OSSD Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

what is the difference between alpha and beta glucose

A

alpha has H on top for first carbon while beta has OH on top

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2
Q

is glycogen alpha or beta

A

alpha

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3
Q

is starch alpha or beta

A

alpha

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4
Q

is cellulose alpha or beta

A

beta

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5
Q

what are some properties of glucose

A

ringed
carbohydrate
can be oxidized
soluble
stable

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6
Q

which starch has 1,6 glycosidic bonds

A

amylopectin

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7
Q

describe nature of amylose + amylopectin

A

amylose
- linear
- coiled
- 1.4
amylopectin
- branched
- 1,6 + 1,4
- more compact (3D)

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8
Q

are starches soluble

A

no (large and polar carbohydrates)

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9
Q

does glycogen have 1,6 glycosidic bonds

A

yes

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10
Q

describe nature of glycogen

A

branched
coiled
1,4 and 1,6
stored in liver and muscles

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11
Q

describe nature of cellulose

A

b glucose
cell wall
straight chain
composed of microfibrils
glucose alternates in polymerization (1,4)

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12
Q

what holds microfibrils together

A

H bonds

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13
Q

is cellulose strong

A

yes

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14
Q

what are the functions of glycoproteins

A

act as markers
act as receptors
acts as ligands
structural support

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15
Q

how many antigens are there in blood groups

A

two

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16
Q

where are triglycerides synthesized

A

liver

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17
Q

are triglycerides solid at room temp

A

yes

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18
Q

what are some examples of triglycerides

A

blubber found in aquatic mammals
butter
lard

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19
Q

what is the distinguishing factor of sterols

A

4 fused carbon rings

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20
Q

describe the nature of waxes

A

waterproof
high melting point
solid at room temp

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21
Q

what is the equation for the formation of triglycerides

A

3 fatty acids + glycerol = triglyceride + 3 H2O

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22
Q

what is the equation for the formation of phospholipids

A

2 fatty acids + mod glycerol with phosphate = phospholipid + 2 H2O

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23
Q

what are some examples of condensation reactions

A

formation of
- phospholipids
- triglycerides
- polypeptide chains
- disaccharides
- most forms of polymerization

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24
Q

define nature of saturated fatty acids

A

straight
no double bonds
packed tightly

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25
Q

whats an example of saturated fatty acids

A

meats

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26
Q

define nature of unsaturated fatty acids

A

one or more double bonds
bends
no tight packing
liquid

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27
Q

example of polyunsaturated fatty acids

A

vegetable oil

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28
Q

example of monounsaturated fatty acids

A

olive oil

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29
Q

define cis and trans fatty acids

A

cis has H on same side in the kink
trans has H on opposite sides in the kink

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30
Q

define endotherms

A

organisms / animals that rely on metabolic reactions to generate heat

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31
Q

what is adipose tissue

A

tissue that stores energy and insulates your body

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32
Q

define amphipathic

A

a molecule with both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions

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33
Q

define and identify the role of cholesterol

A

a steroid found in the phospholipid bilayer, typically on one layer and regulates fluidity and stability based on environmental changes (temp)

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34
Q

define proteins

A

complex macromolecules that consist of one or more chains of amino acids (polypeptides)

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35
Q

what are some functions of proteins

A

catalysis
signalling pathways
structural support

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36
Q

what is the term associated to the middle carbon in an amino acid

A

alpha carbon

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37
Q

what is the equation for the formation of a dipeptide

A

AA + AA = dipeptide + H2O

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38
Q

equation for N terminus

A

NH2

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39
Q

equation for C terminus

A

COOH

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40
Q

which terminal does additional amino acids get added to

A

C terminus

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41
Q

define essential amino acids

A

amino acids that are essential for bodily functions that your body cannot produce

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42
Q

define non-essential amino acids

A

amino acids that are essential for bodily functions that your body can produce

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43
Q

define the genetic code

A

set of rules of how DNA should translate

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44
Q

what is translation

A

mRNA to protein

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45
Q

what is transcription

A

DNA to mRNA

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46
Q

how is the genetic code degenerative

A

multiple codons code for same amino acid which can allow silent mutations (changes in DNA that does not change the amino acid sequence)

