Ortho Flashcards

1
Q

what is trochanteric bursitis?

A

inflammation of a bursa over the greater trochanter on the outer hip

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2
Q

what is greater trochanteric pain syndrome?

A

pain localised at the outer hip caused by trochanteric bursitis

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3
Q

what are bursae

A

sacs created by synovial membrane filled with a small amount of synovial fluid

found at bony prominences

act to reduce friction between bones and soft tissue during movement

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4
Q

what is bursitis

A

inflammation of a bursa. Causes thickening of the synovial membrane and increased fluid production, causing swelling

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5
Q

4 causes of bursitis

A
  1. friction from repetitive movements
  2. trauma
  3. inflammatory conditions e.g. RA
  4. infection (septic bursitis)
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6
Q

presentation of trochanteric bursitis

A
  1. middle aged patient with gradual onset lateral hip pain that may radiate down outer thigh
  2. aching or burning pain
  3. worse with activity,
    standing after sitting for a prolonged period and trying to sit cross-legged
  4. disrupted sleep. difficult to find a comfortable lying position
  5. tenderness over the greater trochanter. No swelling
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7
Q

name 4 special tests to establish a dx of trochanteric bursitis

A
1. +ve Trendelenburg test
Pain on:
2. resisted abduction of the hip
3. resisted internal rotation of the hip 
4. resisted external rotation of the hip
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8
Q

what does the Trendelenburg test involve?

A

establishes dx of trochanteric bursitis

stand one legged on the affected leg

normally the other other side of the pelvis should remain level or tilt upwards slightly

+ve Trendelenburg test: other side of pelvis drops down –> weakness in the affected hip

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9
Q

Management options for trochanteric bursitis

A
  • rest
  • ice
  • analgesia NSAIDs
  • Physiotherapy
  • Steroid injections
  • abx if caused by infection
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10
Q

septic bursitis presentation

A
  • warmth, erythema, swelling and pain over the bursa

- may have fever

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11
Q

what is the recovery period for trochanteric bursitis

A

6-9m

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12
Q

what is trigger finger?

A

a condition causing pain and difficulty moving a finger

aka stenosing tenosynovitis

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13
Q

what is the pathophysiology of trigger finger?

A
  • flexor tendons of finger pass through sheaths along length of finger
  • thickening of tendon or tightening of sheath
  • prevents tendon from smoothly moving through the sheath when finger is flexed and extended
  • causing pain, stiffness or catching symptoms
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14
Q

what is the most commonly affected part of the sheath in trigger finger?

A

first annular pulley (A1)

at the MCP joint

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15
Q

what are the RFs for trigger finger?

A
  • 40s or 50s
  • women
  • diabetics
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16
Q

what is the typical presentation of trigger finger?

A

troublesome finger that:

  1. is painful + tender (usually around the MCP joint on the palm-side of the hand
  2. does not move smoothly
  3. makes a popping or clicking sound
  4. gets stuck in a flexed position

Sx typically worse in morning and improve during the day

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17
Q

how to diagnose trigger finger

A

clinical diagnosis based on hx and examination

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18
Q

what are the management options for trigger finger

A
  • rest and analgesia (some resolve spontaneously)
  • splinting
  • steroid injections
  • surgery to release A1 pulley
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19
Q

what is a Baker’s cyst?

A

aka popliteal cysts

a fluid filled sac in the popliteal fossa, causing a lump

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20
Q

what are the borders of the popliteal fossa?

A
  • superior + medial: Semimembranous and semitendinosus tendons
  • superior + lateral: Biceps femoris tendon
  • inferior + medial: medial head of the gastrocnemius
  • inferior + lateral: lateral head of the gastrocnemius
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21
Q

what causes Baker’s cysts?

A

in adults, it’s usually secondary to degenerative changes in the knee joint

Synovial fluid squeezed out of knee joint

collects in popliteal fossa

a connection between the synovial fluid in the joint and Baker’s cyst can remain

allowing cyst to continue to enlarge as more fluid collects there

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22
Q

what are Baker’s cysts associated with?

A
  • MENISCAL TEARS
  • osteoarthritis
  • knee injuries
  • inflammatory arthritis e.g. RA
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23
Q

do Baker’s cysts have their own epithelial lining?

A

No but they are contained within the soft tissues

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24
Q

presentation of Baker’s cysts

A

Localised to popliteal fossa:

  • pain or discomfort
  • fullness
  • pressure
  • palpable lump or swelling
  • restricted range of motion in the knee (with larger cysts)
  • oedema if cyst compresses the venous drainage of the leg
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25
Q

What is Foucher’s sign

A

the Baker’s cyst lump will get smaller or disappear when the knee is flexed to 45 degrees

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26
Q

What does a ruptured Baker’s cyst present as?

A
inflammation in the surrounding tissues and calf muscles
- pain
- erythema
- swelling 
rarely can cause compartment syndrome
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27
Q

name a critical differential diagnosis of a ruptured Baker’s cyst?

A

DVT

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28
Q

Name key differential diagnoses of a lump in the popliteal fossa

A
  • DVT
  • Abscess
  • Popliteal artery aneurysm
  • Ganglion cyst
  • Lipoma
  • Varicose veins
  • Tumour
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29
Q

1st line Inx for a Baker’s cyst

A

US confirms dx and rules out DVT

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30
Q

2nd line inx for a Baker’s cyst

A

MRI can evaluate cyst further if required before surgery.

And demonstrate any underlying knee pathology e.g. meniscal tears

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31
Q

Management for asymptomatic Baker’s cysts

A

none

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32
Q

Management for symptomatic Baker’s cysts

A
  • modified activity to avoid exacerbating sx
  • NSAIDs
  • Physiotherapy
  • US-guided aspiration
  • Steroid injections

Surgical: arthroscopic procedures to treat underlying knee pathology

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33
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

Pressure within a fascial compartment is abnormally elevated, cutting off the blood flow of the contents of that compartment

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34
Q

what do fascial compartments involve?

A
  • muscles
  • nerve
  • blood vessels
    surrounds by fascia
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35
Q

what is fascia?

A

a sheet of strong, fibrous connective tissue that encases the contents of the compartment

Not able to stretch or expand

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36
Q

what is required in acute compartment syndrome?

A

Ortho emergency:

Fasciotomy

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37
Q

what does a fasciotomy do?

A

relieve pressure within the compartment and restore blood flow by cutting through the fascia down the entire length of the compartment

compartment is explored to identify and debride any necrotic muscle tissue

wound is left open and covered with a dressing

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38
Q

what happens if acute compartment syndrome isn’t treated?

A

tissue necrosis and permanent damage

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39
Q

what is acute compartment syndrome usually associated with?

A

Acute injury where bleeding or oedema associated with the injury increases the pressure within the compartment

  • bone fractures
  • crush injuries
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40
Q

presentation of acute compartment syndrome

A

5 P’s

  • Pain - disproportionate to the underlying injury, worsened by passive stretching of the muscle
  • Paraesthesia
  • Pale
  • Pressure (high)
  • Paralysis (a late worrying feature)
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41
Q

what is the difference between acute limb ischaemia and acute compartment syndrome

A

in acute compartment syndrome, the pulses may remain intact depending on which compartment is affected

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42
Q

how to diagnose acute compartment syndrome

A

primary a clinical diagnosis

needle manometry can be used to measure the compartment pressure. Manometer measures the resistance to injecting saline through a needle into the compartment

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43
Q

what is the initial mnx of acute compartment syndrome?

A
  • escalate to ortho reg/consultant
  • remove any external bandages
  • elevate the leg to heart level
  • maintaining good blood pressure (avoiding hypotension)
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44
Q

what is the definitive mnx for acute compartment syndrome?

A

emergency fasciotomy

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45
Q

Compartment syndrome

what happens after the fasciotomy

A

Pts require repeated trips every few days to theatre to explore the compartment for necrotic tissue which needs to be debrided

wound can take several weeks to close. May need skin graft

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46
Q

what is chronic compartment syndrome

A

aka chronic exertional compartment syndrome

exertion –> pressure within compartment rises –> blood flow to compartment is restricted –> symptoms

rest –> pressure falls –> symptoms resolve

not an emergency

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47
Q

Sx in chronic compartment syndrome

A

pain, numbness or paresthesia in affected compartment

made worse by increasing activity and resolve quickly with rest

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48
Q

how to confirm diagnosis of chronic compartment syndrome

A

needle manometry - measures pressure in compartment before, during and after exertion

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49
Q

treatment for chronic compartment syndrome

A

fasciotomy

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50
Q

Pathophysiology of Osgood-Schlatter Disease

A

caused by inflammation at the tibial tuberosity where the patella ligament inserts

multiple minor avulsion fractures occur where the patella ligament pulls away tiny pieces of the bone

leads to growth of the tibial tuberosity, causing a visible lump below the knee

initially this lump is tender due to inflammation. As the bone heals and inflammation settles, the lump becomes hard and non-tender

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51
Q

epidemiology of Osgood-Schlatter Disease

A

typically occurs in patients aged 10-15yrs

more common in males

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52
Q

presentation of Osgood-Schlatter Disease

A

gradual onset of symptoms:

  • visible or palpable hard and tender lump at the tibial tuberosity
  • pain in the anterior aspect of the knee
  • pain is exacerbated by physical activity, kneeling and on extension of the knee
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53
Q

management of Osgood-Schlatter Disease

A

initially:

  • reduce physical activity
  • ice
  • NSAIDs

once sx settle:

  • stretching
  • physio
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54
Q

prognosis of Osgood-Schlatter Disease

A
  • sx will fully resolve over time

- left with a hard bony lump on knee

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55
Q

rare complication of Osgood-Schlatter Disease

A

a complete avulsion fracture: the tibial tuberosity is separated from the rest of the tibia. Requires surgical intervention

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56
Q

what is an Achilles Tendon Rupture?

