Latg Motherload Part 2 Flashcards
(342 cards)
1
Q
The 3 steps of goal setting are:
A
1) identify goal, 2) decide strategy, 3) allocate resources to attain goal
2
Q
Civil right act is also called:
A
Affirmation act
3
Q
Acts to be familiar with:
A
Equal opportunity act, civil rights act, age discrimination act, American disabilities act
4
Q
Organization sends this to CRO. Describes facility and and work expected by contractor.
A
Request for proposal (RFP)
5
Q
Includes labor rate (salary/benefits), fee, overhead (hiring/training/recruiting)
A
Cost proposal
6
Q
The heirarchy of human needs is also called:
A
Abraham Maslows Heirarchy
7
Q
First 4 of Hiararchy of human needs:
A
Physiological needs, safety needs, belonging and social needs, esteem needs.
8
Q
Last 4 of heirarchy of needs:
A
Need to know and understand, auesthetic needs, self-actualization, transcendence
9
Q
Fair salary, benefits, equipment, safe workplace.
A
Physiological needs
10
Q
Company policies and equipment, supportive manager.
A
Safety needs
11
Q
Belonging to peers, supervisors, etc. group programs can help.
A
Belonging and social needs
12
Q
Recognition, promotion, status symbols.
A
Esteem needs
13
Q
Personal goals and fulfillment.
A
Self actualization
14
Q
Gaining satisfaction from developing others and company goals.
A
Transcendence
15
Q
Mirror principle
A
People generally react toward you the way you act toward them.
16
Q
3 ‘is its’ of managing time effectively
A
Is it necessary, is it appropriate, is it efficient.
17
Q
ADDIE is used for
A
How to develop a training program.
18
Q
A in ADDIE is for:
A
Analyze: what are training needs?
19
Q
D (1) is for:
A
Design: what are learning objectives.
20
Q
D (2) is for:
A
Develop: create the training
21
Q
I in ADDIE is for:
A
Implement: deliver the training
22
Q
E in ADDIE is for:
A
Evaluate: does the training meet the needs of the audience?
23
Q
Part of ADDIE are the 3 learning styles:
A
Auditory, visual and kinesthetic
24
Q
Andragogy is:
A
Adult learning, and focuses on the importance / relevance of information to the job.
25
If someone is intrinsically motivated:
They are motivated by the learning experience.
26
If someone is extrinsically motivated:
They are motivated outwardly by reaching goal.
27
SMART is part of design and develop in ADDIE. The four steps are:
Specific, measurable, attainable, relevant and time-bound.
28
ROE stands for:
Return on expectations. There are 4 levels.
29
LMS stands for:
Learning management system. Refering to learning-teaching programs/systems.
30
The 1st step in project management:
Limitation: scope of project determined. Cost/benefit. Needs for goals. Review current operations. Budget.
31
Step 2 of project management:
Planning: flow chart? Plan/map. Time, cost, resources.
32
Step 3 of project management:
Execution: implement plan, allocate resources/personnel/materials/funds
33
4th step of project management:
Monitoring and controlling: note any errors or weaknesses and correct.
34
5th/last step of project management:
Closing: project accepted. Past implementation review.
35
LEED stands for:
Leadership and environmental design certification program. (Living roofs). Awarded by US Green building council.
36
The Federal Government operates on what fiscal year schedule?
Oct.1st to Sep. 30th
37
Research likely to stir controversy:
Substance abuse, pain, surgical procedures, psychological/behavioral, high bio containment, genetically engineered animals, infant animals, USDA- covered species (cats, dogs, primates), stem cells (especially human derived.
38
All USDA _____ _____ and PHS _____ __ _____ are available to the public through the Freedom of Information act (FOIA) and E-FOIA.
Inspection reports, letters of insurance.
39
Organizations that support positive research media:
National Association of Biomedical Research (NABR), Americans for Medical Progress (Amp), AAALAS Foundation
40
5 steps of disaster planning:
Prevent, prepare, respond, recover, mitigate.
41
Primate plans must include what 5 things?
Social grouping, environmental enrichment, special considerations, exemptions, restraint devices (including limits on time)
42
PHS policy ( us Public Health Service policy on Humane Care and Use of Laboratory Animals) applies to who?
All research and educational activities done by PHS agency, including NIH and CDC.