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47
Q

what are silent mutations

A

changes in DNA that does not change the amino acid sequence

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48
Q

what are two examples of single chain proteins

A

myoglobin (stored in muscles for oxygen storage)
lysozyme (breaks down microbial components in tears / saliva)

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49
Q

define denaturation

A

the alteration in a protein’s structure that causes it to degrade its function

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50
Q

what can cause denaturation

A

pH and temperature

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51
Q

how does pH affect protein structure

A

affects the solubility of the protein in specific

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52
Q

how does temperature affect protein structure

A

disrupts H bonds present holding the complex together

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53
Q

if an R group is negatively charged, is is acidic or basic

A

acidic

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54
Q

if an R group is positively charged, is it acidic or basic

A

basic

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55
Q

describe the nature of alpha helices

A

helix structures (secondary structure) that are local and occur between the O and H of amino acids 4 residues away in sequence

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56
Q

describe the nature of beta pleated sheets

A

flat sheets (secondary structure) that are local and occur between amino acid residues that are adjacent and run parallel

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57
Q

define primary strucure

A

sequence of AA in a chain

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58
Q

define secondary structure

A

local pleating and folding

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59
Q

define tertiary structure + types

A

R group interactions
- disulphide covalent bonds
- h bonds
- ionic bonds
- hydrophobic interactions

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60
Q

define integral proteins

A

proteins that contain hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions that are embedded inside the membrane

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61
Q

define peripheral proteins

A

proteins that contain hydrophilic regions that are peripheral of the membrane

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62
Q

define quaternary structure

A

the interactions between polypeptide chains and their arrangement in relation to one another

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63
Q

define the term conjugated in reference to proteins and non-conjugated

A

conjugated: contains non amino acid components
non-conjugated: only contains amino acid components

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64
Q

example of a conjugated protein

A

haemoglobin

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65
Q

what is the nature of globular proteins

A

spherical
soluble
amphipathic

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66
Q

what is the nature of fibrous protein

A

strong
insoluble
thin

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67
Q

example of a fibrous protein

A

collagen

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68
Q

example of a globular protein

A

haemoglobin

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69
Q

can lipid soluble materials pass the bilayer

A

yes

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70
Q

can small uncharged polar molecules pass the bilayer

A

mostly yes (mostly permable)

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71
Q

can large uncharged polar molecules pass the bilayer

A

mostly no (mostly impermeable)

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72
Q

can charged particles pass the bilayer

A

no

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73
Q

define osmosis

A

the movement of water from low to high solute concentration or high to low water potential across a selectively permeable membrane

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74
Q

define facilitated diffusion

A

diffusion that is aided by either carrier or channel proteins

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75
Q

what is an example of facilitated diffusion through a carrier protein

A

GLUT transporter (glucose into RBC)

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76
Q

what is an example of facilitated diffusion through a channel protein

A

sodium and potassium channels (not pump)

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77
Q

define active transport

A

movement of molecules from low to high concentration (against gradient) that is aided by a protein that uses energy

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78
Q

describe the working of the Na/K pump ATPase

A
  1. open to interior of cell and 3 Na bind (ATP binds)
  2. ATP hydrolyzes and pump changes to open outside
  3. Na discard and 2 K bind to pump
  4. Phosphate detaches and conformational change to open to the interior of the cell and K discards
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79
Q

does indirect active transport require ATP, why?

