Orthopaedic Trauma Day 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what metacarpal bone has the highest tolerance for fractures and which has the lowest tolerance?

A

highest tolerance = thumb
lowest tolerance = small finger

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2
Q

what is the most common metacarpal fracture?

A

5th metacarpal bone fracture (little finger)

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3
Q

defined as a small finger metacarpal neck fracture

A

boxer’s fracture

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4
Q

what should we evaluate if a patient has a possible boxer’s fracture?

A

rotation/scissoring

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5
Q

what is the non-op treatment for a 5th metacarpal fracture/boxer’s fracture? (2)

A

closed reduction
ulnar gutter splint

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6
Q

what is the operative treatment for a 5th metacarpal bone fracture/boxer’s fracture?

A

open reduction internal fixation (ORIF)

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7
Q

when would we want to operate on a 5th metacarpal bone fracture? (4)

A

open
intra-articular
rotational deformity
>60 deg of angulation

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8
Q

identify fracture

A

boxer’s fracture (neck)

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9
Q

identify

A

5th metacarpal bone fracture with volar angulation

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10
Q

identify

A

5th metacarpal shaft fracture with volar displacement

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11
Q

what are the most common phalanx fractures?

A

distal phalanx

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12
Q

what are the least common phalanx fractures?

A

proximal phalanx

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13
Q

a phalanx fracture most commonly occurs in which finger?

A

small finger

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14
Q

where do most distal phalanx fractures occur?

A

tuft of phalanx

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15
Q

distal phalanx fractures are most often associated with what?

A

nail bed/matrix laceration

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16
Q

very common injury in which nailbed can be either crushed, lacerated, or amputated

A

tuft fracture

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17
Q

identify

A

tuft fracture

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18
Q

identify

A

shaft fracture of distal phalanx

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19
Q

identify

A

volar base fracture

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20
Q

identify

A

dorsal base fracture

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21
Q

how should base fractures be treated?

A

by hand surgeon

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22
Q

which fractures of the phalanx often have dorsal or volar displacement d/t insertion of FDS and FDP tendons, as well as shortening and rotation of finger; typically requires surgical fixation?

A

middle and proximal phalanx fractures

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23
Q

what is the typical treatment for middle and proximal phalanx fractures?

A

surgery

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24
Q

what non-op management can be used for middle and proximal phalanx fractures? (2) when can we use this treatment? (2)

A

buddy tape or finger splint

no head or base involvement
no rotation or displacement

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25
Q

identify

A

proximal phalanx shaft fracture

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26
Q

identify

A

proximal phalanx fracture of ring finger

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27
Q

identify

A

tuft fracture to ring finger

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28
Q

what 2 locations do elderly patients most commonly have hip fractures?

A

femoral neck
intertrochanteric

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29
Q

what 2 locations do young patients most commonly have hip fractures?

A

acetabulum
proximal femur

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30
Q

which hip fracture is typically associated with hip dislocations?

A

femoral head fractures

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31
Q

which 2 hip fractures have a high risk of avascular necrosis (AVN)?

A

femoral head fracture
femoral neck fracture

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32
Q

what imaging is required for further evaluation of femoral head fracture?

A

CT

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33
Q

non-op vs operative treatment of femoral head fractures depends on what? (2)

A

location
fracture displacement

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34
Q

identify

A

femoral head fracture

35
Q

hip fracture in which leg is shortened and externally rotated with abduction

A

femoral neck fracture

36
Q

what should be ordered since femoral neck fractures are difficult to discern on plain film xray and CT?

A

MRI d/t possible occult fracture

37
Q

what are femoral neck fractures highly associated with?

A

high morbidity and mortality

38
Q

what are the treatment options for femoral neck fractures? (3)

A

surgery

ORIF
hip hemiarthroplasty
total hip arthroplasty

39
Q

identify

A

femoral neck fracture

40
Q

identify

A

impacted femoral neck fracture

41
Q

proximal femur fracture at level of the greater and lesser trochanters in which the leg is shortened and externally rotated

A

intertrochanteric fractures

42
Q

what is the treatment for intertrochanteric fractures?