43
Who enforces PHS?
OLAW
44
OLAW is under what organization?
NIH
45
This organization arose from the Health Research Extension Act
PHS
46
The Health Research Extension Act mandates______
IACUC and veterinary standards for facilities under NIH Funding.
47
IACUC. And veterinary standards are reflected in___
PHS
48
4 PHS guidlines:
1) Guide for the care and use of laboratory animals, 2) is goverment principles for the utilization and care of vertebrate animals, 3) animal welfare regulations, 4) AVMA Guidelines for the euthanasia of animals
49
If an institution is under both USDA & OLAW, OLAW expects reconciliation of both policies. This means following what 2 sets of standards?
AWA (minimum standards) and PHS (raises bar, especially in mice, rats, and birds).
50
This policy requires occupational Health and Safety standards for employees working with animals.
PHS
51
The Animal Welfare Insurance is covered by who?
OLAW
52
The Animal Welfare Assurance contains what?
Describes essential animal care and use component, complies with PHS policy, must be approved by OLAW, valid for 5 yrs before new assurance submitted to OLAW.
53
The semi-annual program review is required by __ and conducted by __.
OLAW, IACUC
54
The ___ through ___ maintains a website to request FOIA records.
USDA, APHIS
55
These two entities require IACUC physically give annual review of animal facilities. (Separate from PHS semi annual review).
AWA & PHS
56
These two entities can hold unannounced inspections to ensure AWA compliance.
USDA & DEA
57
USDA APHIS personnel are called
Veterinary medical officers
58
VMO’s make an unannounced visit at least* once a year. T or F
True
59
AAALAC International is:
Accrediting organization, accreditation is every 3 years,
60
Most common issues seen by AAALAC:
Occupational health and safety, IACUC, HVAC
61
The Federal Controlled Substance Act is enforced by:
DEA
62
The Federal Controlled Substance Act controls:
Addictive drugs
63
Drugs are arranged from 1-5 with 1 being the ____ addictive.
Most
64
When acquired a drug, the DEA requires that you record what? (5)
Name of substance, form and quantity per container, # of containers required, date controlled substance reacquired, name and address where each substance acquired.
65
When dispensing a drug, what does the DEA require? (4)
Name of individual who dispensed, date, volume/quantity, name/ initials of dispenser
66
During biannual inventory, what does the DEA require?
Name of substance, form and quantity per container, number of opened and unopened containers.
67
What are the 2 ways to get rid of drug waste?
A reverse distributor can be contacted to arrange disposal of drugs. Complete DEA form 41 and give to special agent in area.
68
A resource for DEA rules and regulations:
DEA’s practitioners manual.
69
Organization for Economic Co-Operation and Development (OECD) is:
International body of GLP regulations. GLPs codified in their principles of good laboratory practice and compliance monitoring.
70
The Hazard Communication Standard (Hcs) is also known as :
Right to know
71
The HCS covers what?
Chemical labeling, trade secrets, SDS, written implementation program, hazard determination, employee training.
72
What organization controls the movement of nuclear materials?
The Nuclear Regulatory Commission
73
What are agreement states?
US states that agree to regulate radioactive material according to Atomic Energy Act.
74
Low level radioactive waste has been exposed to what type of radiation?
Neutron radiation.
75
What are the 4 types of medical waste?
Infectious, hazardous, radioactive, general.
76
The EPA, hs regulations regarding what? (fuego)
Emissions from medical incinerators and has requirements under FIFRA for medical waste treatment with chemicals.
77
What does FIFRA stand for?
Federal insecticide, fungicide, and rodenticide act.
78
The ___ ___ must report study suspension to USDA.
Institutional official
79
___ will report AWA violations to USDA.
OLAW
80
___ requires _____ to report noncompliance, devisions from Guide, suspensions by IACUC.
OLAW, IO/IACUC
81
This is a citation by the USDA.
A non-compliance item
82
A ____ NCI (non compliance item) is cited during an inspection.
Direct
83
A good health surveillance program includes:
Proper chemical source/vender, quarintine & testing procedures, meticulous husbandry, designated traffic patterns, clinical disease investigation, colony surveillance, contaminate containment, microbial barrier maintenance, record keeping, testing of biologicals.
84
Pathogen free differ from germ free organism by:
Pathogen free animals are specifically bred to be rid of one pathogen, germ free have no microbes other than necessary for life.