A

a sudden onset injury resulting in rupture of the Achilles tendon and a loss of the connection between the calf muscles (gastrocnemius + soleus) to the heel (calcaneus bone)

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57
Q

what are the RFs for an Achilles Tendon Rupture

A
  • sports that stress the Achilles e.g basketball, tennis, track
  • increasing age
  • existing Achilles tendinopathy
  • family history
  • Fluoroquinolone abx e.g. ciprofloxacin + levofloxacin)
  • Systemic steroids
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58
Q

what is fluoroquinolone abx such as ciprofloxacin + levofloxacin associated with?

A

Achilles tendinopathy + rupture

rupture can occur spontaneously within 48 hrs of starting trx

stop trx if it occurs

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59
Q

presentation of an Achilles Tendon Rupture

A
  • sudden onset of pain in the Achilles or calf
  • a snapping sound and sensation
  • feeling as though something has hit them in the back of the leg
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60
Q

signs on examination of an Achilles Tendon Rupture

A
  • when relaxed in a dangled position, the affected ankle will rest in a more dorsiflexed position
  • tenderness to the area
  • a palpable gap in the Achilles tendon (swelling may hide this)
  • weakness of plantar flexion of the ankle (dorsiflexion is unaffected)
  • unable to stand on tip toes on the affected leg alone
  • +ve Simmonds’ calf squeeze test
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61
Q

what is the Simmonds’ calf squeeze test

A

the special test for Achilles tendon rupture

squeeze calf hanging off bed

+ve if lack of plantar flexion

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62
Q

immediate mnx of Achilles Tendon Rupture

A
  • reviewed by orthopaedics on same day
  • rest + immobilisation
  • Ice
  • Elevation
  • Analgesia
  • VTE prophylaxis considered while ankle is immobilised
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63
Q

non-surgical mnx of an Achilles Tendon Rupture

A
  • specialist boot to immobilise ankle
  • 1st boot: full planter flexion of ankle
  • over 6-12w boot gradually moves ankle to neutral position
  • long rehab process required to get back to full pre-injury function
  • higher risk of re-rupture compared to surgical mnx
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64
Q

surgical mnx of Achilles Tendon Rupture

A

reattaches the Achilles –> boots –> rehab

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65
Q

Where does the anterior cruciate ligament attaches to on the tibia?

A

anterior intercondylar area

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66
Q

Where does the posterior cruciate ligament attach to on the tibia?

A

posterior intercondylar area

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67
Q

function of the ACL

A

it stops the tibia from sliding forward in relation to the femur

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68
Q

function of the PCL

A

it stops the tibia sliding backwards in relation to the femur

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69
Q

How is the ACL damaged?

A

during a twisting injury to the knee

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70
Q

presentation of an anterior cruciate ligament injury

A
  • pain
  • swelling
  • ‘pop’ sound or sensation
  • instability of knee joint
  • tibia can move anteriorly below the femur
  • the knee can buckle
  • increased risk of other knee injuries
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71
Q

name 2 special tests to assess for anterior cruciate ligament damage

A
  • the anterior drawer test

- Lachman test

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72
Q

describe the anterior drawer test

A
  • patient supine
  • hip flexed to 45
  • foot flat on couch
  • Dr sits on toes
  • Dr pulls proximal tibia anteriorly, sliding it forward from the femur at the knee

with ACL damage, the tibia can move an excessive distance anteriorly + no clear end-point to the movement

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73
Q

what’s the difference between the anterior drawer test and Lachman test

A

Lachman: knee is flexed at around 20-30 degrees

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74
Q

inx for ACL injury

A

1st line + diagnostic: MRI

gold standard to diagnose a cruciate ligament tear: Arthroscopy

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75
Q

symptoms suggestive of an acute ACL tear

A
  • a ‘pop’
  • rapid onset swelling
  • instability or giving way
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76
Q

Mnx of ACL injury

A
  • RICE
  • NSAIDs
  • crutches + knee braces: help protect knee while mobilising
  • physio
  • arthroscopic surgery
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77
Q

ACL injury

what happens in arthroscopic surgery

A

a new ligament is formed using a graft tendon from:

  • hamstring tendon
  • quadriceps tendon
  • bone-patellar tendon-bone
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78
Q

What is DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis?

A

swelling + inflammation of the tendon sheaths in the wrist

a type of repetitive strain injury

results in pain on the radial side of the wrist

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79
Q

what tendons are affected in DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis

A
  • Abductor pollicis longus (APL)

- Extensor pollicis brevis (EPB)

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80
Q

name a cause of bilateral DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis

A

‘mummy thumb’ in new parents repetitively lifting newborn babies in a way that stresses the tendons of the thumb

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81
Q

what does the abductor pollicus longus do?

A

abduct the thumb and wrist

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82
Q

where does the abductor pollicus longus insert into

A

the base of the 1st metacarpal bone (at the base of the thumb)

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83
Q

what does the extensor pollicis brevis do?

A

also abducts the thumb and wrist

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84
Q

where does the extensor pollicis brevis insert into?

A

the base of the proximal phalanx of the thumb

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85
Q

what do tendon sheaths do?

A

surround tendons.

formed by connective tissue (synovial membrane) that covers the tendons + filled with synovial fluid

they help lubricate + protect the movement of tendons within them

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86
Q

what is the extensor retinaculum?

A

a fibrous band that wraps across the back (dorsal) side of the wrist

the APL + EPB pass underneath it

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87
Q

what is the pathophysiology of DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis

A

repetitive movement of the APL + EPB under the extensor retinaculum result in inflammation + swelling of the tendon sheaths

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88
Q

presentation of DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis

A

symptoms at radial aspect of wrist near base of thumb:

  • pain, often radiating to forearm
  • aching
  • burning
  • weakness
  • numbness
  • tenderness
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89
Q

what is the special test for DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis

A

Finkelstein’s test (or maybe called Eichhoff’s test)

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90
Q

What is Finkelstein’s test?

A

pt makes fist with thumb inside fingers

adduct wrist

if this causes pain at the radial aspect of the wrist, the test is +ve —> De Quervain’s tenosynovitis

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91
Q

mnx of De Quervain’s tenosynovitis

A
  • rest + adapting activities
  • splints to restrict movements
  • NSAIDs
  • physio
  • steroid injections
  • Rare: surgery to release the extensor retinaculum to release pressure + create more space for tendons
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92
Q

FROZEN SHOULDER

Pathophysiology

A

aka adhesive capsulitis

inflammation + fibrosis in the joint capsule lead to adhesions

adhesions bind the capsule + cause it to tighten around the joint, restricting movement in the joint

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93
Q

what is primary adhesive capsulitis

A

(frozen shoulder)

occurring spontaneously without any trigger

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94
Q

what is secondary adhesive capsulitis

A

(frozen shoulder)

occurring in response to trauma, surgery or immobilisation

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95
Q

what is a key risk factor of frozen shoulder?

A

diabetes

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96
Q

describe the typical course of symptoms of frozen shoulder in 3 phases

A

Painful phase: shoulder pain is often the 1st symptom + may be worse at night

Stiff phase: shoulder stiffness develops + affects both active and passive movement (external rotation is the most affected). The pain settles during this phase

Thawing phase: gradual improvement in stiffness + a return to normal

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97
Q

how long does frozen shoulder last for?

A

1-3 years

but up to 50% have persistent symptoms

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98
Q

name 3 differential diagnoses in a patient presenting with shoulder pain not preceded by trauma or an acute injury

A
  1. Supraspinatus tendinopathy
  2. Acromioclavicular joint arthritis
  3. Glenohumeral joint arthritis
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99
Q

name 3 rare but important differentials of shoulder pain not preceded by trauma

A
  • septic arthritis
  • inflammatory arthritis
  • malignancy e.g. osteosarccoma or bony metastasis)
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100
Q

name 3 differentials for shoulder pain

A
  1. shoulder dislocation
  2. fractures e.g. proximal humerus, clavicle or rarely the scapula)
  3. rotator cuff tear
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101
Q

what is supraspinatus tendinopathy?