A

cephalomedullary nail fixation

43
Q

identify

A

intertrochanteric fracture

44
Q

result in femoral head dislocations from the acetabulum socket

A

hip dislocations

45
Q

which nerve is most commonly injured in hip dislocations?

A

sciatic nerve

46
Q

are most hip dislocations anterior or posterior?

A

posterior

47
Q

why is it important to reduce a hip dislocation as soon as possible (within 12 hours)?

A

prevent AVN of femoral head

48
Q

what is the treatment for a hip dislocation?

A

reduction by flexing knee and hip and pulling superiorly with countertraction

49
Q

a patient’s physical exam shows their leg is adducted with internal rotation. what injury is likely?

A

hip dislocation

50
Q

identify

A

posterior hip dislocation

51
Q

identify

A

anterior hip dislocation

52
Q

in which patients is femur shaft fracture most common in?

A

young patient

53
Q

what is likely to occur in a femur shaft fracture?

A

high blood loss

54
Q

what are 4 complications of a femur shaft fracture?

A

fat emboli
internal soft tissue damage
frequent nonunion
leg length discrepancy

55
Q

what is the treatment for a femur shaft fracture?

A

intermedullary nail within 24 hrs

56
Q

identify

A

comminuted femur shaft fracture

57
Q

identify

A

spiral femur shaft fracture

58
Q

in which 2 fractures is skeletal traction used?

A

femur fractures
acetabulum fractures

59
Q

what are the 2 most common locations for a skeletal traction?

A

distal femur
proximal tibia

60
Q

why do we use skeletal traction? (4)

A

reduce pain
minimize blood loss
soft tissue rest
decrease muscle contraction

61
Q

intra-articular fracture of the proximal tibia

A

tibial plateau fracture

62
Q

what leads to joint impaction of a tibial plateau fracture?

A

axial load injury

63
Q

what diagnostic should be used for a tibial plateau fracture?

A

CT

64
Q

what nerve is most commonly injured in tibial plateau fractures?

A

common fibular nerve

65
Q

what are 4 complications that a tibial plateau fracture can be associated with?

A

meniscal tear
ACL injury
compartment syndrome
neurovascular injury

66
Q

what are 2 treatment options for a tibial plateau fracture?

A

acute ORIF
temporary external fixator + ORIF later

67
Q

what are the post-op rules for a tibial plateau fracture?

A

weight bearing restricted for 12 weeks for healing

68
Q

identify

A

tibial plateau fracture

+ fibular head fracture

69
Q

identify

A

tibial plateau fracture

70
Q

what imaging is best for patella fractures?

A

lateral knee xray

71
Q

what does a patella fracture lead to?

A

loss of extensor mechanism

72
Q

what part of the physical exam determines if a patient with a patella fracture needs surgery or not?

A

extensor mechanism

73
Q

what are the 2 non-op treatments for a patellar fracture since extensor mechanism is intact?

A

knee immobilizer
hinged knee brace locked in extension

WBAT

74
Q

what are the 2 op treatments for a patellar fracture since extensor mechanism is not intact?

A

ORIF with k-wires or screws + tension suture
plate/screws

75
Q

what is the most common patellar fracture?

A

transverse

76
Q

identify

A

transverse patellar fracture

77
Q

what is the most common knee dislocation? anterior or posterior?

A

anterior

78
Q

why will knee dislocation xrays look normal and are easily missed?

A

half of them spontaneously reduce

79
Q

what nerve and artery are most at risk in knee dislocations?

A

common peroneal nerve
popliteal artery

80
Q

what is the treatment for a knee dislocation? (3)

A

immediate reduction + stabilization
ankle-brachial index + CT angio
external fixator

81
Q

identify

A

posterior knee dislocation

82
Q

what type of knee dislocation has a higher risk for vascular injury? (popliteal artery)

A

posterior knee dislocation

83
Q

identify

A

anterior knee dislocation

84
Q

what type of knee dislocation has a higher risk for nerve injury? (common peroneal nerve)

A

anterior knee dislocation