85
Surveillance programs date how far back from the animals actual health?
4-8wks to 3mos
86
Common health outbreaks:
Pasteurella pneumotropica, rat and mouse parvo, helicobacter
87
Pinworm detection should include a tape test to detect what species of pinworm?
Syphacia spp.
88
Mice have to be tested post mortem for:
Aspicularis spo.
89
How long does it take animals to build immune response?
10-14 days
90
If animals test positive 2-3 weeks after arrival, they are considered to have contracted the disease when?
At the facility/ shipped with container.
91
Samples taken during this time period are considered to have developed the disease after arrival.
4-6 wks of being in facility
92
Antibody tests can only be used on these animals, whose immune systems can fight disease.
Immunocompetent. Animals who are not immunocompetant or are very young don’t have the antibodies to fight disease/ show up on test.
93
PCR tests check what?
DNA sequences.
94
RT-PCR checks what?
RNA sequences
95
PCR test should be for active infections only bc:
Test can be false + for DNA still present after illness is faught off.
96
PCR is used for multiple virus detection, but is test of choice for:
Helicobacter spp. (Bacteria)
97
Other than helicobater spp. The choice tests for bacteria detection are:
Bacterial culture on artificial media
98
Bacteria that agar tests are used for:
Pasterella pneumotropica, citrobacter rodentium, pseudomonuos aeruginosa.
99
PRIA stands for:
PCR rodent infectious agent
100
New process that can detect low numbers of nucleic acid from viruses, bacteria and other pathogens. Does NOT depend on seroconversion or antibodies. Noninvasive, can swab anywhere on animal.
PRIA
101
Why are seroconversions tedious?
Can take 2 weeks. Quarantine necessary.
102
_______ testing allows distinction btwn active infection and low level environmental contamination.
PRIA
103
Sentinels must be:
8-12 wks old minimum. Free of agents currently on study.
104
Sentinel animals may be monitored for the following opportunistic agents:
Staphylococcus aureus, pseudonomous aeruginosa, pneumocytosis carini
105
Sentinel animals shouldn’t be tested before this age bc immune system needs to develop.
3-6wks
106
Why should young animals be used as sentinels?
Old animals develop non- specific antibodies that interfere w/ ELISA on MFI assays.
107
Quality assurance training is:
Ongoing verification of systems
108
When on H2O containers, RO means:
Reverse osmosis.
109
RODAC plates are:
Replicate organism detection and counting. Special agar plates for detecting microbes.
110
Atp test swabs can be used:
To test for microbes.
111
Luminometer can be used to test light response of microbes. It is more rapid but,
Less specific.
112
To check autoclave is functional, paper strips/vials of spores of Bacillus stearothermophllus are placed in steam permeable envelope. Why?
This bacteria is nonpathogenic, thermophiloc, gram + bacteria.
113
These types of outlets are recommended for areas where electrical outlets may come in contact with water. Outlets turn off when current does not flow as expected.
Grand Fault Circuit Interrupter Outlet (GFCI)
114
GFCCI outlets are required in what facilities?
Facilities with aquatic species
115
The Gaus line designates what?
The safe area from the magnetic field surrounding the MRI
116
Beyond the 5 Gauss line, …
Magnetic materials are prohibited
117
This term refers to the amount of exposure one can receive w/o adverse effects.
Threshold limit value (TLV)
118
Threshold limit value doesn’t account for:
Culmutive exposure.
119
2 ways to monitor anesthetic gas exposure:
Portable analyzer, personal monitoring system (badge)
120
OSHA has brought these 2 things into alignment.
Hazard Communication Standard, Globally Harmonized Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS)
121
The United Nations created:
GHS
122
The Inspection Procedures for the Hazard Communication Standard was created by. The ____ ____ and establishes policies/ procedures to uniformly enforce HCS.
OSHA directive
123
This causes radioisotopes or radionuclides.
Ionizing radiation
124
Ionizing radiation can be caused by:
X-rays, PET, scanners, fluoroscopes, biological tracers
125
Atoms of the same elements w/ different mass #’s are ____.