A

inflammation + irritation of the supraspinatus tendon

particularly due to impingement at the point where it passes between the humeral head + the acromion

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102
Q

what test can be used to assess for supraspinatus tendinopathy?

A

the empty can test aka Jobe test

+ve if pain or arm gives way

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103
Q

Acromioclavicular joint arthritis signs on examination (3)

A
  1. tenderness to palpation of the AC joint
  2. Pain is worse at the extremes of the shoulder abduction, from around 170 degrees onwards when the arm is overhead
  3. +ve scarf test: pain caused by wrapping arm across chest + opposite shoulder
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104
Q

diagnosing adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)

A

clinical, no imaging usually required

X-rays are normal but helpful in diagnosing osteoarthritis as a differential

US, CT or MRI can show a thickened joint capsule

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105
Q

non surgical mnx for adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)

A
  • continue using arm but don’t exacerbate pain
  • NSAIDs
  • physio
  • intra-articular steroid injections
  • hydrodilation (injecting fluid into the joint to stretch the capsule)
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106
Q

surgical mnx for adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)

A
  • manipulation under anaesthesia: forcefully stretching the capsule to improve the range of motion
  • arthroscopy: keyhole surgery on the shoulder to cut the adhesions + release the shoulder
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107
Q

Dupuytren’s Contracture

Pathophysiology?

A

the palmar fascia of the hands becomes thicker + tighter + develops nodules

cords of dense connective tissue can extend into the fingers, pulling the fingers into flexion + restricting their ability to extend (contracture)

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108
Q

Dupuytren’s Contracture

why does the palmar fascia become thicker and tighter

A

unclear but thought to be an inflammatory process in response to microtrauma

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109
Q

Dupuytren’s Contracture

Risk factors?

A
  • age
  • FH (autosomal dominant)
  • male
  • manual labour, esp vibrating tools
  • diabetes
  • epilepsy
  • smoking + alcohol
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110
Q

Dupuytren’s Contracture

Presentation?

A
  • 1st sign: hard nodules on palm
  • finger pulled into flexion
  • can’t extend finger fully
  • significantly affects function
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111
Q

Dupuytren’s Contracture

what finger is most and least likely to be affected

A

most: ring finger
least: index

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112
Q

Dupuytren’s Contracture

special test?

A

the table-top test

+ve if hand cannot rest completely flat on table

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113
Q

Dupuytren’s Contracture

Management?

A
  • do nothing
  • needle fasciotomy (aka needle aponeurotomy): insert needle to loosen cord causing contracture
  • limited fasciectomy: remove abnormal fascia + cord to release contracture
  • dermofasciectomy: remove abnormal fascia + cord + skin. Skin graft replaces removed skin
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114
Q

compound fracture?

A

when the skin is broken + the broken bone is exposed to the air.

the broken bone can puncture through the skin

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115
Q

stable fracture?

A

when the sections of bone remain in alignment at the fracture

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116
Q

pathological fracture?

A

when a bone breaks due to an abnormality within the bone

e.g. tumour, osteoporosis, Paget’s disease

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117
Q

terms used to describe what way a bone breaks

A
  • transverse
  • oblique
  • spiral
  • segmental
  • comminuted
  • compression fractures
  • greenstick
  • buckle (torus)
  • Salter-Harris
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118
Q

Fractures

comminuted?

A

breaking into multiple fragments

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119
Q

Fractures

compression fractures?

A

affecting the vertebrae in the spine

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120
Q

Greenstick and buckle fractures typically occur in children or adults?

A

children

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121
Q

Fractures

Salter-Harris

A

growth plate fracture

only occur in children as adults don’t have growth plates

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122
Q

Colle’s fracture

A
  • a transverse fracture of the distal radius near the wrist
  • causing the distal portion to displace posteriorly (upwards)
  • causing a ‘dinner fork deformity’
  • usually the result of a fall onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH)
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123
Q

what causes a scaphoid fracture?

A

fall onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH)

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124
Q

scaphoid fracture sign

A

tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox

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125
Q

what is a complication of a scaphoid fracture and explain

A

avascular necrosis + non-union

because the scaphoid has a retrograde blood supply with blood vessels supplying the bone from only one direction

this means a fracture can cut off the blood supply

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126
Q

name some bones with a vulnerable blood supply where a fracture can lead to avascular necrosis , impaired healing + non-union

A
  • scaphoid bone
  • femoral head
  • humeral head
  • talus, navicular + 5th metatarsal in the foot
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127
Q

what do ankle fractures involve?

A
  • lateral malleolus (distal fibula)

- medial malleolus (distal tibia)

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128
Q

what is the Weber classification?

A

used to describe fractures of the lateral malleolus (distal fibula)

the fracture is described in relation to the distal syndesmosis (fibrous joint) between the tibia and fibula

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129
Q

what is the tibiofibular syndesmosis

A

important for stability + function of the ankle joint

if a fracture disrupts it, surgery is more likely to be required

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130
Q

Weber classification

Type A

A

below the ankle joint - will leave the syndesmosis intact

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131
Q

Weber classification

Type B

A

at the level of the ankle joint - the syndesmosis will be intact or partially torn

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132
Q

Weber classification

Type C

A

above the ankle joint - the syndesmosis will be disrupted

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133
Q

Pelvic Ring fracture?

A
  • the pelvis forms a ring

- when 1 part fractures, another part will also fracture (like a polo mint)

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134
Q

complications of a pelvic ring fracture

A
  • intra-abdominal bleeding due to vascular injury or from the cancellous bone of the pelvis
  • can lead to shock + death
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135
Q

what are common sites of pathological fractures?

A

femur and the vertebral bodies

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136
Q

what cancers metastasise to bone?

A
PoRTaBLe
Po - prostate
R - renal
Ta - Thyroid 
B - breast
Le - Lung
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137
Q

Ganglion Cysts

what are they?

A

sacs of synovial fluid that originate from the tendon sheaths or joints

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138
Q

Ganglion Cysts

where do they commonly occur?

A

wrist + fingers but can occur anywhere there is a joint or tendon sheath

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139
Q

Ganglion Cysts

pathophysiology

A

when the synovial membrane of the tendon sheath or joint herniates, forming a pouch

synovial fluid flows from the tendon sheath or joint into the pouch, forming a cyst

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140
Q

Ganglion Cysts

presentation

A
  • visible and palpable lump
  • not painful
  • can appear rapidly or gradually
  • rare: compresses nerves leading to sensory or motor symptoms
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141
Q

Ganglion Cysts

examination findings

A
  • 0.5-5cm usually
  • firm + non-tender on palpation
  • well-circumscribed
  • trans illuminates
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142
Q

Ganglion Cysts

diagnosis

A
  • clinically !
  • x-rays: normal bones + joints
  • US: may help confirm dx + exclude other causes of lumps
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143
Q

Ganglion Cysts

mnx

A
  • conservatively: 40-50% resolve spontaneously but can take several years
  • needle aspiration
  • surgical excision
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144
Q

Ganglion Cysts

disadvantage of needle aspiration for mnx

A

high rate of recurrence (50% or more)

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145
Q

Ganglion Cysts

pros and cons of surgical excision for mnx

A

+ recurrence rate is low

  • infection, scarring
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146
Q

Fractures

cause of fragility fractures

A

weakness in the bone usually due to osteoporosis

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147
Q

Fractures

what is the FRAX tool

A

a patient’s risk of a fragility fracture over the next 10 years

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148
Q

Fractures

how can bone mineral density be measured?

A

with a DEXA scan

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149
Q

Fractures

T score of more than -1

A

normal

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150
Q

Fractures

T score of -1 to -2.5

A

osteopenia

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151
Q

Fractures

T score of less than -2.5

A

osteoporosis

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152
Q

Fractures

T score of less than -2.5 plus a fracture

A

severe osteoporosis

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153
Q

Fractures

1st line medical treatments for reducing the risk of fragility fractures

A
  • Calcium + Vit D

- Bisphosphonates e.g. alendronic acid

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154
Q

Fractures

how do bisphosphonates work

A

they reduce osteoclast activity, preventing the reabsorption of bone

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155
Q

Fractures

side effects of bisphosphonates

A
  • reflux and oesophageal erosions
  • atypical fractures
  • osteonecrosis of the jaw
  • osteonecrosis of the external auditory canal
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156
Q

Fractures

instruction to patients taking biphosphonates

A
  • take on an empty stomach

- sit upright for 30 min before moving or eating

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157
Q

Fractures

alternative to bisphosphonates where they are CI’d, not tolerated or not effective

A

Denosumab - a monoclonal antibody that blocks the activity of osteoclasts

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158
Q

Fractures

inx for suspected bone fracture

A

X-rays - 2 views are always required as a single view may miss a fracture

CT: more detailed view of bones when the x-rays are inconclusive or further info needed