A

does not, the other substance that is going by its gradient drives the secondary substance

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80
Q

what are the functions of glycoproteins / glycolipids

A

cell recognition
cell adhesion
cell signalling

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81
Q

what direction do substances flow according to the fluid mosaic model

A

laterally

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82
Q

define endocytosis

A

bulk transport of materials into the cell

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83
Q

what is an example of endocytosis

A

phagocytosis –> solid particles (ex: WBC pseudopodia with pathogens)
pinocytosis –> small “drinking” ingestions of extracellular fluid to regulate internal pressure

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84
Q

define exocytosis

A

bulk transport of materials outside of the cell

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85
Q

what is an example of exocytosis

A

glycolipids produced in ER, modified in golgi, get sent out of the cell (membrane)

86
Q

what is the typical resting membrane potential of a nerve cell

87
Q

define electrochemical gradient

A

the difference in electrochemical charge across a membrane

88
Q

does the exterior or interior have a higher concentration of sodium

89
Q

does the exterior or interior have a higher concentration of potassium

90
Q

define action potential

A

rapid sequence of changes in the voltage across a membrane

91
Q

describe the change in action potential in a neuron

A
  1. stimuli causes opening of Na gate
  2. sodium diffuses into neuron (depolarization)
  3. action potential travels down the neuron
  4. sodium channel closes and potassium channel opens after a certain voltage is reached
  5. potassium diffuses out of the neuron (repolarization)
  6. potassium channel closes, ATPase regulates the membrane potential back to rest (-70mV)
92
Q

where is nAchR found

A

neuromuscular junctions

93
Q

what does nAchR do

A

a neurotransmitter gated ion channel for sodium
it diffuses in when Ach binds to it
cholinesterase then breaks down Ach instantly

94
Q

what is an example of indirect active transport

A

cotransport of sodium + glucose to epithelial cells
involved in the nephron

95
Q

what are the 3 junction types

A

adhesion
tight (seal)
gap (movement of molecules)

96
Q

what defines an organelle

A

specific function or membrane bound

97
Q

what is an example of compartmentalization

A

lysosomes (prevents enzymatic activity and damage to other areas of the cell were this process is unneeded)

98
Q

what is post transcriptional modification and why is compartmentalization important

A

removal of fragments of mRNA and is important to prevent translation into a protein in cytoplasm

99
Q

what are stacked thylakoids called

A

grana / granum

100
Q

what connects thylakoids

101
Q

what side are ribosomes bound to in rough ER

A

cytosolic side (facing cytoplasm)

102
Q

what are cis, medial and trans golgi specification

A

receives from ER, receives for internal use, receives for external use

103
Q

what is clathrin + its use

A

formation of vesicles, its polymerization acts as a skeleton for this formation. its role is not fully understood at this time

104
Q

how many cells are found in the morula

105
Q

what are the parts of a blastocyst

A

trophoblast (outside) + inner cell mass

106
Q

define differentiation

A

the process where a cell becomes specialized for specific functions

107
Q

what are morphogens

A

form giving molecules / chemicals that influence the differentiation that occurs in stem cells

108
Q

what are totipotent stem cells

A

can give rise to an organism

109
Q

what are pluripotent stem cells

A

differentiate into any body cell

110
Q

what are multipotent stem cells

A

differentiate into closely related cells

111
Q

what are unipotent stem cells

A

can only divide into that type of cell

112
Q

what are some examples of flattening to increase SA:V

A

golgi and cristae

113
Q

what are type 1 pneumocytes

A

substances that are thin and flat that cover the alveoli and allow for gas exchange to occcur

114
Q

what are type 2 pneumocytes

A

cuboidal in shape, small protrusions that enter alveolar space to secrete surfactant

115
Q

why do skeletal muscles have multiple nuclei

A

to produce proteins for O2 storage and use

116
Q

what are some adaptations for egg cell

A

larger
round
many nutrients
permeable membrane

117
Q

what are some adaptations for sperm cell

A

small
motile (flagella)
mitochondria present
enzymes in acrosome cap for penetration

118
Q

what are some factors of efficient gas exchange

A

large SA
permeability (thin)
concentration gradient
moist layer

119
Q

what are some adaptations for mammals in gas exchange

A

dense network of blood vessels
double circulatory system
continuous blood flow
ventilation

120
Q

what is the role of surfactant

A

reduce surface tension to allow partial collapsing of alveoli

121
Q

what are some adaptations for alveoli in specific that aid in gas exchange

A

dense bed of capillaries
moist layer
thin layer
concentration gradient
many of them (increase SA)

