osteoporosis in practice Flashcards

1
Q

what is the literal definition of osteoporosis?

A

porous bones

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2
Q

what are the symptoms of osteoporosis?

A

Osteoporosis has no symptoms per se but it is important to patients because it
increases risk of fracture!

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3
Q

what does # mean?

A

fracture

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4
Q

how do we increase public health when it comes to osteoporosis and bone health?

A
  • education of younger people

- effective fracture reduction to reduce morbidity, mortality and cost

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5
Q

when does fracture risk increase?

A

it increases with age

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6
Q

what are the most common areas of osteoporotic fracture?

A

hip, wrist and spine

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7
Q

who are hip fractures more serious in and why?

A

Hip fracture is the most serious consequence of falls among
older people
– Reduced function, loss of independence, loss of confidence, high
mortality rate (

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8
Q

what interventions are there to prevent further hip fractures?

A
• Prevent further fracture 
“secondary prevention” (see 
later)
• If already on treatment check 
adherence and administration
• Lifestyle advice
• Falls assessment
• Including medication 
review
• Prevention of venous 
thromboembolism with LMWH
• Appropriate pain management
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9
Q

what are vertebral fractures in practice?

A

• Spine: Compression fractures
– Acute and chronic back pain
– Height loss, kyphosis

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10
Q

what are interventions for vertebral fractures?

A
• Secondary fracture(#) 
prevention
• Lifestyle advice
• Pain control and analgesia 
review
• Physiotherapy 
• Surgical management
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11
Q

what are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

A
• Fragility # 
• Excess alcohol
• Smoking
• Immobility 
• Drugs e.g. 
• Parental hip fracture 
• Secondary causes e.g.
menopause/hypogonadism 
– low BMI
• (Falls)
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12
Q

what are some drugs that increase the patients risk of osteoporosis?

A
– Corticosteroids
– PPIs 
– Anti-epileptics 
– SSRIs
– Aromatase inhibitors
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13
Q

what are some secondary causes of osteoporosis?

A
– amenorrhoea 
– eating disorders 
– inflammatory bowel disease 
– Rheumatoid Arthritis
– COPD 
– early menopause/ hypogonadism 
– low BMI
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14
Q

how do we identify someone who may need treatment- primary prevention?

A
People who have never 
had a fracture but are at 
increased risk of fracture
NICE G146 on fracture 
risk assessment outlines 
who should be assessed 
(updated 2017)
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15
Q

how do we identify people who need secondary treatment?

A
People who have already 
had a fracture and need to 
reduce the risk of further 
fracture
Fracture liaison services 
have an important role here-
pick up over 50s with fragility 
fracture and offer DXA scan
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16
Q

who do you target for fracture risk assessment?

A

– All older patients (>65 female >75 male)

– Other patients with specified risk factors

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17
Q

what are the fracture risk assessment tools availible?

A

FRAX® and QFracture®

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18
Q

what are the options availible following risk assessment?

A

– lifestyle advice only
– refer for DXA or
– start treatment

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19
Q

what is FRAX and who can it be used for?

A
• FRAX is an online tool that 
can be used to assess 
fracture risk (40-90 yrs)
• Gives a result as:
• 10 year risk of 
osteoporotic fracture 
and 10 yr risk of hip 
fracture (%)
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20
Q

what does FRAX link to?

A
Links to NOGG (National 
Osteoporosis Guideline 
Group) guidance which 
classifies patients as red 
(start treatment) amber (DXA 
scan) or green (lifestyle 
advice)
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21
Q

what are the pharmacological treatment options for osteoporosis?

A

bisphosphonates
denosumab
less common: HRT, raloxifene, teriparatide, strontium

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22
Q

why is patient information essential in osteoporosis?

A

Prophylactic treatment requires motivation

• Patients must be involved in treatment decision

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23
Q

what should you explain to a person who has osteoporosis?

A

– Why they have been prescribed their medication
– How it works
– Benefits
– How to take correctly
– Side effects & what to do if they occur
– Length of treatment

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24
Q

what is first line treatment for osteoporosis?

A

oral bps

- cost effective if patient is eligible for risk assessment and has a 10 year probabiliyy of fracture at least 1%

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25
Q

how to you avoid drug interactions due to absorption with oral bps?

A

– Avoid any other medicines for at least 30 mins

– Avoid calcium supplements for at least 2 hours (preferably 4hrs)

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26
Q

what are the main cautions and contraindications with oral bisphosphonates?