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159
Q

Fractures

principles of fracture mnx

A
  1. achieve mechanical alignment

2. provide relative stability for some time to allow healing to occur

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160
Q

Fractures

how to achieve mechanical alignment of the fracture

A
  • closed reduction via manipulation of the limb

- open reduction via surgery

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161
Q

Fractures

how to provided relative stability in a fracture

A

fix bone in correct position while it heals:

  • external casts
  • K wires
  • Intramedullary wires
  • intramedullary nails
  • screws
  • plates + screws
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162
Q

Fractures

what are complex fractures

A

those requiring surgery e.g. hip fractures

referred to the on-call trauma + orthopaedic team

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163
Q

Fractures

possible early complications

A
  • damage to local structures
  • haemorrhage leading to shock + potentially death
  • compartment syndrome
  • fat embolism
  • VTE
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164
Q

Fractures

possible longer-term complications

A
  • delayed union (slow healing)
  • malunion (misaligned healing)
  • non-union (failure to heal)
  • avascular necrosis (death of bone)
  • infection (osteomyelitis)
  • joint instability
  • joint stiffness
  • contractures
  • arthritis
  • chronic pain
  • complex regional pain syndrome
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165
Q

Fractures

how can a fracture of a long bone cause a fat embolism

A

fat globules are released into the circulation following a fracture (possibly from the bone marrow)

these globules may become lodged in blood vessels and cause blood flow obstruction

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166
Q

Fractures

what is fat embolism syndrome

A

fat embolisation can cause a systemic inflammatory response resulting in a fat embolism syndrome

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167
Q

Fractures

what is Gurd’s MAJOR criteria for the diagnosis of a fat embolism

A
  1. resp distress
  2. petechial rash
  3. cerebral involvement
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168
Q

Fractures

name some of Gurd’s MINOR criteria

A
  • jaundice
  • thrombocytopenia
  • fever
  • tachycardia
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169
Q

Fractures

mnx of fat embolism

A

supportive

operate early to fix the fracture reduces the risk of fat embolism syndrome

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170
Q

Osteomyelitis

what is it

A

inflammation in a bone and bone marrow, usually caused by bacterial infection

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171
Q

Osteomyelitis

what is haematogenous osteomyelitis

A

when a pathogen is carried through the blood and seeded in the bone

this is the most common mode of infection

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172
Q

Osteomyelitis

causes

A
  • haematogenous osteomyelitis

- direct contamination of the bone: fracture site, ortho operation

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173
Q

Osteomyelitis

what organism causes most cases

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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174
Q

Osteomyelitis

types

A

acute or chronic

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175
Q

Osteomyelitis

RFs (6)

A
  • open fractures
  • orthopaedic operations. esp prosthetic joints
  • diabetes, esp foot ulcers
  • peripheral artery disease
  • IV drug use
  • immunosuppression
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176
Q

Osteomyelitis

what measures are taken to prevent infection in prosthetic joints

A

perioperative prophylactic abx

it’s more likely to occur in revision surgery rather than during initial joint replacement

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177
Q

Osteomyelitis

presentation (4)

A
  • fever
  • pain + tenderness
  • erythema
  • swelling
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178
Q

Osteomyelitis

potential signs on an x-ray

A

often no changes

  • Periosteal reaction
  • Localised osteopenia
  • Destruction of areas of the bone
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179
Q

Osteomyelitis

x-ray: what is periosteal reaction

A

changes to the surface of the bone

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180
Q

Osteomyelitis

x-ray: what is localised osteopenia

A

thinning of the bone

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181
Q

Osteomyelitis

what is the best imaging inx for establishing dx

A

MRI

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182
Q

Osteomyelitis

what will blood tests show

A

raised inflammatory markers (WBC, ESR, CRP)

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183
Q

Osteomyelitis

what may blood cultures show

A

may be positive for causative organism (usually staph aureus)

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184
Q

Osteomyelitis

what can be performed to establish the causative organism and the abx sensitivities

A

bone cultures

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185
Q

Osteomyelitis

mnx

A

a combination of
-surgical debridement of the infected bone + tissues

  • abx therapy
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186
Q

Osteomyelitis

abx dose and length of trx for acute osteomyelitis

A

6w of flucloxacillin

possible with rifampicin or fusidic acid added for the first 2w

187
Q

Osteomyelitis

alternative to flucloxacillin if there is a penicillin allergy

A

clindamycin

188
Q

Osteomyelitis

alternative to flucloxacillin when treating MRSA

A

vancomycin or teicoplanin

189
Q

Osteomyelitis

how long is the course of abx required for chronic osteomyelitis

A

3m or more

190
Q

Osteomyelitis

mnx of osteomyelitis associated with prosthetic joints

A

may require complete revision surgery to replace the prosthesis

191
Q

which structures are joined by the ACL

A

lateral condyle of femur and tibia

192
Q

Hip Fractures

major RFs (2)

A
  • increasing age

- osteoporosis

193
Q

Hip Fractures

what can they be categorised into?

A

Intra-capsular fractures

Extra-capsular fractures

194
Q

Hip Fractures

why is the aim to perform surgery within 48h

A

Due to the morbidity and mortality

195
Q

Hip Fractures

what is the capsule of the hip joint

A

a strong fibrous structure

196
Q

Hip Fractures

where does the capsule attach

A

to the rim of the acetabulum on the pelvis and the intertrochanteric line

197
Q

Hip Fractures

what kind of blood supply does the head of femur have

A

a retrograde blood supply

198
Q

Hip Fractures

what is the only blood supply to the femoral head

A

the medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries join the femoral neck just proximal to the intertrochanteric line

branches of this artery run along the surface of the femoral neck, within the capsule, towards the femoral head

199
Q

Hip Fractures

how can it lead to avascular necrosis

A

A fracture of the intra-capsular neck of the femur can damage these blood vessels, removing the blood supply to the femoral head

200
Q

Hip Fractures

mnx of pt with a displaced intra-capsular fracture

A

femoral head replaced with a hemiarthroplasty or total hip replacement

201
Q

Hip Fractures

what do intra-capsular fractures involve

A

a break in the femoral neck, within the capsule of the hip joint

202
Q

Hip Fractures

what area does a intra-capsular fracture affect

A

proximal to the intertrochanteric line

203
Q

Hip Fractures

what classification is used for intra-capsular neck of femur fractures

A

the Garden classification

204
Q

Hip Fractures

Intra-capsular: what does non displaced mean

A

may have an intact blood supply to the femoral head

it may be possible to preserve the femoral head without avascular necrosis occurring

205
Q

Hip Fractures

what can a non displaced intra-capsular fracture be treated with

A

internal fixation (e.g. screws)

206
Q

Hip Fractures

Intra-capsular: what does displaced mean

A

(grade III and IV) disrupt the blood supply to the head of the femur. Therefore, the head of the femur needs to be removed and replaced.

207
Q

Hip Fractures

Garden classification: Grade I

A

incomplete fracture and non-displaced

208
Q

Hip Fractures

Garden classification: Grade II

A

complete fracture and non-displaced

209
Q

Hip Fractures

Garden classification: Grade III

A

partial displacement (trabeculae are at an angle)

210
Q

Hip Fractures

Garden classification: Grade IV

A

full displacement (trabeculae are parallel)

211
Q

Hip Fractures

intra capsular: what does a hemiarthroplasty involve

A

replacing the head of the femur but leaving the acetabulum (socket) in place

Cement is used to hold the stem of the prosthesis in the shaft of the femur.

212
Q

Hip Fractures

intra capsular: hermiarthroplasties are often offered to which types of pts

A

limited mobility or significant co-morbidities.

213
Q

Hip Fractures

intra capsular: what does a total hip replacement involve

A

replacing both the head of the femur and the socket

214
Q

Hip Fractures

intra capsular: who is offered a total hip replacement

A

patients who can walk independently and are fit for surgery

215
Q

Hip Fractures

what are extra-capsular fractures

A

Extra-capsular fractures leave the blood supply to the head of the femur intact.

Therefore, the head of the femur does not need to be replaced.

216
Q

Hip Fractures

extra-capsular: where do intertrochanteric fractures occur

A

between the greater and lesser trochanter

217
Q

Hip Fractures

extra-capsular: what are intertrochanteric fractures treated with

A

dynamic hip screw (aka sliding hip screw)

218
Q

Hip Fractures

extra-capsular: what is a dynamic hip screw

A

screw goes through the neck and into the head of the femur.

A plate with a barrel that holds the screw is screwed to the outside of the femoral shaft.

The screw that goes through the femur to the head allows some controlled compression at the fracture site, whilst still holding it in the correct alignment.

Adding some controlled compression across the fracture improves healing.