122
Q

explain the role of the intercostal muscles in inhalation, exhalation and forced exhalation

A

inhalation
- external contract
- internal relax

exhalation
- both relax

forced exhalation
- external relax
- internal contract

123
Q

what are some factors that affect lung capacities

A

age, body composition, lung volume, genetics, sex, diseases, amount of physical activity

124
Q

what do baroreceptors do

A

detect changes in pressure

125
Q

what do baroreceptors do when pressure decreases

A

detects, sends info to medulla, increase in heart rate (vasoconstriction)

126
Q

what do baroreceptors do when pressure increases

A

detects, sends to medulla, reduce in heart rate (vasodilation)

127
Q

what do chemoreceptors do

A

detect changes in CO2, O2 and pH

128
Q

what do chemoreceptors do if pH decreases

A

means there is more CO2 and therefore must increase ventilation

129
Q

why does CO2 make blood more acidic (less pH)

A

it forms carbonic acid in aqueous solution

130
Q

does fetal or adult haemoglobin have a higher affinity and why

A

fetal, presence of gamma chains are stronger than beta chains. harder to discard oxygen in tissues / cells

131
Q

HbA vs HbF vs myoglobin, which has highest O2 affinity

132
Q

what happens to haemoglobin when oxygen binds to it

A

induces cooperative binding, allows multiple oxygen to bind to the complex with more ease, increasing its affinity for oxygen. reason for the S shape of the dissociation curve

133
Q

what happens if carbon dioxide is in high concentrations in the blood?

A

higher CO2 pressure results in oxygen dissociation curve to shift right, decrease in pH alters solubility and structure, thus decreasing affinity for every level of pressure for oxygen

134
Q

what is a bohr shift?

A

a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve

135
Q

describe cytokinesis in plant cells vs animal cells

A

plant cells
- a cell plate forms due to various vesicles containing cellulose components and other necessary resources to split the cell into two

animal cells
- actin and myosin proteins form a contractile ring between the two nuclei and induce pinching off to form two separate cells

136
Q

explain why unequal cytokinesis is essential

A

for increased allocation of resources towards germ cells such as egg cells and allows for life to be sustainable

137
Q

what makes asexual reproduction so diverse

A

crossing over + independent assortment with two sets of DNA

138
Q

what is the term for the failure to assort properly in anaphase

A

non-disjunction

139
Q

what is the term for down syndrome

A

trisomy 21

140
Q

equation for possible combinations in independent assortment

A

2^n (n = haploid number)

141
Q

what are the stages to the cell cycle

A

G1, S, G2, mitosis

142
Q

what are cyclins

A

proteins that regulate the cell cycle (bind to CDKs to allow for cycle to continue)

143
Q

how can mutations occur

A

errors in genetic code
ionizing radiation
mutagenic chemicals

144
Q

what are oncogenes and what do they do

A

mutated proto-oncogenes and have uncontrolled cellular division

145
Q

how do you calculate mitotic index

A

number of dividing cells / total cells

146
Q

describe the stages of spermatogenesis

A
  1. spermatogonia divide mitotically into primary spermatocytes
  2. primary spermatocytes divide via meiosis into secondary spermatocytes
  3. secondary spermatocytes divide via meiosis II into spermatids
  4. spermatids undergo spermiogenesis and form sperms
147
Q

describe the stages of oogenesis

A
  1. oogonia divide mitotically into primary oocytes
  2. primary oocytes divide via meiosis I but are capped at prophase I until the onset of puberty
  3. when puberty occurs, meiosis I completes to form secondary oocytes + first polar body and meiosis II starts but is capped at metaphase II
  4. upon fertilization, meiosis II completes and forms a mature egg / ovum + second polar body
148
Q

what is the female part of the plant and its parts

A

pistil (ovary, style, stigma)

149
Q

what is the male part of the plant and its parts

A

stamen (anther, filament)

150
Q

what is the term for when gened differ by a few bases

151
Q

define true breeding

A

crossing an organism that always passes on its phenotypic trait

152
Q

what is PKU

A

a recessive disorder caused by a mutation in chromosome 12
this gene on chromosome 12 codes for an enzyme that converts Phe to Tyr
if not produced, Phe levels build and become toxic