A

– eGFR <35ml/min/1.73m2 Alendronic acid
– eGFR <30ml/min/1.73m2 Risedronate (however note that some clinicians will use below this)
– Known hypocalcaemia
– Dysphagia/swallowing difficulties
– (Recent) GI bleed
– Note that Risedronate may cause fewer GI side-effect

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27
Q

when should you review oral BPS?

A

Review after 5 years (continue vs. stop vs. pause in treatment ‘drug
holiday’)

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28
Q

what advice would you give for oral bisphosphonates?

A

• This medication will help to reduce chance of breaking a bone (by up to 50%);
you only need to take it once a week.
• Take at least 30 minutes before breakfast, with a full glass of water, then
remain upright for 30 mins after (because…)
• If you take calcium supplements take at a completely different time or miss
the morning dose on that day.
• The most common side effect with this medication is heartburn/indigestion,
though not everybody gets this. If it happens to you and it is severe, stop
taking the medicine and go to see your GP. They may be able to switch you to
an alternative [i.e. some people may tolerate risedronate better from GI point
of view]
• Maintain good dental hygiene, report any thigh/hip/groin pain…
• Usually we would review your treatment after 5 years, to check that you still
need it and to reduce the risk of any longer term side effects.

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29
Q

what is the difference in counselling with oral bisphosphonates and ibandronate?

A

similar but once monthly, 1 hr rather than 30min

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30
Q

what is the dose of zolendronic acid?

A

– 5mg annual IV infusion over 15 minutes

31
Q

what is the s/e of zolendronic acid?

A

– Flu-like symptoms common
– Hypocalcaemia
– Rarely atypical #, osteonecrosis of jaw (all antiresorptives)

32
Q

when should you review zolendronic acid?

A

after 3 years- consider drug holiday

33
Q

what do you check in zolendronic acid?

A

– RENAL function
– CALCIUM and
– VITAMIN D before each infusion (correct first)
• Regular dental check-ups + ONJ reminder card

34
Q

when is the first dose of denosumab given? what is the dose?

A

First dose in hospital; after that via GP

• Dose: 60 mg SC injection 6 monthly

35
Q

what do you check before each injection of denosumab?

A

• Check bloods before each injection (renal, calcium, vitamin D); hypocalcaemia
risk
• Correct calcium deficiency, vitamin D loading if D low.

36
Q

how can denosumab cause hypocalcemia?

A

• Not renally excreted but caution in renal impairment due to increased risk of
hypocalcaemia (deaths and hospital admissions reported)

37
Q

what does denosumab increase the risk of?

A

?Increased risk of UTI/chest infection, rash/cellulitis

38
Q

what are the drug interactions with deosumab?

A

No drug interactions known

39
Q

what do we have to be aware of with denosumab- what may fracture may occur?

A

Rare atypical fracture/osteonecrosis of jaw (good dental hygiene, report
hip/thigh/groin pain)

40
Q

when is raloxifene used?

A

Rarely used oral Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator (post-meno
women), initiated by specialist
– Increased risk of VTE, commonly causes hot flushes, leg cramps, flu-
like symptoms

41
Q

what benefit does HRT have ?

A

not recommended for sole purpose of bone protection but will be
beneficial for bones e.g. if used for menopausal symptoms
– Particularly useful in early menopause (<45yrs)

42
Q

when are strontium ranelate aristo used?

A

For ‘severe’ osteoporosis where other medications

not suitable or not tolerated, initiated by a specialist

43
Q

what do you have to monitor/ review with strontium ranelate aristo?

A

• Patient Alert Card
• Monitor for skin reactions (SJS, DRESS)- highest early
in treatment
• Review cardiovascular risk every 6-12m
• C/I in IHD, PAD, CVD, VTE, uncontrolled HTN,
temporary/permanent immobilisation
– Withhold post-surgery, for example
– Caution if cardiovascular risk factors e.g. diabetes, smoking

44
Q

what is teripartide?

A

Recombinant fragment of PTH

initiated by a specalist if certain criteria met

45
Q

what kind of agent is teriparatide?

A

Only anabolic agent currently on the UK market

46
Q

what are the s/e of teriparatide?

A

Limb pain, nausea, headache dizziness (esp. at start of therapy), depression

47
Q

what risks are associated with teriparatide?

A

Risk HYPER calcaemia (unlike antiresorptives)

48
Q

what is romosozumab?

A

Humanised monoclonal antibody that inhibits
sclerostin, first-in-class
• Launched in UK Mar 20
• Stimulates osteoblasts AND reduces osteoclast
function

49
Q

what are the potential s/e with romosozumab?

A

Significant potential cardiac adverse events

50
Q

how long would romosuozumab be prescribed for?