219
Q

Hip Fractures

extra-capsular: where do Subtrochanteric fractures occur

A

distal to the lesser trochanter (although within 5cm)

The fracture occurs to the proximal shaft of the femur

220
Q

Hip Fractures

extra-capsular: what may a subtrochanteric fracture be treated with

A

an intramedullary nail

221
Q

Hip Fractures

extra-capsular: what is an intramedullary nail

A

a metal pole inserted through the greater trochanter into the central cavity of the shaft of the femur

222
Q

Hip Fractures

presentation

A

> 60 who has fallen with:

  • shortened, abducted and externally rotated leg
  • not able to weight bear
  • pain in groin or hip which may radiate to knee
223
Q

Hip Fractures

what may pts also be suffering from (determine cause of fall)

A
  • Anaemia
  • Electrolyte imbalances
  • Arrhythmias
  • Heart failure
  • Myocardial infarction
  • Stroke
  • Urinary or chest infection
224
Q

Hip Fractures

initial inx of choice

A

x-ray (2 views are essential)

  • AP
  • lateral
225
Q

Hip Fractures

x-ray: what is a key sign of a fractured neck of femur

A

disruption of Shenton’s line

226
Q

Hip Fractures

x-ray: what is Shenton’s line

A

AP view: one continuous curving line formed by the medial border of the femoral neck and continues to the inferior border of the superior pubic ramus.

227
Q

Hip Fractures

what is used if x-ray is negative but fracture still suspected

A

MRI or CT

228
Q

Hip Fractures

mnx on admission

A
  • anlagesia
  • x-ray
  • VTE prophylaxis
  • pre-op assessment: bloods, ECG
  • Orthogeriatrics input
229
Q

Hip Fractures

mnx: when should surgery be carried out

A

within 48hrs

230
Q

Spinal Stenosis

what is it

A

narrowing of part of the spinal canal, resulting in compression of the spinal cord or nerve roots

231
Q

Spinal Stenosis

what is the most common type

A

lumbar

232
Q

Spinal Stenosis

whom is it more likely to occur in

A

> 60 yr patients

relating to degenerative changes in the spine

233
Q

Spinal Stenosis

What are the 3 types

A
  • central stenosis
  • lateral stenosis
  • foramina stenosis
234
Q

Spinal Stenosis

what is central stenosis

A

narrowing of the central spinal canal

235
Q

Spinal Stenosis

what is lateral stenosis

A

narrowing of the nerve root canals

236
Q

Spinal Stenosis

what is foramina stenosis

A

narrowing of the intervertebral foramina

237
Q

Spinal Stenosis

causes (7)

A
  1. congenital
  2. degenerative changes: facet joint changes, disc disease, bone spurs
  3. herniated discs
  4. thickening of the ligamenta flava or posterior longitudinal ligament
  5. spinal fractures

6, spondylolisthesis

  1. tumours
238
Q

Spinal Stenosis

causes: what is Spondylolisthesis

A

anterior displacement of a vertebra out of line with the one below

239
Q

Spinal Stenosis

what the difference between this and cauda equina/sudden disc herniation

A

sx tend to be gradual in spinal stenosis

240
Q

Spinal Stenosis

what symptoms may severe compression show

A

features of cauda equina:

  • saddle anaesthesia
  • sexual dysfunction
  • incontinence of bladder + bowel
241
Q

Spinal Stenosis

what is a key presenting feature of lumbar spinal stenosis with central stenosis

A

Intermittent neurogenic claudication aka pseudoclaudication:

  • lower back pain
  • buttock and leg pain
  • leg weakness

sx absent at rest and when seated but occur with standing and walking

242
Q

Spinal Stenosis

why are sx absent at rest and when seated in Intermittent neurogenic claudication

A

Bending forward (flexing the spine) expands the spinal canal and improves symptoms.

Standing straight (extending the spine) narrows the canal and worsens the symptoms

243
Q

Spinal Stenosis

symptoms in Lateral stenosis and foramina stenosis in the lumbar spine

A

symptoms of sciatica

244
Q

Spinal Stenosis

definition of radiculopathy

A

compression of the nerve roots as they exit the spinal cord and spinal column, leading to motor and sensory symptoms.

245
Q

Spinal Stenosis

what is the difference between peripheral arterial disease and symptoms of intermittent neurogenic claudication

A

peripheral pulses or the ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) are normal –>spinal stenosis.

back pain –> spinal stenosis

246
Q

Spinal Stenosis

primary imaging inx for dx

A

MRI

247
Q

Spinal Stenosis

conservative mnx

A
  • Exercise and weight loss (if appropriate)
  • Analgesia
  • Physiotherapy
248
Q

Spinal Stenosis

mnx where conservative trx fails

A

Decompression surgery

laminectomy: removal of part or all of the lamina from the affected vertebra

249
Q

causative organism for gas gangrene

A

Clostridia perfringens

250
Q

shoulder dislocation

what is it

A

head of humerus comes entirely out of glenoid cavity of the scapula

251
Q

shoulder dislocation

what is subluxation

A

partial dislocation of the shoulder

the ball does not come fully out of socket and naturally pops back into place shortly afterwards

252
Q

shoulder dislocation

what is an anterior dislocations

A

the head of the humerus moves anteriorly in relation to the glenoid cavity

can occur when the arm is forced backwards whilst abducted and extended at the shoulder

253
Q

shoulder dislocation

what are posterior dislocations associated with

A

electric shocks and seizures

254
Q

shoulder dislocation

what is the labrum

A

a rim of cartilage that creates a deeper socket for the head of the humerus to fit into

255
Q

shoulder dislocation

associated damage: what are Bankart lesions

A

tears to the anterior portion of the labrum

occur with repeated anterior subluxations or dislocations of the shoulder

256
Q

shoulder dislocation

associated damage: what are Hill-Sachs lesions

A

compression fractures of the posterolateral part of the head of the humerus

257
Q

shoulder dislocation

associated damage: which nerve roots does the axillary nerve come from

A

C5 and C6

258
Q

shoulder dislocation

associated damage: what can axillary nerve damage cause

A

loss of sensation in the ‘regimental badge’ area over the lateral deltoid

motor weakness in the deltoid and teres minor muscles

259
Q

shoulder dislocation

presentation

A
  • muscle will go into spasm and tighten around the joint
  • deltoid appears flattened
  • bulge at front of shoulder (head of humerus)
260
Q

shoulder dislocation

what test is used to assess for shoulder instability

A

apprehension test

261
Q

shoulder dislocation

what happens in the apprehension test

A
  • patient lies supine
  • shoulder abducted to 90 degrees. elbow flexed to 90 degrees
  • slowly externally rotate shoulder
  • pt becomes anxious and apprehensive
262
Q

shoulder dislocation

inx

A
  • xray excludes fracture
  • MRI assesses shoulder for damage
  • Arthroscopy
263
Q

shoulder dislocation

acute mnx

A
  • analgesia
  • gas + air
  • broad arm sling for support
  • closed reduction of shoulder (after excluding fractures)
  • post-reduction x-ray
  • immobilisation for a period after relocation of the shoulder
264
Q

shoulder dislocation

ongoing mnx

A
  • physio to reduce risk of further dislocations

- shoulder stabilisation surgery

265
Q

Meralgia Paraesthetica

what is it

A

localised sensory symptoms of the outer thigh caused by compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

a mononeuropathy

266
Q

Meralgia Paraesthetica

where does the lateral cutaneous nerve originate from

A
  • varying combinations of L1, L2 and L3 nerve roots
  • behind psoas muscle
  • around surface of iliacus muscle
  • under the inguinal ligament onto the thigh
  • just medial and inferior to the ASIS
267
Q

Meralgia Paraesthetica

why are there no motor sx

A

the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve only carries sensory signals to the upper-outer thigh

268
Q

Meralgia Paraesthetica

presentation

A

dysaesthesia (abnormal sensations) and anaesthesia to the upper-outer thigh

burning, numbing, pins + needles, cold

may have hair loss

269
Q

Meralgia Paraesthetica

when are sx worse

A

walking or standing for a long duration

extension of hip

270
Q

Meralgia Paraesthetica

dx

A

clinically

271
Q

Meralgia Paraesthetica

conservative mnx

A
  • Rest
  • Looser clothing (tight clothes such as belts may add pressure to the nerve)
  • Weight loss
  • Physiotherapy
272
Q

Meralgia Paraesthetica

medical mnx

A
  • Paracetamol
  • NSAIDs
  • Neuropathic analgesia (e.g., amitriptyline, gabapentin, pregabalin or duloxetine)
  • Local injections of steroids or local anaesthetics
273
Q

Meralgia Paraesthetica

surgical mnx

A

Decompression – removing pressure on the nerve

Transection – cutting the nerve

Resection – removing the nerve

274
Q

Plantar Fasciitis

what does the plantar fascia connect

A

thick connective tissue which attaches to the calcaneus at the heel

travels along the sole of the foot and branches out to connect to the flexor tendons of the toes.