Isotopes (ex: 14^C is a carbon isotope)
126
14^C and 11^C are radioactive bc they are:
Unstable
127
Isotopes undergo decay to become:
Stable
128
Decay= _____ _____=free radicals +/- ____________
Ionizing radiation, break down of DNA
129
This can cause cancer, immunosuppression, GI injury
Ionizing radiation/ break down of DNA
130
What are the 3 types of radiation?
Alpha, Beta, gamma (x-rays?)
131
These particles are emitted from radioisotopes like americium -241 and used in smoke detectors.
Alpha particles
132
alpha particles and helium have the same nucleus (2 protons and 2 neutrons). They differ in the amount of _____.
electrons
133
These particles can cause ionizing damage to tissue. Cannot penetrate skin. Cytotoxic. If ingested or penetrates wound, most damage would be in local area. For this reason, UM-223 used for inter-tumor administration.
alpha particles
134
These particles are subatomic, with either 1e- or 1e+. Thousands of times smaller than alpha particles. higher speed and energy than alpha. (ex. neg. charged: Tritium (3H), Carbon -14 (14C), phosphorus-32 (32P), sulfer-35 (35S). ) (ex: carbon-11, nitrogen 13, oxygen 15, fluorine 18.)
B-particles
135
These particles are moderately penetrating.
B particles
136
B-particles also produce a secondary form of radiation called ___ or "breaking radiation". A type of _______ produced as particles decelerate through matter.
Bremsstrahlung, x-ray
137
This is a type of plastic that can protect the body from B-particles.
Lucite
138
Gamma radiation and x-rays are ____ radiation. Ex: visible light, radio waves, and ultraviolet light. Gamma radiation is higher energy than examples.
electromagnetic
139
This type of radiation is caused by radioactive decay.
gamma
140
This type of radiation can pass through the body.
gamma
141
Iodine 125 gives off:
gamma rays
142
These rays are often produced during alpha and Beta particle emission.
gamma rays
143
These are often used to protect against gamma radiation and x-rays.
lead shields
144
Most radioisotopes undergo a ___ decay, with the resulting atom being _____.
single, stable
145
It takes ___ half lives for a radioisotope to decay to less than ___ of original radioactivity.
10.5, 1%
146
Most medical imaging has how long of a half life?
minutes-2-3 months
147
3 ways to protect yourself from radiation.
time, distance, shielding
148
ALARA
as long as reasonably achievable
149
LAA
Laboratory animal allergy
150
Facilities should provide vaccinations for what 3 diseases?
tetanus, rabies, hepatitis B
151
This type of DNA is created in a lab and has guidelines by the NIH.
Recombinant DNA
152
Pathogenicity:
ability to cause disease.
153
Virulence:
degree of damage caused by microbe in host.
154
Ability to spread among individuals is:
communicability
155
BMBL
Biosafety in microbiological and biomedical laboratories
156
Primary containment/barriers do what?
prevents exposures
157
Secondary containment barriers do what?
They are facility designs and operations to prevent hazardous agents from escaping.
158
Rooms used for: Viable microorganisms not known for causing disease. Ex: Bacillus subtillis. Basic PPE should be worn. Wash hands.
ABSL 1
159
Rooms used for: infectious agents that can cause disease in humans. Are agents that may be exposed to the community. Vaccinations against reagents recommended. More restricted access, train personnel on how to work with infected organisms. Ex: Salmonella, taxoplasma, measles virus, HIV, rabies, hepatitis B. Face shields should be worn, splash shields, gowns. Procedures done in biosafety cabinets.
ASBL2
160
Rooms used for: infectious agents that can cause serious/potentially fatal disease when inhaled. ex: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, St. louis encephalitis virus, Coxiella burnetti, Francisella tularensis, West Nile. Special emergency design/features. Train personnel in handeling pathogenic and potentially lethal agents. Personnel supervised by scientists w/ experience working with these agents.Primary and secondary barrier have emphasis to protect against aerosols. Use biossafety cabinets or enclosed equiptment. Controlled access to lab, ventillation controls.
ASBL 3
161
Rooms used for: High risk of life-threatening disease or aerosol transmission, or enhanced risk of transmission. EX: ebola hemmorragic fever, central european encephalitis virus, small pox, Merburg hemmorragic fever, lasso fever. Isolation from aerolized infection material through Class III BSL orfull body air supplied positive-pressure personnel suit.
ABSL 4
162
This area has specialized ventilation and waste management. Advanced training is necessary. Is usually located in a separate building.
