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LAT prep by TAC (laboratory animal technician) > Organizational Facts > Flashcards

Organizational Facts Flashcards

1
Q

What are the first 3 steps of the scientific process?

A

1)Define question, 2) Formulate effective framework, 3) Establish hypothesis

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2
Q

What are the last 4 steps of the scientific process?

A

4) Create research design, 5) identify variables, 6) collect/analyze data, 7) report data/conclusion

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3
Q

What organization donates the most to biomedical research?

A

NIH (National Institute of Health)

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4
Q

Grants are usually given for what time period?

A

3-5

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5
Q

NIH is a branch of what organization?

A

PHS (public health service)

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6
Q

The main public granting agencies for scientific research are what?

A

NIH and NSF (national science foundation)

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7
Q

Universities and colleges get most of their grant money from where?

A

NIH

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8
Q

NIH is the primary granting agency for biomedical research. Which organization is the primary granting agency for non-biomedical research?

A

NSF. (Think biology, behavior, math engineering, etc.

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9
Q

Granting agencies require proof of approval from whom before dispensing funds?

A

IACUC

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10
Q

Who appoints the members of the IACUC?

A

The institutional officer or IO.

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11
Q

The AWR (animal welfare regulations) are enforced by who?

A

THe USDA

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12
Q

Under the AWR, who are the members of the IACUC?

A

Chairperson, veterinarian, nonaffiliated member

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13
Q

Under PHS regulations, who are the IACUC members?

A

Chairperson, veterinarian, scientist, nonaffiliated member, community member (nonaffiliated member and community member can be same person).

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14
Q

According to the AWR, the IACUC can only approve studies w/ USDA covered species for how long? How long for non-USDA covered species?

A

1yr, 3yrs

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15
Q

How often does the IACUC review programs?

A

Every 6 months

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16
Q

PAM: Post Approval Monitoring. What does this group do?

A

Make sure IACUC approval protocols are being followed.

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17
Q

AWR & PHS require that IACUC monitor studies on what timeframe?

A

A continuous basis.

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18
Q

The 28hr law ensures what? When was it established?

A

That animals could not be transported for more that 28 hours w/o being unloaded for a 5hr break. Established 1873.

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19
Q

British Parliament passed the Cruelty to animals Act in what year? Why is this significant?

A

1876, first law limiting animal experimentation.

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20
Q

The Animal Welfare Act was passed in what year? Why is this significant?

A

1966, first law in the US regarding animal research

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21
Q

What two legal documents established the standards for research animals in the US?

A

AWA and AWR (animal welfare act and animal welfare regulations)

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22
Q

The AWA and AWR are enforced by who?

A

USDA

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23
Q

The AWA covers what animals?

A

All warm blooded animals

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24
Q

The AWA requires research animals dealers to be:

A

licensed

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25
Q

The AWA defines animals as:

A

Cat, dog, guinea pig, hamster, rabbit, non-human primate, other warm blooded vertebrates/animals.

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26
Q

What organisms are not defined as animals under the AWA?

A

Birds, rats of the genus “rattus”, mice of the genus “mus”, farm animals, horses not used for research purposes.

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27
Q

AWA requires that institutions have an IACUC with what authority?

A

oversight authority

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28
Q

What are the 4 sections of the AWR?

A

1) Definitions and terms, 2) Regulations, 3) Standards, 4) Rules of practice

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29
Q

What organization, under the USDA, is tasked with administering the AWA and AWR?

A

APHIS

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30
Q

USDA Veterinary Medical Officers (VMOs) are responsible for conducting inspections at LEAST how often?

A

annually

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31
Q

VMOs use the USDA animal care inspection guide as well as what to help the with inspections?

A

APHIS animal care policy manual

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32
Q

Non-federal research facilities must still register with the USDA under what conditions?

A

They use species covered by the USDA.

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33
Q

Facilities registered w/ the USDA must update registration how often?

A

Every 3 years

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34
Q

All facilities registered with the USDA must submit a report to them how often? Who must it be signed by?

A

annually, by the IO

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35
Q

What law establishes licensing requirements for research animal suppliers and researchers?

A

AWR

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36
Q

What are the 2 classes of dealers and what are their main differences?

A

Class A: dealers raise and sell animals themselves.

Class B: dealers purchase and resell animals.

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37
Q

Animals from what class dealer are “purpose bred”?

A

Class A

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38
Q

Animals purchased form the shelter must be held for how many days before removal and why?

A

5 days in order to give possible owners a chance to reclaim animal.

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39
Q

What are the USDA pain categories?

A

B,C,D,E

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40
Q

What is USDA pain category B?

A

Animals being bred for research but not getting used.

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41
Q

What is USDA pain category C?

A

Research conducted on animal but does not cause pain or stress.