A

• Would be prescribed for 12 months (injections

twice a month) then followed by other tx

51
Q

when do you consider calcium and vitamin D for patients?

A

Consider for all patients on osteoporosis medication
(other than teriparatide)
Recommended particularly if dietary calcium intake
poor/ housebound or institutionalised

52
Q

what are the leveks of vitamin D you should be aware of? what do they mean?

A
  • <25nmol/L deficient
  • 25-50nmol/L may be inadequate for some people
  • > 50nmol/L sufficient for most of population
53
Q

what types of vitamin D is there availible?

A

Ergocalciferol (D2, plant derived)

• Colecalciferol (D3, lanolin derived)* preferred

54
Q

when is rapid correction of vit d needed?

A

– Symptomatic disease (osteomalacia)
– Due to commence parenteral antiresorptive tx
• Loading dose to provide 300,000 units vitamin D either as separate
weekly or daily doses over 6-10 weeks
• Followed by regular maintenance therapy (800 – 2000 units daily)

55
Q

how often should you check adjusted serum calcium ? and why

A

1
month following loading/maintenance in case
primary hyperparathyroidism has been masked

56
Q

how do glucocrticoid induce osteoporosis?

A

Steroids increase bone resorption (early, transient) decrease bone
formation (long-term)

57
Q

when is bone loss greatest with glucorticoids?

A

Bone loss v. rapid in 1st 3months of steroid treatment

– some features of dose responsive effect, particularly at the spine

58
Q

does increased fracture risk corelate to BMD?

A

no it is independent

59
Q

how do steroids increase fracture risk?

A

risk higher on >7.5mg/day, all doses increase # risk
significantly at the spine
– Increased risk of vertebral and non-vertebral (including hip) #,
Spine # more common than hip #
– Could also be due in part to disease itself
– # risk declines after d/c and on continued therapy
– Interventions need to be started early!

60
Q

what do you consider in younger patients?

A
• Treatment may be appropriate in some 
circumstances, referral to specialist clinic 
• Consider risk vs benefit 
• Optimal duration for bone protection 
unknown
• Child-bearing potential 
– Long-retention time in bone, avoid
61
Q

what do you have to consider with a person who has renal impairment?

A

• Risedronate can be used up to GFR 30ml/min
• Denosumab not renally cleared so can use in
renal impairment BUT caution as significantly
increased risk of hypocalcaemia
• Other factors can complicate the picture, such
as renal bone disease, consider referral to
specialist

62
Q

when you review medication, what are the two options?

A

– can decide to continue or drug holiday at this point

– weigh up the risks and benefits

63
Q

how long is the drug holiday for bisphosphonates?

A

Drug holiday = Stop bisphosphonate, usually for 1-2 years

64
Q

what is an atypical fracture?

A

rare side effect- increases with duration
Usually thigh bone often atraumatic
• Can be bilateral
• Report thigh, hip and groin pain (X-ray
to rule out)
• Benefits of treatment generally
outweigh risks

65
Q

what is BRONJ-MRONJ?

A
• Osteonecrosis – death of bone
• Case reports (2003) – BRONJ
• Associated with other medications –
MRONJ e.g. Denosumab
• Usually associated with invasive dental 
procedures
66
Q

what is recommended with MRONJ?

A

• Radical surgical management to remove large segments

of necrotic bone.

67
Q

what is a good preventative measure of MRONJ?

A

• Multidisciplinary approach – dentists, pharmacists, medical
practitioners and patients
Best Practice:
• Patients should be dentally fit prior to initiation with a
bisphosphonate and maintain good oral hygiene

68
Q

how do you gradually stop bisphosphonate treatment?

A

• Gradual in BMD, in BTM

69
Q

what does denosuma reduce?

A

fractures at hip and
spine- evidence from extension studies up to
10 yrs (3yr FREEDOM study + extension)

70
Q

why can you not take a drug holiday from denosumab?

A

as not

retained in the bone

71
Q

what happens on cessation of denosumab?

A

increased bone
resorption, rapid decline in BMD
within 3m of scheduled
dose omitted

72
Q

what are some examples of bone resportion markers?

A

TX, NTX

73
Q

what are markers of bone fomration?

A

P1NP, Osteocalcin,

Bone specific ALP

74
Q

what needs to be considered with pareneteral treatment?

A

– KIDNEY function very important
– CALCIUM and VITAMIN D level need to be checked before
Zoledronic IV/Ibandronic IV/Denosumab SC
– MHRA: Risk of hypocalcaemia
– Higher risk of atypical fracture and ONJ .