BSL 4
163
Large or loose-house animals w/ high consequence pathogens (decided by USDA). Agents used here are veterinary risks if spread to agricultural animals outside of study. Most likely do NOT cause disease in humans. May cause infection so PPE still important. EX. of zoonotic diseases: foot and mouth disease virus (FMDV), Swine vesicular disease (SVDV). Facility btwn BSL 3- BSL-4
BSL-3 Agriculture
164
Filter toxic vapers and gasses, allergins. Needed in BSL 3&4. Meet OSHA specifications. American National Standards Institute.
Respirators
165
Negative pressure respirators:
draws in air by force
166
Positive pressure respirators:
intake of air by motor
167
Particulate air respirators can be designated N, R or P. these letters mean:
N: not resistant to oil, R: resistant to oil, P: oil proof.
| Animal facilitites can use N type.
168
What are the 3 levels of efficacy of respirators?
95%, 99%, 99.97%
169
"Only" this type of glove is allergenic to some ppl.
Latex
170
These contain HEPA filters (high efficacy particulate air). Filters must be able to remove 99.97% of particles 0.3 microns in diameter. HEPA filters do not remove gases from air.
BSC: biological safety cabinets
171
These remove bacteria, spores and viruses in BSCs.
HEPA filters
172
Are generally preferred for volitle compounds and gasses. Work under negative pressure.
Fume hoods
173
Safety for personnel and environment, but not product. (ex: animal/culture). Good for aerosols and bed dumping. HEPA filter for air leaving unit.
Class I BSC
174
Types A1, A2, B1 and B2 give protection for personnel, environment and product. have 2nd HEPA filter for over workspace. A1 -> B2 offer an amount of re-circulated air.
Class II BSC
175
Class II A1-> B2 BSC have what percent of recycled air?
A1 and A2 70%, B1 30%, B2 none.
176
Class I &II BSCs can be used with what BSLs?
BSL 1-3
177
Class II BSC can be used with BSL 4 microorganisms if:
personnel wear positive pressure protective suit.
178
Class III BSC is ____ _____. BSL 4 microrganisms. There is a ____ _____ to prevent direct contact with contents.
gas-tight, glove box
179
BSCs windows should be lowered to:
20cm
180
Burners should not be used in these cabinets.
Class II
181
These should not be confused with BSCs
Laminar flow station
182
This type of waste should not be autoclaved because contaminated steam can escape.
Radioactive Isotopes and heat resistant
183
This is the category for when multiple types of waste properties are present.
Mixed waste
184
First aide color blue is for:
antiseptic
185
First aide color red is for:
burn
186
First aide color yellow is for:
dressings/bandages
187
First aide color green is for:
special ( eye /ammonia)
188
This molecule is an energy source. Cellulose in plants is an example of this. It contains C, H, O. Monosaccharides are the simplest form.
Carbohydrates
189
Disaccharides have 2 sugars and _______ have 3-10.
oligosaccharides
190
Hundreds of sugars linked together are called:
polysaccharides
191
Complex carbs and starches are:
polysaccharides
192
Examples of monosaccharides are:
glucose, fructose, galactose, ribose, (glucose=dextrose)
193
____is the primary source of energy and is converted to ___ (a polysaccharide) storage.
glucose, glycogen
194
____ is the sugar in RNA and _____ is the sugar in DNA.
ribose, deoxyribose
195
examples of disaccharides:
maltose, sucrose, lactose
196
These are parts of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
oligosaccharides
197
Carb + protein
glycoprotein
198
These help with cell to cell communication and self-recognition of the immune system.
glycoprotein
199
Blood types are known by ___ portion of glycoproteins on cells and ___ portion of serum glycoproteins.
Carb, carb
200
This polysaccharide is a major starch component.
Amylose
201
Lipids are soluble in what?
Some organic solvents
202
Steroids are:
lipids
203
Lipids are chains of:
hydrocarbons
204
Fatty acids are:
Organic compounds composed of hydrocarbons.
205
Carbons are bound to other carbons in a chain. All carbons are attached to 2 hydrogens, except at the ends of the chain. One bound to 3 Hydrogens, one bound to hydroxyl group.
Saturated fatty acid
206
one carbon, 3 hydrogens. found on the ends of saturated fatty acids.