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42
Q

What is USDA pain category D?

A

Painful experiment done, but appropriate drugs were used.

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43
Q

What is USDA pain category E?

A

Painful experiment w/ no drugs used.

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44
Q

The Animal Welfare Assurance is regulated by who? Which is a branch of what organization?

A

OLAW, a branch of PHS

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45
Q

The Animal Welfare Assurance is signed by who?

A

Institutional Officer (IO)

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46
Q

Which group requires IACUC review protocols every 6 months?

A

PHS

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47
Q

The Guide requires what programs have IACUC reviews?

A

All animal programs receiving federal funding.

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48
Q

What regulating body ensures compliance w/ PHS policy?

A

OLAW

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49
Q

How frequent are OLAW inspections?

A

A handful of research institutions are inspected annually, some are also inspected for cause.

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50
Q

Who can restrict approval of AWA?

A

OLAW

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51
Q

Who enforces the AWA & AWR?

A

USDA and APHIS

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52
Q

What are defined as animals in PHS policy?

A

All vertebrates. (does not specify “warm-blooded, like AWA policy. For example: fish are vertebrates but not warm blooded).

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53
Q

PHS inspections are for:

A

for cause

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54
Q

Registration for PHS is through:

A

AWA

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55
Q

Who enforces PHS policy?

A

OLAW

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56
Q

PHS policy defines animal facilities as what?

A

Any place that stores animals for 24hrs. +

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57
Q

AWR defines animal facilities as what?

A

Any place that stores animals for 12hrs+

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58
Q

PHS and AWR require IACUC inspections how often?

A

every 6 months

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59
Q

The Guide suggests inspections be done how frequently?

A

“At least”annually.

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60
Q

What are the 3 R’s?

A

Reduction, Refinement, Replacement

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61
Q

____is used in the Guide to describe essential or imperative tasks.

A

“Must”

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62
Q

____is used in the Guide for strong reccomendation.

A

“Should”

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63
Q

“The Guide is not a regulation, but has regulatory authority through who? (2)

A

PHS & AAALAC

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64
Q

Primary management & oversight falls to who?

A

The IO

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65
Q

USDA, OLAW &AAALAC require facilities to follow what regulations for euthanasia?

A

AVMA’s Guideline for euthanasia of animals.

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66
Q

CITES prevents the endangerment or extinction of species due to international trade. What do the letters stand for?

A

Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora.

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67
Q

CITES appendices lists species that are protected. What does each appendix stand for? (3)

A

Appendix I: endangered, Appendix II: likely to become endangered, Appendix III: prevent exploitation

68
Q

How is CITES enforced?

A

Through US Fish and Wildlife

69
Q

BMBL was created by what agencies? (2)

A

CDC & NIH

70
Q

There are 4 Categories of risk when working w/ infectious agents. How are they labeled?

A

BSL1 -4

71
Q

Animal Biosafety Levels (ABL) are similar to BSL levels, ranging from 1-4 w/ 4 being the highest. True or false?

A

True

72
Q

The FDA and EPA (environmental protection agency) mandate the GLP, which stands for what?

A

Good Laboratory Practices

73
Q

The FDA & EPA may conduct unannounced inspections for what reason?

A

For cause

74
Q

For GLP studies, a Quality Insurance Unit (QAU) must be assigned. Who can participate as part of the QAU?

A

Can be a department employee or contractor. but CANNOT participate in the study or be a director.

75
Q

Archived GLP data is kept how long after the study?

A

5 years after the study or marketing permit was not approved.

76
Q

If discontinued or no permit was given to the study, how long is GLP study data archived?

A

2 yrs

77
Q

What does the acronym AAALAC stand for?

A

Association for Assessment & Accreditation of Laboratory Animal Care International

78
Q

In Europe, AAALAC standards are set by what agency?

A

European Convention for the Protection of Vertebrate Animals Used for Experimental & Other Scientific Purposes.

79
Q

How often are AAALAC site visits?

A

Every 3 years

80
Q

IACUC submits reports to this person, who sends the reports to OLAW & USDA.

A

IO

81
Q

Inventory list of controlled substances must be updated how often?

A

Every 2 years.

82
Q

What are examples of Direct Costs?

A

animals, maintenance of animals, salaries, cost of food, fringe benefits, facility operational expenses.

83
Q

Example of Indirect Costs.

A

Cost of facility operation and maintenance, security, administrative salaries, depreciation.

84
Q

What are Fixed Costs?

A

Are set throughout the budget period. (rent, utilities, preventative maintenance)

85
Q

Variable costs are what?

A

Based upon demand. Ex: expendable supplies & labor costs, for husbandry and technical staff.

86
Q

Cost Centers are what?

A

Have expenses but do not provide revenue. Ex: husbandry, cage washing, animal services.