275
Q

Plantar Fasciitis

presentation

A
  • gradual onset of pain on the plantar aspect of the heel
  • worse with pressure (walking, standing)
  • tenderness to palpation of area
276
Q

Plantar Fasciitis

mnx

A
  • rest
  • ice
  • analgesia
  • physio
  • steroid injections
  • extracorporeal shockwave therapy
  • surgery
277
Q

Plantar Fasciitis

what could steroid injections potentially cause

A
  • rupture of the plantar fascia

- fat pad atrophy

278
Q

Fat Pad Atrophy

what can cause it

A

age or inflammation from repetitive impacts, such as jumping activities, running, walking, and obesity,steroid injections

279
Q

Fat Pad Atrophy

sx

A

pain and tenderness over the plantar aspect of the heel

worse with activities, particularly when barefoot on hard surfaces.

280
Q

Fat Pad Atrophy

how can thickness of the fat pad be measured

A

with an USS

281
Q

Fat Pad Atrophy

mnx

A
  • comfortable shoes
  • custom insoles
  • adapting activities (e.g. avoid high heels)
  • weight loss
282
Q

Morton’s Neuroma

what is it

A

dysfunction of a nerve in the intermetatarsal space (between the toes) towards the top of the foot

283
Q

Morton’s Neuroma

where is the abnormal nerve usually located

A

between the third and fourth metatarsal

284
Q

Morton’s Neuroma

cause

A

irritation of the nerve relating to the biomechanics of the foot.

High-heels or narrow shoes may exacerbate it.

285
Q

Morton’s Neuroma

sx

A
  • Pain at the front of the foot at the location of the lesion
  • sensation of a lump in the shoe
  • Burning, numbness or “pins and needles” felt in the distal toes
286
Q

Morton’s Neuroma

3 ways to test for it

A
  • deep pressure
  • metatarsal squeeze test
  • Mulder’s sign
287
Q

Morton’s Neuroma

what happens when you apply deep pressure to the affected intermetatarsal space on the dorsal foot

A

causes pain

288
Q

Morton’s Neuroma

what is a positive metatarsal squeeze test

A

pain

289
Q

Morton’s Neuroma

what is Mulder’s sign

A

painful click is felt when using two hands on either side of the foot to manipulate the metatarsal heads to rub the neuroma

290
Q

Morton’s Neuroma

how to confirm dx

A

US or MRI

291
Q

Morton’s Neuroma

mnx options

A
  • Adapting activities (e.g., avoiding high heels)
  • Analgesia (NSAIDs if suitable)
  • Insoles
  • Weight loss if appropriate
  • Steroid injections
  • Radiofrequency ablation
  • Surgery (e.g., excision of the neuroma)
292
Q

Bunions (Hallux Valgus)

what is it

A

a bony lump created by a deformity at the metatarsophalangeal joint (MTP) at the base of the big toe.

The first metatarsal becomes angled medially,

the big toe (hallux) become angled laterally (towards the other toes),

the MTP joint becomes inflamed and enlarged.

293
Q

Bunions (Hallux Valgus)

what can be used to asses the extent of the deformity

A

Weight-bearing x-rays

294
Q

Bunions (Hallux Valgus)

conservative mnx

A

wide, comfortable shoes

analgesia.

bunion pads

295
Q

Bunions (Hallux Valgus)

definitive trx

A

surgery: realign the bones and correct the deformity

296
Q

Rotator Cuff Tears

name the 4 rotator cuff muscles

A
  1. supraspinatus
  2. infraspinatus
  3. teres minor
  4. subscapularis
297
Q

Rotator Cuff Tears

what action does the supraspinatus do

A

abducts the arm

298
Q

Rotator Cuff Tears

what action does the infraspinatus do

A

externally rotates the arm

299
Q

Rotator Cuff Tears

what action does the teres minor do

A

externally rotates the arm

300
Q

Rotator Cuff Tears

what action does the subscapularis do

A

internally rotates the arm

301
Q

Rotator Cuff Tears

presentation

A
  • Shoulder pain

- Weakness and pain with specific movements relating to the site of the tear (e.g., abduction with a supraspinatus tear)

302
Q

Rotator Cuff Tears

diagnostic inx

A

US or MRI scans

303
Q

Rotator Cuff Tears

non surgical mnx

A
  • Rest and adapted activities
  • Analgesia (e.g., NSAIDs)
  • Physiotherapy
304
Q

Rotator Cuff Tears

surgical mnx

A

arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, where the tendon is reattached to the bone during an arthroscopy

305
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

cause

A

compression of the medial nerve as it travels through the carpel tunnel

due to swelling of the contents or narrowing of the tunnel

306
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

what is the fibrous band that wraps across the front (palmar side) of the wrist

A

flexor retinaculum

aka

transverse carpal ligament

307
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

where is the carpal tunnel situated

A

Between the carpal bones and the flexor retinaculum

308
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

what travels through the carpel tunnel

A

The median nerve and the flexor tendons of the forearm

309
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

which branch of the median nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the palmar aspects and full fingertips of the thumb, index and middle finger
and the lateral half of ring finger

A

palmar digital cutaneous branch

310
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

which parts of the hand are innervated by the palmar digital cutaneous branch

A

palmar aspects and full fingertips of the:

  • Thumb
  • Index and middle finger
  • The lateral half of ring finger
311
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

which branch of the median nerve is responsible for sensory innervation to the palm

A

palmar cutaneous branch

312
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

why is the palmar cutaneous branch (+ therefore palm) not affected by carpal tunnel syndrome

A

this branch originates before the carpal tunnel and does not travel through the carpal tunnel.

313
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

what muscles does the median nerve supply

A
  • abductor pollicus brevis
  • opponens pollicis
  • flexor pollicis brevis
314
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

which movement is Abductor pollicis brevis responsible for

A

thumb abduction

315
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

which movement is Opponens pollicis responsible for

A

thumb opposition – reaching across the palm to touch the tips of the fingers

316
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

which movement is Flexor pollicis brevis responsible for

A

thumb flexion

317
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

key risk factors (7)

A

ROAR PHD

  • repetitive strain
  • obesity
  • acromegaly
  • RA
  • perimenopause
  • hypothyroidism
  • diabetes
318
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

possible causes of bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome

A
  • RA
  • diabetes
  • acromegaly
  • hypothyroidism
319
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

presentation of onset

A
  • gradual
  • intermittent
  • often worse at night
320
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

sensory sx and where

A

numbness, paraesthesia, burning pain

palmar aspects and full fingertips of the:

  • Thumb
  • Index and middle finger
  • lateral half of ring finger
321
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

how may they try and relieve sensory sx

A

shaking their hand

322
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

motor sx

A

affect the thenar muscles, with:

  • Weakness of thumb movements
  • Weakness of grip strength
  • Difficulty with fine movements involving the thumb
  • Wasting of the thenar muscles (muscle atrophy)
323
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

what are the 2 special test for carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Phalen’s test

Tinnel’s test

324
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

what can be used to predict the likelihood of a diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome

A

The Kamath and Stothard carpal tunnel questionnaire (CTQ)

325
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

what is the primary inx for establishing the diagnosis

A

nerve conduction studies

326
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

non surgical mnx

A
  • Rest and altered activities
  • Wrist splints that maintain a neutral position of the wrist can be worn at night (for a minimum of 4 weeks)
  • Steroid injections
327
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

surgical mnx

A
  • day case under local
  • endoscopic or open
  • The flexor retinaculum (AKA transverse carpal ligament) is cut to release the pressure on the median nerve.
328
Q

Sarcoma

what is it

A

cancer originating in the muscles, bones or other types of connective tissue

329
Q

Sarcoma

name some bone sarcomas

A
  • osteosarcoma
  • Chondrosarcoma
  • Ewing sarcoma
330
Q

Sarcoma

what is the most common form of bone cancer

A

osteosarcoma

331
Q

Sarcoma

key features that should raise suspicion

A

A soft tissue lump, particularly if growing, painful or large
Bone swelling
Persistent bone pain

332
Q

Sarcoma

what is the initial inx for bony lumps or persistent pain

A

x-ray

333
Q

Sarcoma

what is the initial inx for soft tissue lumps

A

US

334
Q

Sarcoma

what may be used to visualise the lesion in more detail and look for metastatic spread

A

CT or MRI scans

esp CT thorax, as sarcoma most often spreads to the lungs

335
Q

Sarcoma

what inx is required to look at the histology of cancer

A

biopsy

336
Q

Sarcoma

staging

A

TNM or number system

337
Q

Sarcoma

where is the most common location for sarcoma to metastasise to

A

lungs

338
Q

Sarcoma

who guides trx

A

sarcoma multidisciplinary team (MDT)

specialist sarcoma centres

339
Q

Sarcoma

mnx

A

Surgery (surgical resection is the preferred treatment)
Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Palliative care

340
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what is another term for lower back pain

A

lumbago

341
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what does non-specific or mechanical lower back pain refer to

A

patients who do not have a specific disease causing their lower back pain

342
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what does sciatica refer to

A

symptoms associated with irritation of the sciatic nerve

343
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

causes of mechanical back pain

A
  • Muscle or ligament sprain
  • Facet joint dysfunction
  • Sacroiliac joint dysfunction
  • Herniated disc
  • Spondylolisthesis (anterior displacement of a vertebra out of line with the one below)
  • Scoliosis (curved spine)
  • Degenerative changes (arthritis) affecting the discs and facet joints
344
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

causes of neck pain

A
  • muscle or ligament strain
  • torticollis
  • whiplash
  • cervical spondylosis
345
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what is torticollis

A

waking up with a unilaterally stiff and painful neck due to muscle spasm

346
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

red flag causes of back pain

A
  • spinal fracture
  • cauda equina
  • spinal stenosis
  • ankylosing spondylitis
  • spinal infection
347
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

abdo or thoracic conditions that can cause back pain

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Ruptured aortic aneurysms
  • Kidney stones
  • Pyelonephritis
  • Pancreatitis
  • Prostatitis
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Endometriosis
348
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what forms the sciatic nerves

A

The spinal nerves L4 – S3 come together to form the sciatic nerve.