Methyl group
207
an oxygen and hydrogen together. Far end of saturated fatty acid.
hydroxyl group
208
1 carbon, 2 oxygens and 1 hydrogen. (includes hydroxyl group). End of saturated fatty acid.
Carboxyl group
209
Fatty acids with double bounds throughout the chain. There can be 3 double bonds in one of these acid molecules.
unsaturated fatty acids.
210
2 types of unsaturated fatty acids.
Monounsaturated and polyunsaturated
211
These are essential fatty acids that must be in diet.
linoleic and linolenic acids
212
Skin and coat problems are often associated with deficiencies or problems with what?
Fatty acids
213
Measured in serum, these animal fats are composed of 3 fatty acids plus glycerol. This type of fat is carried in blood.
Triglycerides
214
Is a type of steroid measured in serum.
Cholesterol
215
These types of molecules are insoluble in blood.
Cholesterol and triglycerides
216
This is the term for a plasma sample that is cloudy b/c of high lipoprotein content after a meal.
lipemia
217
These type of cells have a nucleus, the storage site for genetic info. DNA, macromolecule that contains it .DNA condensed into chromosomes.
Eukaryotic cells
218
Chromosomes are:
paired
219
diploid cells are:
cells with paired chromosomes
220
these types of cells are also diploid cells. They make up all tissues in the body.
Somatic cells
221
Haploid cells are what?
cells with simple chromosomes. (ex: ovum, sperm)
222
Mice and humans are estimated to have how many genes in diploid cells?
~30,000
223
A sequence of DNA that codes for a protein.
Gene
224
Only when a mutation is in ____ cells will the mutation carry to the next generation.
Germ
225
DNA is a ____, several chemical subunits linked together. The subunits for DNA are ____.
Polymer, nucleotides
226
What makes up a nucleotide?
Sugar + nitrogen baseattached to a sugar + phosphate group.
227
The 4 nucleotides that make up DNA differ in:
their nitrogenous bases
228
The 4 nucleotides that make up DNA.
Guanine, adenine, cystine and thymine
229
Backbone of DNA.
Phosphate-sugar-phosphate-sugar connections
230
The 'rungs of the ladder" that make up DNA are the :
nitrogenous bases of the nucleotide.
231
Adenine only pairs with thymine, and cystine only pairs with guanine. This is reffered to as:
Complimentary pairing
232
The main structural difference btwn DNA and RNA.
Deoxyribose sugar vs. Ribose sugar
233
RNA uses this instead of thymine.
Uracil
234
Virases use single or double stranded __ for their genetic code.
RNA
235
This is the first step in replication is the separation of base pairs at the _____ ______.
hydrogen bonds
236
Step 2 of replication.
Free nucleotides within the nucleus bind to 2 individual strands. This creates 2 separate full copies of chromosome.
237
Mitosis means:
threads
238
For growth and to replace worn out cells, this split into 2 identical cells. process happens. Eukaryotic cell nucleuses
Mitosis
239
After the 1st two steps of replication, mitosis starts by:
The chromosomes lining up in pairs along the center of the dividing cell. Paired chromosomes then pull to either side of the cell and the cell splits into 2 daughter cells.
240
Diploid cells in ovaries and testes undergo this division to form haploid cells. (ova and spermatid).
Meiosis
241
What makes meiosis different from mitosis.
When chromosomes replicate in meiosis, chromosomes recombine, switching alleles so daughter cells are slightly different.
Meiotic cells undergo 2nd division, which divide chromosomes into 4 haploid daughter cells.
242
A zygote is ____ because it recieved genes from the ___ and ___.
diploid, ovum/egg, sperm
243
2 steps needed to allow cells to read genes and produce amino acids.
Transcription and translation
244
RNA made from DNA template.
Transcription
245
mRNA is made into amino acids of a protein.
Translation
246
DNA->Protein synthesis ->cellular metabolism
Transcription process
247
The genetic code to make protein is transferred from___ to ___ during transcription.
nucleus to cytoplasm
248
4 steps of transcription.
1) 2 strands of DNA separate. 2) ribose containing nucleotides guided by RNA polymerase form complimentary binding. 3)New strand of RNA formed (mRNA) 4) mRNA crosses nuclear membrane into cytoplasm.
249
Read mRNA in cytoplasm for protein synthesis.
Translation
250
4 steps of translation.