87
Q

Simple Corridor floor plan

A

Has no separation of clean & dirty traffic. Animal rooms have one entrance. Most common and economical design.

88
Q

Airlocks are what?

A

Doors that cannot be opened simultaneously. Minimizes air pressure changes.

89
Q

What floor plan has a designated clean and dirty corridor, where traffic is one way and animal rooms have 2 doors?

A

Two corridor floor plan

90
Q

What floor plan has a single “control” clean corridor, w/ outer dirty corridors, w/ animal rooms on either side? (most expensive design).

A

Three corridor floor plan

91
Q

What is a mixed floor plan?

A

a combination of one-way & two way floor plans.

92
Q

Is air pressure positive or negative in bioexclusion rooms? Air pressure is regulated to avoid contamination . Used w/ specific pathogen free rooms (spf).

A

positive

93
Q

Temperature and humidity should be measured how often?

A

Daily

94
Q

What are the standard temperature and humidity of animal rooms?

A

Standard temp: 21.1C-24.5C (70F-76F)

Standard humid: 20-70% for mammals

95
Q

What has been known to cause ringtail in rice and rats?

A

Low humidity

96
Q

What measures humidity?

A

hygrometer

97
Q

How many air changes should there be in an animal room on average?

A

10-15 air changes

98
Q

What hand held device measures airflow?

A

Anemometer

99
Q

What unit is airflow measured in? (on anemometer)

A

Cubic ft per minute (CFM)

100
Q

If there is a CFM of 750 in a 20ft X 15ft X 15ft room, how many air changes are there per hour?

A

750CFM X 60 min/hr = 45,000 CFH (cubic ft per hr)
20ft X 15ft X 15ft = 4,500
45,000/4,500 = 10 air changes

101
Q

Surgical suites, barrier rooms and animal rooms have what type of air pressure and why?

A

Positive (+), bc air rushes out of these rooms when the door is open, preventing contaminants from entering.

102
Q

Animal quarintine rooms tend to have what type of air pressure and why?

A

Negative (-) , because the animal may be contaminated and negative air pressure causes air to rush into the room so that contaminants cannot leave.

103
Q

Lux measurements are what? How far off the ground are they taken?

A

Measurement of light intensity, 1 meter.

104
Q

Sudden noises above this level should be avoided.

A

> 80 decibels

105
Q

True or False: THE AWA specifically mandates written plans outlining exercise for dogs and psychological enrichment for non-human primates.

A

True

106
Q

Agents used for cleaning are regulated by who?

A

The EPA

107
Q

Sanitizers do what?

A

reduce microbes from inanimate objects

108
Q

Disinfectants do what?

A

Destroy/irreversibly inactivate fungi/bacteria. NOT spores.

109
Q

Sterilizers/sporocides do what?

A

Kill ALL microbes, including spores and viruses.

110
Q

Antiseptics and Germicides do what?

A

Inhibit microbial growth on ppl or animals.

111
Q

Who regulates cleaning agents?

A

FDA

112
Q

What 3 things must be considered before using a cleaning agent?

A

Distribution, penetration, and contact time.

113
Q

Disenfectants are also regulated by the EPA under who?

A

FIFRA: The Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act

114
Q

What component of water is important when making compunds?

A

Hardness level

115
Q

How do you know a disinfectant can kill tuberculosis?

A

It is labeled tuberculocidal

116
Q

Can disinfectants kill viruses?

A

Some can kill enveloped viruses, see labels for insight.

117
Q

Alcohols are considered what type of cleaner?

A

Antiseptic

118
Q

Why are alcohols not recommended as a disenfectant?

A

Evaporates quickly, fire hazard, can cause harm to individual.

119
Q

Household bleach is a type of what kind of cleaner?

A

hypochlorite, strong oxidizer, can corrode metal.

120
Q

How can hypochlorite and chlorine solutions be used?

A

1:50 mixture, though 1:10 mixtures are recommended to ensure decontamination.

121
Q

What should Hypochlorites/chlorines not be mixed with and why?

A

Amonias and acids. Such mixtures can cause a toxic gas.

122
Q

Why might someone use a hypochlorite or chlorine?

A

used for blood and organic material, but is compromised by it.

123
Q

Iodophors contain what common substance?

A

Iodine

124
Q

Iodophors are a strong____.

A

Oxidizer

125
Q

Why would one use an Iodophor?

A

Fairly non-toxic, used in hand soaps. (can be compromised by organic material.

126
Q

What is a phenolic?

A

A phenol based compound used to disinfect surfaces.

127
Q

When are phenolics affective?

A

In the presence of proteins, some may be tuberculocidal at high concentrations.

128
Q

When is phenolics not affective?