349
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

where does the sciatic nerve exit the pelvis

A

through the greater sciatic foramen, in the buttock area on either side

350
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what does the sciatic nerve divide into and where

A

tibial nerve and the common peroneal nerve

at the knee

351
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

where does the sciatic nerve supply sensation to

A

lateral lower leg and the foot

352
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

where does the sciatic nerve supply motor function to

A

the posterior thigh, lower leg and foot

353
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

sx of sciatica

A
  • unilateral pain from the buttock radiating down the back of the thigh to below the knee or feet
    ‘electric’ or ‘shooting’ pain
  • paraesthesia (pins + needles)
  • numbness
  • motor weakness
  • reflexes may be affected
354
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what are the main causes of sciatica

A

lumbosacral nerve root compression by:

  • herniated disc
  • spondylolisthesis
  • spinal stenosis
355
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what is bilateral sciatica a red flag for

A

cauda equina syndrome

356
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what test can be used to help diagnose sciatica

A

The sciatic stretch test

357
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what is involved in the sciatic stretch test

A
  • pt lies on their back with their leg straight.
  • examiner lifts one leg from the ankle with knee extended until limit of hip flexion is reached
  • examiner dorsiflexes ankle.
358
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what result in the sciatic stretch test indicates sciatic nerve root irritation

A

Sciatica-type pain in the buttock/posterior thigh

sx improve with flexing the knee

359
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

inx for suspected cauda equina

A

emergency MRI scan

360
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

inx for suspected ankylosing spondylitis

A
  • CRP and ESR
  • bamboo spin on x-ray
  • MRI may show bone marrow oedema in early disease
361
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what is used to stratify the risk of a patient presenting with acute back pain developing chronic back pain

A

STarT Back Screening Tool

362
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what can pts at low risk for chronic back pain be managed with

A
  • Self-management
  • Education
  • Reassurance
  • Analgesia
  • Staying active and continuing to mobilise as tolerated
363
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

additional mnx options for pts at medium or high risk of developing chronic back pain

A
  • physio
  • group exercise
  • CBT
364
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

NICE advice on analgesia

A

1st line: NSAIDs

codeine as alternative

365
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what med can be used for muscle spasm

A

benzodiazepine (diazepam) for up to 5d

366
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what meds should you specifically not used for lower back pain

A

opioids, antidepressants, amitriptyline, gabapentin or pregabalin

367
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

mnx for pts with chronic lower back pain originating in the facet joints

A

radiofrequency denervation

  • target and damage the medial branch nerves that supply sensation to the facet joints
  • under local
368
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

initial mnx of sciatica

A

same as acute lower back pain

369
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what meds should you not use in sciatica

A

gabapentin, pregabalin, diazepam or oral corticosteroids or opioids

370
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

what neuropathic meds would you consider if sx are persisting in sciatica

A
  • amitriptyline

- duloxetine

371
Q

Back Pain and Sciatica

specialist mnx options for chronic sciatica

A
  • Epidural corticosteroid injections
  • Local anaesthetic injections
  • Radiofrequency denervation
  • Spinal decompression
372
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

what is it

A

a surgical emergency where the nerve roots of the cauda equina at the bottom of the spine are compressed

373
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

at what level does the spinal cord termiante

A

around L2/L3

374
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

what does the spinal cord taper down to

A

conus medullaris

375
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

what is the cauda equina

A

‘horse’s tail’ - a collection of nerve roots that travel through the spinal canal after the spinal cord terminates

376
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

what do the nerves of the cauda equina supply (sensation)

A

Sensation to the perineum, bladder and rectum

377
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

what do the nerves of the cauda equina supply (motor)

A

Motor innervation to the lower limbs and the anal and urethral sphincters

378
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

what do the nerves of the cauda equina supply (parasympathetic)

A

Parasympathetic innervation of the bladder and rectum

379
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

what is it

A

the nerves of the cauda equina are compressed

380
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

possible causes of compression

A
  • Herniated disc (most common)
  • Tumours, particularly metastasis
  • Spondylolisthesis (anterior displacement of a vertebra out of line with the one below)
  • Abscess (infection)
  • Trauma
381
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

key red flags

A
  • saddle anaesthesia
  • loss of sensation in the bladder + rectum
  • urinary retention or incontinence
  • faecal incontinence
  • bilateral sciatica
  • bilateral or severe motor weakness in the legs
  • reduced anal tone on PR exam
382
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

how to ask about saddle anaesthesia when taking a hx

A

“does it feel normal when you wipe after opening your bowels?”

383
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

mnx

A

neurosurgical emergency:

  • immediate hospital admission
  • emergency MRI scan
  • consider lumbar decompression surgery
384
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

what is metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC)

A

When a metastatic lesion compresses the spinal cord (before the end of the spinal cord and the start of the cauda equina)

385
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

how does MSCC present

A

similarly to cauda equina, with back pain and motor and sensory signs and symptoms

386
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

how to differentiate between MSCC and cauda equina on presentation

A

MSCC:

  • back pain worse on coughing or straining
  • UMN signs may be seen
387
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome

mnx of MSCC

A

oncological emergency

  • rapid imaging
  • high dose dexamethasone (to reduce swelling in tumour + relieve compression
  • analgesia
  • surgery
  • radio + chemo
388
Q

Meniscal Tears

what kind of joint is the knee

A

hinge joint

389
Q

Meniscal Tears

function of the menisci

A
  • help the femur and tibia fit together and move smoothly across each other
  • shock absorber
  • distribute weight throughout the joint
  • help stabilise the joint
390
Q

Meniscal Tears

what are the 4 ligaments of the knee

A
  • Anterior cruciate ligament
  • Posterior cruciate ligament
  • Lateral collateral ligament
  • Medial collateral ligament
391
Q

Meniscal Tears

what movement of the knee does it oftenoccur in

A

twisting movements

392
Q

Meniscal Tears

symptoms

A
  • pop sound
  • pain (may be referred to hip or lower back)
  • swelling
  • stiffness
  • restricted RoM
  • locking of the knee
  • instability or giving way
393
Q

Meniscal Tears

examination findings

A
  • Localised tenderness on the joint line
  • Swelling
  • Restricted range of motion
394
Q

Meniscal Tears

what are the traditional 2 key special tests for meniscal tears (but generally not used or recommended in clinical practice as they can cause pain and may worsen the meniscal injury)

A

McMurray’s test and Apley grind test

395
Q

Meniscal Tears

what can be used to determine whether a patient requires an x-ray of the knee after an acute knee injury to look for a fracture

A

The Ottawa knee rules

396
Q

Meniscal Tears

what are The Ottawa knee rules

A

a pt requires a knee x-ray if any are present:

  • Age 55 or above
  • Patella tenderness (with no tenderness elsewhere)
  • Fibular head tenderness
  • Cannot flex the knee to 90 degrees
  • Cannot weight bear (cannot take 4 steps – limping steps still count)
397
Q

Meniscal Tears

1st line imaging inx for establishing dx

A

MRI scan

398
Q

Meniscal Tears

gold standard inx for diagnosing

A

arthroscopy

399
Q

Meniscal Tears

mnx

A
  • RICE
  • NSAIDs
  • physio
  • arthroscopic surgery (repair or resection)
400
Q

Olecranon Bursitis

what is it

A

inflammation and swelling of the bursa over the elbow

401
Q

Olecranon Bursitis

what is the olecranon

A

the bony lump at the elbow, which is part of the ulna bone

402
Q

Olecranon Bursitis

aka

A

“student’s elbow”, as students may lean on their elbow for prolonged periods while studying, resulting in friction and mild trauma leading to bursitis.