153
Q

what is codominance

A

when both alleles are expressed equally

154
Q

what is incomplete dominance

A

when both alleles are mixed and expressed

155
Q

what are some sex linked disorders

A

colour blindness
haemophilia

156
Q

what is haemophilia

A

the disorder in which the F8 gene that encodes for clotting factor VIII is not created, resulting in the lack of blood clotting. can lead to excessive bleeding and major loss of blood

157
Q

where does blood enter the kidney

A

renal artery

158
Q

what are the functions of the kidney

A

ultrafiltration
reabsorption
secretion

159
Q

outline the roles in ultrafiltration

A

afferent arterioles bring blood to nephron
filtration occurs in bowman’s capsule in glomerulus
blood leaves via efferent arterioles

160
Q

outline the roles in reabsorption

A

filtrate passes through proximal convoluted tubule
transport to loop of henle (ascending has no aquaporins)
flows through distal convoluted tubule
collecting duct finally absorbs anything (osmoreceptors can regulate amount of aquaporins in collecting duct)

161
Q

what are the two cycles in the menstrual cycle

A

ovarian cycle
uterine cycle

162
Q

outline the processes in the ovarian cycle

A
  1. follicular phase –> LH and FSH secreted, causes oestradiol secretion. follicles enlargen
  2. ovulation –> LH and FSH causes follicles to become large and eventually rupture, releasing mature egg
  3. luteal phase –> FSH + LH drop, oestradiol + progesterone increase, inhibiting FSH and LH
163
Q

outline the processes in the uterine cycle

A
  1. proliferative –> oestradiol secretion as follicle grows
  2. secretory –> progesterone influences uterine lining to thicken
  3. menstruation –> low FSH and LH, decrease in progesterone + oestradiol
164
Q

IVF reproduction processes

A

individual is given FSH in abundance to produce more than 1 egg per month
given hCG to speed up maturation of the egg and follicle production

165
Q

define locomotion

A

ability for an organism to move its entire body from one place to another

166
Q

define sessile

A

immobile organisms / fixed in one place and rely on the environment for resources

167
Q

what is a cross bridge

A

structure when myosin head binds to actin

167
Q

outline the relationship between the bands in contraction for muscles

A

I and H bands decrease, A band increases

168
Q

outline the process of contraction in muscle fibres

A

electrical stimuli causes release of calcium
binds to troponin and undergoes conformational change
pushes tropomyosin away (ATP required)
myosin head then binds to actin site
ATP hydrolyzes and pulls myosin head back to original
ATP attaching causes myosin head to detach

169
Q

what is the role of titin in muscle relaxation

A

stretches when sarcomere does and stores potential energy

170
Q

outline the process between motor neuron and muscle fibre

A

axon terminal of motor neuron releases neurotransmitter (acetylcholine)
diffuses across synaptic cleft in neuromuscular junction
binds to receptors on muscle cell and triggers opening of calcium channel

171
Q

what are synovial joints + example

A

joints separated by synovial fluid and have cartilage on the bones. ex: hip joint

172
Q

what direction do external + internal intercostal muscles run

A

external –> downwards
internal –> upwards

173
Q

what are some reasons for locomotion

A

foraging
running from predators
migration
reproduction

174
Q

what are some marine mammal adaptations

A

streamlined bodies
flippers and tails
higher amount of myoglobin
more blood
large SA:V

175
Q

what is the role of synergids

A

guide the pollen tubes towards the egg cell

176
Q

what is the role of the central cell in the ovule of a plant

A

to fuse with secondary sperm (double fertilization) to form endosperm for nutrition to nourish the embryo

177
Q

what are hermaphrodites

A

organisms with male and female reproductive parts

178
Q

outline role of pollination

A

pollen lands on stigma
germination
pollen tube forms
generative cells split into sperm cell
entry and fertilization