A

With wood, rubber plastic, less effective w/ cations (+_ for example Quaternary Ammonium compounds.

129
Q

What are some phenolic safety issues?

A

Odor, toxic, burns. Especially hazardous to cats and amphibians.

130
Q

Quaternary Ammonium compounds are what?

A

Catonic (+), stable, noncorrosive, non-irritating and mostly non-toxic. Can be tuberculocidal.

131
Q

When is Quaternary ammonium not effective?

A

With soap, plastic, protein and hard water.

132
Q

What is sterilization?

A

Killing everything, including spores.

133
Q

What is the compound that has been used the longest for room decontamination and why?

A

Formaldehyde gas. Inexpensive and can be used w/ hotplate. Does leave some residue in room.

134
Q

What are some downsides to using Formaldehyde gas?

A

Combustible, should not be mixed w/ other agents, degrades in light and air, carcinogen.

135
Q

What is the humidity needed and contact time for formaldehyde gas to work?

A

70% humidity and 12 hrs contact time.

136
Q

What is used after the initial gassing to neutralize formaldehyde residue?

A

Ammonium gas

137
Q

What are pros to using Vaporized Hydrogen Peroxcide (VHP) as a room sterilizer?

A

Non-carcinogenic and leaves no residue. By products are hydrogen and oxygen, contact time is 6-8hrs.

138
Q

What are cons to using VHP?

A

Oxidizer, corrosive, expensive

139
Q

How is VHP used to sterilize room?

A

A 30-35% solution is put through”flash evaporation”.

140
Q

There are 2 types of VHP room steriliztion, what are they?

A

Dry (vapor) and wet (condensation).

141
Q

What are pros to using chlorine dioxide gas for room sterilization?

A

No residues or carcinogens, 3-4 hour sterilization time, gas at room temperature.

142
Q

What are cons to using chlorine dioxide gas for room sterilization?

A

toxic when inhaled, liquid form is corrosive to metals.

143
Q

What are the 2 sterilization forms of chlorine dioxide?

A

dry (gas) and wet (fogging)

144
Q

Peracetic acid is used as a room sterilant, what are its other uses?

A

flushing endoscopes and irrigation connectors.

145
Q

What are cons to using peracetic acid?

A

severe irritant to skin, eyes, and respiratory tract, flammable.

146
Q

Pros to using parecetic acid?

A

30 min sterilization cycle.

147
Q

Aldehydes (glutaraldehyde and orthophtalaldahydes or OPA) disinfectants that can do what at a high enough temperature and a long enough contact time?

A

Kill spores

148
Q

Aldehydes are related to what commonly used room sterilant?

A

formaldehyde

149
Q

Ethylene oxide or EtO is:

A

flammable, effective against bacterial spores.

150
Q

Plasma Hydrogen Peroxide is:

A

ionized gas produced by electric field.

151
Q

Plasma Hydrogen Peroxide pros:

A

no toxic residues and kill rate is higher than VHP.

152
Q

Plasma Hydrogen Peroxide cons:

A

Not feasible for room strilization.

153
Q

What are the settings for autoclaving materials?

A

15min 121 degrees C (250F), or 5min 132.2C (270)F.

Either with 15 PSI (pound per square inch) pressure.

154
Q

Pros to Dry heat Sterilization:

A

Economical, does not dull instruments, works well on powders.

155
Q

Cons to Dry Heat Sterilization:

A

Does not kill spores.

156
Q

dry heat sterilization is for __hrs at __C.

A

1-hr @ 160C

157
Q

What are the two types of radiation that can be used for sterilization?

A

Ionizing (gamma or beta rays) or non-ionizing (UV)

158
Q

How does radiation sterilize items?

A

It disrupts the structure of cell walls, membranes and genetic material.

159
Q

Do items that have been radiated become radioactive?

A

No they do not become radioactive/irradiated

160
Q

What are RODAC plates?

A

Replicate Organism Detection & Counting. Has sterile growth media for multiple samples.

161
Q

How is Bioluminescence used to detect microbes?

A

Uses ATP detection for the presence of microbes . Gives immediate results, while other methods take up to 4hrs.

162
Q

Primary Barriers are what:

A

PPE, biological safety cabinets (bsc), microisolation type mouse cage.

163
Q

BSC Class I

A

open-faced, safe for most, HEPA filter for exhaust

164
Q

BSC Class II

A

Class I + HEPA filter for incoming air.

165
Q

BSC Class III

A

Gas-tight spacing w/ non-opening view. Has either a dunk tank or double-door entrance w/ items decontaminated btwn doors (autoclave). HEPA filter for in-and-out, exhaust may be incinerated.

166
Q

What are secondary barriers?

A

Are design features of the building.

LAT prep by TAC (laboratory animal technician) (6 decks)

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