403
Q

Olecranon Bursitis

presentation

A

a young/middle-aged man with an elbow that is:

Swollen
Warm
Tender
Fluctuant (fluid-filled)

404
Q

Olecranon Bursitis

features that suggest the bursitis is caused by infection

A
  • Hot to touch
  • More tender
  • Erythema spreading to the surrounding skin
  • Fever
  • Features of sepsis (e.g., tachycardia, hypotension and confusion)
405
Q

Olecranon Bursitis

when to consider septic arthritis

A
  • Swelling in the joint (rather than the bursa)

- Painful and reduced range of motion in the elbow

406
Q

Olecranon Bursitis

inx if suspected infection

A

aspiration

407
Q

Olecranon Bursitis

appearance of aspiration if suspected infection

A

pus

Straw-coloured fluid indicates infection is less likely

408
Q

Olecranon Bursitis

if aspiration is blood stained what may this indicate

A

trauma, infection or inflammatory causes

409
Q

Olecranon Bursitis

if aspiration is milky what may this indicate

A

gout or pseudogout

410
Q

Olecranon Bursitis

what do you do with the aspiration

A

send to lab for MC&S:

  • examine if crystals
  • gram staining
411
Q

Olecranon Bursitis

mnx

A
  • Rice, ice, compress
  • paracetamol/NSAIDs
  • protect elbow from pressure or trauma
  • aspiration to relieve pressure
  • steroid injections
412
Q

Olecranon Bursitis

mnx if infection suspected

A
  • aspiration for MC&S

- 1st line: flucloxacillin (clarithromycin if allergic)

413
Q

Achilles Tendinopathy

what is it

A

damage, swelling, inflammation and reduced function in the Achilles tendon.

414
Q

Achilles Tendinopathy

what are the 2 types

A
  • Insertion tendinopathy (within 2cm of the insertion point on the calcaneus)
  • Mid-portion tendinopathy (2-6 cm above the insertion point)
415
Q

Achilles Tendinopathy

presentation

A

gradual onset of:

  • Pain or aching in the Achilles tendon or heel, with activity
  • Stiffness
  • Tenderness
  • Swelling
  • Nodularity on palpation of the tendon
416
Q

Achilles Tendinopathy

RFs

A
  • Sports that stress the Achilles (e.g., basketball, tennis and track athletics)
  • Inflammatory conditions (RA, ankylosing spondylitis)
  • Diabetes
  • Raised cholesterol
  • Fluoroquinolone antibiotics (e.g., ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin)
417
Q

Achilles Tendinopathy

mnx

A
  • exclude rupture
  • rest, ice
  • analgesia
  • physio
  • orthotics (insoles)
  • extracorporeal shock-wave therapy
  • surgery to remove nodules + adhesions or alter the tendon
418
Q

Achilles Tendinopathy

what mnx is avoided

A

Steroid injections into the Achilles tendon

risk of tendon rupture.

419
Q

Repetitive Strain Injury

what is it

A

an umbrella term that refers to soft tissue irritation, microtrauma and strain resulting from repetitive activities

420
Q

Repetitive Strain Injury

name a specific example

A

Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow)

421
Q

Repetitive Strain Injury

common examples of repetitive movements

A
  • factory line worker
  • computer mouse or keyboard
  • poor posture
  • texting/scrolling on smartphone
422
Q

Repetitive Strain Injury

what certain characteristics of an activity increase the risk of repetitive strain injury

A
  • Small repetitive activities (e.g., scrolling on a smartphone)
  • Vibration (e.g., using power tools)
  • Awkward positions (e.g., painting a ceiling)
423
Q

Repetitive Strain Injury

presentation

A
  • Pain, exacerbated by using the associated joints, muscles and tendons
  • Aching
  • Weakness
  • Cramping
  • Numbness
424
Q

Repetitive Strain Injury

dx

A

clinically but may need to rule out others:

  • x-ray
  • US
  • bloods
425
Q

Repetitive Strain Injury

mnx

A
  • RICE
  • adapt activity
  • discuss their duties w/ occupational health department at work
  • NSAIDs
  • physio
  • steroids injections
426
Q

Epicondylitis

what is it

A

inflammation at the point where the tendons of the forearm insert into the epicondyles at the elbow

it is a specific type of repetitive strain injury

427
Q

Epicondylitis

what epicondyles are there

A

medial and lateral epicondyles on the distal end of the humerus

428
Q

Epicondylitis

the tendons of the muscles that insert into the medial epicondyle act to ___

A

flex the wrist

429
Q

Epicondylitis

the tendons of the muscles that insert into the lateral epicondyle act to ___

A

extend the wrist

430
Q

Epicondylitis

what is lateral epicondylitis often called

A

tennis elbow

431
Q

Epicondylitis

presentation of lateral epicondylitis

A
  • pain + tenderness at the outer elbow
  • radiate down forearm
  • weakness in grip strength
432
Q

Epicondylitis

what tests indicate lateral epicondylitis

A

Mill’s test

Cozen’s test

433
Q

Epicondylitis

what is involved in Mill’s test

A

stretching the extensor muscles of the forearm while palpating the lateral epicondyle

434
Q

Epicondylitis

what is involved in Cozen’s test

A

starts with elbow extended, forearm pronated, wrist deviated in the direction of the radius and hand in a fist.

The examiner holds the patient’s elbow with pressure on the lateral epicondyle.

The examiner applies resistance to the back of the hand while the patient extends the wrist

435
Q

Epicondylitis

what indicates lateral epicondylitis on the Mill’s and Cozen’s test

A

if they cause pain, the test is positive

436
Q

Epicondylitis

what is medial epicondylitis often called

A

golfer’s elbow

437
Q

Epicondylitis

presentation of medial epicondylitis

A
  • pain + tenderness at the inner elbow
  • radiate down forearm
  • weakness in grip strength
438
Q

Epicondylitis

what does the golfer’s elbow test involve

A

stretching the flexor muscles of the forearm while palpating the medial epicondyle

439
Q

Epicondylitis

diagnosis

A

clinical

440
Q

Epicondylitis

mnx

A
  • Rest
  • Adapting activities
  • Analgesia (e.g., NSAIDs)
  • Physiotherapy
  • Orthotics, such as elbow braces or straps
  • Steroid injections
  • Platelet-rich plasma (PRP) injections
  • Extracorporeal shockwave therapy
441
Q

Epicondylitis

surgery?

A

rare but may be required to debride, release or repair damaged tendons

442
Q

what can scapular winging be caused by

A

a deficit in the serratus anterior muscle

or an injury to the long thoracic nerve (which innervates the serratus anterior muscle)

443
Q

which metacarpal is most likely to be fractured after punching a wall

A

5th metacarpal

444
Q

lady falls onto outstretched wrist. Has wrist drop, unable to extend wrist

fracture of the distal radius with volar displacement and angulation of the distal fragment

what is it

A

Smith’s/reverse Colles’ fracture

445
Q

what nerve is vulnerable to injury with fractures of the humeral shaft

A

radial nerve

446
Q

pt was sitting in the front passenger seat and his knee forcefully hit the dashboard. right leg internally rotated and slightly flexed.

what is it

A

Posterior hip dislocation

447
Q

what does the saphenous nerve supply sensation to

A

over the medial aspect of the lower leg and foot

448
Q

25yo visciously tackled in rugby. 3w later he noticed a tender, enlarging mass in the anterior aspect of his thigh. What is it

A

Myositis ossificans

449
Q

supraspinatus muscle is innervated by which nerve

A

Suprascapular nerve

450
Q

what sign on x-ray is pathognomonic for a posterior shoulder dislocation

A

lightbulb sign on AP view

451
Q

sx of the female athletic triad

A
  1. osteoporosis
  2. eating disorders
  3. amenorrhoea
452
Q

why are stress fractures more common in female athletes

A

Low oestrogen levels and poor nutrition in girls with eating disorders can lead to osteoporosis.

Osteoporosis is a RF for them to sustain stress fractures.

453
Q

X-ray: Femoral head collapse and fragmentation suggestive of osteonecrosis

what is it

A

perthe’s disease

454
Q

involvement of the distal third of the radial shaft and dislocation at the radio-ulnar joint

what fracture is this

A

Galeazzi Fracture

455
Q

what is a recognised complication of total hip replacement

A

posterior hip dislocation

456
Q

which nerve provides sensation over the posterolateral distal third of the leg and on the lateral aspect of the foot

A

sural nerve

457
Q

how does Complex regional pain syndrome present

A

absence of nerve injury, characterised by pain, abnormal blood flow, trophic changes to the skin, sensory disturbance and autonomic features.

presenting weeks to months after an initial insult and in the neighbouring area

458
Q

treatment of closed uncomplicated clavicle fracture

A

initial sling immobilisation for 2 weeks, following by range of motion exercises

459
Q

indications for a box splint

A

Any patient suffering a limb fracture which is not grossly displaced

460
Q

benefits of a box splint

A
  • immobilisation
  • limit bleeding
  • reduce risk of NV compromise
  • Reduce risk of soft tissue damage,
461
Q

puts leg in cast. things that could have been done to prevent compartment syndrome

A
  • elevate leg
  • make sure cast not too tight
  • use back slab to allow it to swell
462
Q

3 ways you can injure your shoulder when you fall

A
  1. dislocation
  2. clavicle fracture
  3. ACJ separation
463
Q

which inx is best for a cervical spine fracture

A

CT scan of the neck.