Child health Flashcards

1
Q

normal weight for baby

A

2.5-4kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

agar score is an objective measure of what

A

perinatal adaptation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is given to babies to prevent haemorrhage disease

A

vitamin K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what vaccine is considered to be given at birth

A

hep B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

retinopathy of prematurity usually occurs how long after delivery

A

6-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

late complication of prematurity

A

osteopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

the higher the agar score the

A

better

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

conjugated bilirubin is always

A

pathological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the definition of prolonged jaundice

A

over 14 days in term and over 21 days in a preterm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what affects 75% of infants born before 29 weeks

A

resp distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

dim environment for

A

neonatal abstinence syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when is therapeutic hypothermia given

A

hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what genetic test for floppy baby

A

NGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is hydrocephalus

A

CSF build up in brain and spina chord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how doe hydrocephalus present

A

enlarging and rapidly increasing head circumference and bulging anterior fontanelle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

management for hydrocephalus

A

ventriculoperitoneal shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

green bile, distended abdomen and absent bowel sounds

A

necrotising enterocolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

dilated loops of bowel and gas in bowel wall

A

necrotisisng enterocolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

treatment for necrotising enterocolitis

A

nil by mouth, clindamycin and cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

most common type of intravenricualr haemorrhage

A

germinal matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

neonate typically presents with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting within the first 24 hours of birth

A

jejunal atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

midgut volvulus is a

A

malrotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

investigation for malrotation

A

upper GI contrast and followthrough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

manifestation of CF

A

meconium ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

cerebral palsy can be till how long postnatally

A

1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

duchenes is on what chromosome

A

X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how can girls contribute to duchennes

A

they can carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

reactive attachment disorder begins before when

A

5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

excessive familiarity with strangers

A

disinhibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what grid can be used for distinguishing RAD And ASD

A

coventry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

not first line but medication for aggressive behaviour

A

risperidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

croup is characteristically what virus

A

parainfleunza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

oedema in the larynx

A

croup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

expiratory wheeze throughout chest and chest tight on auscultation

A

asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the most common viral cause of pneumonia in kids

A

rsv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

the cough in children’s pneumonia is typically

A

wet and productive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

signs of pneumonia

A

harsh breath sounds
focal coarse crackles
Dullness to percuss

38
Q

what is the antibiotics is need to cover atypical or in allergy

A

erythromycin

39
Q

HR in SVT in kids is between

A

150-270

40
Q

new or changing heart murmur

A

infective endocarditis

41
Q

gastroenteritis is most commonly caused

A

virals

42
Q

nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea

A

gastroenteritis

43
Q

vomiting milm

A

pyloric stenosis

44
Q

pyloric stenosis typically occurs between

A

2-12 weeks and often aft baby is fed. projectile vomiting

45
Q

peristalsis across the abdomen and may feel abdominal mass in

A

pyloric stenosis - do US

46
Q

intussception is when the bowel

A

telescopes on itself

47
Q

intussception mass is where

A

RUQ

48
Q

describe the abdo pain of intussusception

A

severe and colicky

49
Q

target sign

A

intussception

50
Q

treatment for intussception

A

air reduction

51
Q

scan if unsure of appendicitis

A

US

52
Q

uti pain is particularly

A

suprapubic

53
Q

all children with UT I under 3 months should start

A

immediate IV antibiotics

54
Q

how long do hydroceles normally take to resolve

A

2 years

55
Q

need surgery if hydrocele has a connection with the

A

peritoneal cavity

56
Q

when do you potentially attempt surgery for undescended testes

A

watch and wait till around 6-12 months

57
Q

urethral meatus is on under side of penis rather than tip

A

hypospadias

58
Q

most common cause of encephalitis ( inflammation of the brain)

A

HSV

59
Q

investigation for encephalitis

A

lumbar puncture and imaging

60
Q

encephalitis treatment

A

acyclovir

61
Q

altered consciousness and unusual behaviour

A

encephalitis

62
Q

most common cause of meningitis in neonates

A

Group B strep

63
Q

investigation for meningitis

A

lumbar puncture

64
Q

bacterial treatment for meningitis

A

under 3 moths - cefotaxime plus amoxicillin
over 3 months - ceftriaxone
pen allergic - chloramphenicol
steriods can reduce hearing loss and neurological damage

65
Q

seizure commonly after minor bump to head

A

reflex anoxic seizure

66
Q

brachycephaly is seen in Down syndrome what is it

A

small head with a flat back

67
Q

cancer more common in downs

A

leukemia

68
Q

why do you need to check TFTS annually in downs

A

more prone to hypothyroidism

69
Q

cardiac defects in downs

A

ASD< VSD< patent ductus arterioles and tetralogy of fallot

70
Q

visual problems in downs

A

myopia, strabismus , cataracts

71
Q

management for diarrhoea globally

A

oral rehydration solution and zinc supplements

72
Q

most babies born to HIV positive mothers without intervention are

A

not infected

73
Q

what can be given to infants as prophylaxis if HIV positive mother

A

co-trimoxazole

74
Q

recurrent infctions

A

HIV

75
Q

testing for HIV

A

under 18 months - per
over 18 months - antibody test

76
Q

staging for HIV based on

A

CD4+ count

77
Q

what is HAART

A

two NRTs plus one NNRT or protease inhibitor

78
Q

nrti

A

abacavir

79
Q

NNRTI

A

efavirenx

80
Q

protease inhibitpr

A

kaletra

81
Q

complication of HIV treatment can be managed with

A

NSAIDs

82
Q

do most children infected with M. tuberculosis develop tb

A

no

83
Q

major rf for tb

A

HIV

84
Q

what test not done in children under 5 for tb

A

interferon gamma release assay

85
Q

plasmodium

A

parasite in malaria

86
Q

most severe parasite in malaria as can cross blood Brian barrier

A

P. falciparum

87
Q

tretamten for malaria

A

aremisin base combination therapy

88
Q

severe malaria treatment

A

artesunate

89
Q

diagnosis of severe acute malnutrition

A

mid arm circumference less than 115cm
weight for height under 3SD
oedema of both feet

90
Q

what should be given immediately if inpatient for malnutrition

A

glucose/ sucrose immediately on admission
do not use IV route for rehydration except in shock

91
Q

what is not suitable for severely malnourished patients

A

ORS- oral rehydration solution

92
Q

in malnutrition what can aggregate infection early on

A

iron