1) mRNA attaches to ribosome (which makes protien) and reads nucleotides that code for amino acids. 2) Ribosome moves to "start" codon. tRNA (transfer) molecules move new amino acids into ribosome and tRNA anti-codon binds to mRNA. 3) When tRNA's move into ribosome, amino acids bind to each other and create proteins. tRNA's are released.4) Ribosome reaches "stop" codon and amino acid chain is released.
251
Restriction enzymes are added...
to DNA sample/pellet to cut DNA into smaller pieces for use.
252
Electrophoresis
separating DNA fragments.
253
In ___ a fragment of interest can be isolated by cutting fragment from gel, then putting gel in dissolving solution.
Electrophoresis
254
Add DNA to bacteria (e. Coli) w/ electric field. Bacterial cells grow in culture making millions of copies of fragment inside them. This process is then used to extract fragment.
Bacteria electroporation
255
PCR samples can be from:
Sample from hair shaft, tail tip, cheek swab, etc.
256
PCR tube contains:
DNA, enzyme/polymerase, primers, nucleotides.
257
In PCR Primers are:
short DNA fragments that match the gene of interest.
258
How is DNA separated in PCR?
High temperatures.
259
A cycle of PCR. Each cycle doubles the number of DNA fragments.
Amplification
260
Amplifies mRNA and incorporates fluorophore, allowing different # of different fragments to be measured.
Quantitative PCR (qPCR)
261
The benefit of qPCR is that it is:
quantitative
262
In qPCR specific gene expression levels match:
strength of fluorescent
263
Genes found in qPCR are compared to:
House Keeping genes
264
Sheet-like layers of spirals. Keratin and collagen.
Structural proteins
265
Biological catalysts
enzymes
266
Turn biological processes on and off. Typically intracellular. ex: cytokines
regulatory proteins
267
one of the jobs of cytokines is to:
repress the bodies immune system once infection is resolved.
268
Ex: hemoglobin (transports oxygen). Low and high density lipoproteins (LDL & HDL).
Transport proteins
269
LDL and HDL transport what in the bloodstream?
Cholesterol
270
Regulate body function. 2 types aromatic amino acids and peptide.
Hormones
271
insulin, thyroid regulating hormone are examples of:
peptide hormones.
272
Tyrosine, phenylalanine and tryptophan are examples of:
aromatic amino acids.
273
antibodies and the complement cascade:
protective proteins
274
snake venom is an example of
toxins (protein group)
275
This is the most abundant protein in the body, making up 1/3 of the total protein in the body.
Collagen
276
This protein group contains nitrogen.
amine group
277
How many amino acids are there?
20
278
Essential molecules in small amounts for metabolic function.
Vitamins
279
These 2 vitamins are water soluble.
B and C
280
These 4 vitamins are lipid soluble.
A,D,E,K
281
Ascorbic acid is another name for what vitamin?
Vitamin C
282
Primates and guinea pigs require this vitamin in their diet.
Vitamin C
283
Minerals are micro or macro based on:
importance
284
Calcium, phosphorus, magnesium, sodium, potassium, chlorine, sulfur.
Macro minerals
285
Micro minerals (examples)
iodine, zinc,
286
Micro minerals can be toxic if:
too low or too high a quantity
287
These animals are cecal digesters. They have a highly developed cecum/colon to handle fermentation.
Horses, swine, rabbits, rodents
288
Amount/combo of ingredients is the same in each batch.
Fixed formulation
289
Ingredient inclusion means:
all ingredients in a feed.
290
Ingredient inclusion levels means:
amounts of ingredients in a feed.
291
Accounts for ingredient variation w/ small ingredient change.
Managed formulation
292
Never use what type of food formulation?
least cost formulation
293
Ferrets and cats are __ ___ and need ___ supplemented in their food.
obligate carnivores, taurine
294
Gluten can cause ___ in NHPs.
enteropathy
295
Soy protein contains ______ which compete for estrogen receptors and can affect animal reproductive system,
Isoflavones
296
Soy protein can induce what in animals?
Tumor growth
297
Diabetes Mellitus results from:
defective secretion or action of insulin.
298
Diabetes Mellitus can lead to:
hyperglycemia
299
Diabetes Mellitus can lead to:
Increased levels of ketones
300
Cholesterol deposits (plaque) in blood vessels , narrow the vessels creating abnormal circulation.