179
Q

outline stages of male hormone production in puberty

A

puberty initiated by GnRH
releases LH + FSH
LH makes testosterone
FSH makes sperm

180
Q

outline stages of female hormone production in puberty

A

puberty initiated by GnRH
releases LH + FSH
makes progesterone (inhibits LH + FSH)
makes oestradiol (inhibits GnRH)

181
Q

what is the primary defence system

A

skin / mucous membranes

182
Q

what is the second defence system

A

immune response

183
Q

what are the steps of phagocytosis

A

recognition
pseudopodia
maturation
lysosome fusing
enzymes digesting

184
Q

what do plasma b cells produce

A

antibodies (y shaped)

185
Q

what are the two types of t-cell

A

cytotoxic (kills infected cells)
helper (activates cytotoxic and b cells)

186
Q

how do t cells get activated

A

antigen presenting cells demonstrate fragments that then activate t cells and cytotoxic t cells along with b cells

187
Q

how do b cells get activated

A

recognition of antigen present on membrane allows activation, can be through helper t cell sending a signal to b cell to activate and release antibodies

188
Q

what are the stages of HIV

A

acute: high conc, high transmission, high multiplication
chronic: low conc, low transmission, low multiplication, last several years
final stage: cannot fight off opportunistic infections

189
Q

why do antibiotics not affect humans / eukaryotic cells

A

antibiotics either alter the reproduction of bacteria or instantly kill them and this can be done through the interference in the polymerization of peptidoglycan in bacteria cell walls, that is not found in human / eukaryotic cells. prevents cross linking, lysis occurs

190
Q

how does antibiotic resistance occur

A

either through slight mutations in the bacteria, becoming resistant through adaptations or for prolonged exposure to the antibiotic, in which certain protein pumps can discard the antibiotic or enzymes can break down the components in the antibiotic

191
Q

what is the term for bacteria that is resistant to multiple antibiotics

A

MDR bacteria

192
Q

what is the term given to pathogen when they break the species barrier

A

a crossover with zoonotic pathogens

193
Q

what are vaccines

A

substances that provide immunity to a specific disease

194
Q

what is immunization

A

when bodies develop an immunity to a specific pathogen / disease

195
Q

what are the types of vaccines

A

live attenuated
DNA
RNA

196
Q

what is herd immunity

A

immunity that occurs in a community when a certain percentage of individuals are immune to a specific pathogen / disease. this is beneficial to individuals who cannot get vaccinated for reasons associated with their immune system

197
Q

which cells myelinate neurons in PNS

A

Schwann cells

198
Q

which cells myelinate neurons in CNS

A

oligodendrocytes

199
Q

what are the types of neurons

A

sensory
interneuron
motor

200
Q

how does temperature affect conductivity velocity in neurons

A

hotter = faster lol

201
Q

what is a neuromuscular junction

A

junction / synapse between a motor neuron and muscle fibre as the effector cell

202
Q

what is a neuroglandular junction

A

junction / synapse between neurons and glands

203
Q

what is saltatory conduction

A

the conduction that occurs when an action potential travels between nodes of Ranvier in myelinated neurons (higher speed)

204
Q

what are exogenous chemicals

A

chemicals that originate outside of the body

205
Q

explain how nicotine can induce paralysis

A

it can bind to AchR and prevent the binding of Ach to R, thus preventing the transmission of Ach rather abruptly

206
Q

explain how cocaine can be addictive

A

uses dopamine as a reward pathway, and binds to dopamine reuptake receptors to build up the amount of dopamine and release in amplified waves to give a feeling of sensation. multiple receptors can be placed if needed with more cocaine concentration

207
Q

what does helicase do

A

unzips the double helix structure of DNA into two strands by breaking the H bonds present

208
Q

what does DNA polymerase III do

A

binds to the independent strands of DNA and attaches free fragments / nucleotides to the strand to create the double helix upon replication (5’ to 3’)

209
Q

what does DNA polymerase I do

A

discards the RNA primers that DNA primase has placed

210
Q

what does DNA primase do

A

adds RNA primers to indicate starting points for replication for polymerase III