicillin
87
what cannot be prescribed in glandular fever as a macular rash will result
ampiccilim/ amoxicillin
88
anaemia is a complication of
glandular fever
89
difference between laryngeal nodules and polyps
nodules are bilateral whereas polyps are unilateral
90
the examination of the oral cavity is normal in what
epiglottis
91
risk of laryngeal spasm when examine the pharynx and larynx in what
epiglottis
92
smoking causeing hoarse voice
reinkes oedema
93
what is the most common cause of OSA in children
adenotonsillar hypertrophy
94
where is the most common site for head and neck cancer
larynx
95
most common tumour in the head and neck
squamous cell carcinoma
96
cancer in head and neck that is in non smoker with multiple sexual partners
oropharyngeal carcinoma -associated with HPV
97
what tumours present with voice/ airway obstruction
subglottic as tumours spread to paratracheal nodes
98
dysphonia greater than how many week warrants urgent referral for laryngoscopy
3
99
most common genetic cause of paragangliomas are mutations in what
succinate dehydrogenase
100
gangliomas above the neck are usually
parasympathetic
101
nest of round/ oval cells
paraganglioma
102
when should you use a steriod without antibiotic
eczematous otitis external as antibiotics can cause local sensitivity
103
what are the most common bacteria of acute Otitis media
h. influenza, step pneumonia and strep pyrogenes
104
chronic otitis media organisms
pseudomonas, aureus, fungal
105
when do you swab eardrum for otitis media
if eardrum perforates
106
otitis media can cause what type of hearing loss
sensorineural
107
mastoiditis most common organisms
strep pneumonia and h. influenza
108
management for mastoiditis
IV antibiotic
109
mastoiditis complication
meningitis
110
most common cause of malignant otitis externa
pseudomonas
111
malignant otitis externa complication
osteomyelitis
112
most common cause of cholesteatoma
chronic otitis media or perforated tympanic membrane
113
what is a key risk factor for cholesteatoma
history of frequent ear surgery
114
is cholesteatoma discharge uni or bilateral
unilateral
115
what is visible before onset of cholesteatoma
retraction visible
116
altered tympanic membrane colour is a sign for
glue ear
117
how doe perforated tympanic membrane present
sudden severe pain followed by bleeding from ear, hearing loss and tinnitus
118
perforated tympanic membrane shows what kind of hearing loss
conductive
119
what usually heals sponatenosuly
perforated tympanic membrane
120
what is the onset of hearing loss in otosclerosis
gradual
121
otosclerosis can be triggered or deteriorates more rapidly when
pregnancy
122
charts notch at 2k
otosclerosis
123
in presbysusis what frequencies of sound are affected most
higher
124
dip at 4k
noise induced hearing loss
125
gentamicin, chemo drugs and (aspirin and NSAIDs in overdose) can cause what
drug induced hearing loss
126
what presents as progressive sensorineural unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus
vebstivualr schwannoma
127
investigation for vestibular schwannoma
MRI
128
most common cause of vertigo on looking up
BPPV
129
labyrinths is associated with what
hearing loss
130
first attack usually has N+V lasting several hours
vestibular neuritis and labrynthitis
131
25 of migraine sufferer have attacks of
vertigo
132
verterbrobasilar insuffiecny is narrowing of what arteries
posterior most commonly due to arteriosclerosis
133
vertebrobasilar insuffiecncy also causes vertigo on looking up but for diagnosis need other sympotksm of impaired circulation in posterior brain eg
visual disturbance, weakness, numbness