Atherosclerosis
301
Atherosclerosis is caused by:
imbalance of high and low density lipoproteins.
302
HDL and LDL aide in:
tissue uptake of lipids
303
Newborns lacking phenylalanine hydroxylase (turns phenylalanine to hydrolase) causing phenylalanine to build up in body. Can cause retardation. Diet of low phenylalanine prevents issue.
Phenylketoneuria
304
What percent of human and mouse genome are directly aligned?
40%
305
This percent of human genes have a corresponding gene in the mouse.
80%
306
Danio rerio are:
Zebra Fish
307
There are 2 types of genetically engineered mice:
transgenic and gene-targeted
308
Altering a gene the animal already leads to a:
gene-targeted animal
309
Adding a gene from one animal to another leads to a:
transgenic animal
310
Preparing DNA fragment , inject into nucleus, nucleus DNA and fragment merge. Merged gene is called:
transgene
311
3 primary techniques for transgenic mouse:
1) microinjection into oocyte/zygote. 2) Retroviral vector into egg. 3) Transgenic construct into embryonic stem (ES) cells
312
3 types of room access:
full, limited, barrier
313
Limited access:
PIs have some contact but majority of contact is by facility personnel.
314
Barrier access:
only animal staff handle the animals
315
documents for mouse/animal shipping
material transfer agreements (MTAs)
316
A clean way to ship mice because can't support microorganisms.
Cryopreserved ovaries/embryos/sperm
317
Is induced in female mice b/c large volume of eggs/embryo is needed to produce transgenic mice.
superovulation
318
Super ovulation requires 2 injections of hormones.
Pregnant mare serum gonadotropin (PMSG) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
319
PMSG acts as ___ _____ _____. Given 1st to prepare female to ovulate. 46-48hrs later, __ is given to "release" ova. 3-4X eggs are released then in natural estrus cycle. Bc of increased number of eggs, less felmales are needed. If fertilized eggs are needed, females are placed with stud male overnight.
follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), hCG
320
Oviducts of euthanized mice are collected if:
pronuclear injection of DNA is planned.
321
Oviduct of euthanized mice are collected in what time frame?
Morning after hCG and mating. Day 0.5
322
Cryopreseved 2-cell and 8-cell embryos both require:
Oviducts of euthanized mice.
323
Cryopreseved 2-cell embryos are collected:
After hCG and mating, Day 1.5
324
Cryopreseved 8-cell embryos are collected:
2nd day after hCG and mating, Day 2.5
325
If blastocysts are needed, what is collected?
Uterine horns
326
When are uterine horns collected?
3rd day after mating: Day 3.5
327
In vitro fertilization requires that the eggs be placed where?
Into drops of swimming sperm.
328
In in-vitro fertilization, when is the eggs collected?
12-17 hrs after hcG injection.
329
Other terms for Surrogate mouse mothers
pseudopregnant mice and recipients.
330
Surrogate mothers undergo normal hormonal changes, but own eggs...
are not fertilized.
331
Surrogates are pseudopregnant with __/___ males bc the act of copulation stimulates reproductive system.
sterile/vasectomized
332
Embryos can be transferred surgically if aged less than 3.5 days or ______ for embryos over 3.5 days.
nonsurgically
333
For pronuclear injections, up to _ 1-2 cell embryos are transferred into oviduct.
15
334
injected with embryonic stem cells. Are injected into ___ ___.
Blastocycsts, uterine horn
335
Length of mouse gestation
19-21 days
336
When is there more caution to not disturb mouse mother and litter?
Gestation day 15- week 1 post partum.
337
Term for placing pups with another mother.
Cross-fostering.
338
Highly fertile (3-8mos), same strain as superovulated female. Should be housed singley. Only be w/ female who has received hCG.
Stud male.
339
Duds:
Vasected males. usually a mix of ages are kept.
340
These mice are test mated to make sure vasectamy took.
dud males
341
During 1st 12 hrs of fertilization embryo has 2 nuclei. (one from each parent). A transgene can be injected into:
One or both nuclei
342
Use of bacteria to introduce single copy of DNA fragment.DNA is flanked by bacterial DNA segments called "transpoons".Enzyme transposes injected DNA sequence into genome. Can only be done with small genes.
Transposon-mediated transgenesis
