Organization of Practice Flashcards

1
Q

Online Pharmacy

A

An online pharmacy, internet pharmacy, or mail-order pharmacy is a pharmacy that operate over the internet and sends the orders to customer through the mail or shipping companies.

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2
Q

Mark-up

A

The amount added to the cost price of goods to cover overhead and profit

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3
Q

Mitigation

A

The action of reducing the severity, seriousness, or painfulness of something

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4
Q

Medical terminology

A

Language that is used to accurately describe the patient’s body and associated components, conditions, processes, and procedures in a science-based manner.

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5
Q

Medical records

A

Written reports by veterinarians on the animals he or she treats

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6
Q

Medical record audit

A

Methodical review and examination of practice records to assess accuracy and completeness.

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7
Q

Local Area Network (LAN)

A

A computer network that links devices within a building or group of adjacent buildings.

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8
Q

Inventory turnover

A

The relationship between expense of total items sold and the inventory value, computed by dividing the costs of the drugs and the dispensed items by the average inventory value.

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9
Q

Inventory audit

A

An accounting procedure used to keep track of products and merchandise.

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10
Q

Internet accessibility

A

Refers to the inclusive practice of removing barriers that prevent interaction with, or access to websites.

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11
Q

Integrating Systems

A

The process of bringing together the component subsystems into one system and ensuring that the subsystems function together as a system.

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12
Q

Insurance Agent

A

A person employed to sell insurance policies.

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13
Q

Inspection

A

Careful examination or scrutiny. A practice may be inspected by various agencies such as the DEA, OSHA, local fire department, etc. A manager should be aware of the laws and standards necessary to pass those inspections.

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14
Q

Operations Manual

A

A document that describes in detail the processes and systems that a company uses to produce its goods and provide its services.

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15
Q

Overstock

A

A supply or quantity in excess of demand or requirements.

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16
Q

Paperless/Paper Light

A

A term or phrase used to describe a practice that no longer uses physical medical charts, and relies primarily on electronical medical records

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17
Q

Five-Force Analysis

A

A strategic planning activity that organizes the practice’s evaluation of the external environment and its opportunities and threats.

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18
Q

Required content

A

Every state has a Veterinary Practice Act that defines the required content in each patients medical record.

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19
Q

Risk Management

A

The identification, assessment, and prioritization of risks followed by coordinated and economical application of resources to minimize, monitor, and control the probability of said risk.

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20
Q

Service Warranty

A

In contract law, a warranty has various meanings but generally means a guarantee or promise which provides assurance by one party to the other party that specific facts or conditions are true or will happen.

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21
Q

Shrinkage

A

Inventory loss, usually unexplained or difficult to isolate.

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22
Q

Server

A

A computer on the network that manages network resources, and provides functionality for other computers on the network.

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23
Q

Unit of measure - or - buy/sell ratio

A

Is assigned to all inventory items and must be defined before a product can be entered into inventory. Each product will have a stocking unit of measure, sales ordering unit of measure and a purchasing unit of measure.

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24
Q

Value Chain Analysis

A

Analysis tool for strategic planning and goal setting that describes as series of activities, with each stage adding value to the final product or service income.

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25
Q

Value Proposition

A

Description of the value that a product, service, or process will provide to the pet owner, hospital, and staff.

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26
Q

Veterinary Practice Scorecard (VPS)

A

A management process tool that assists in identifying and targeting measurable performance goals in operational quadrants; client perspective, patient perspective, learning and growth perspective and financial perspective.

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27
Q

Housekeeping

A

Operations such as record-keeping or maintenance in an organization, or a computer that make work possible does not directly constitute its performance.

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28
Q

Human resource risk management

A

Having a process by which your organization identifies and understands the risks to which you are exposed when it comes to human resources activities. It also means having deliberately evaluated the risks and have strategy in place to remove the risk altogether, reduce the likelihood of the risk happening or minimize harm in the event that something happens.

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29
Q

Stakeholders

A

An individual or group with an interest in a particular business; the individual or group usually has something at risk.

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30
Q

Standards

A

Statements of what a practice believes in and recommends for its patients.

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31
Q

Strategy

A

A plan or action to achieve a specific end, typically within a long time frame (usually more than a year). Often times strategies are achieved utilizing various tactics to achieve various aspects of the overall strategy.

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32
Q

SWOT Analysis

A

A tool used that analyzes the practice’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats when making a plan.

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33
Q

SOAP

A

A systematic method used when writing out medical records that includes: Subjective, objective, assessment, and plan for patient care.

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34
Q

Tactic

A

A plan or action to achieve a specific end, typically within a short time frame (usually less than a year, but occasionally spanning a few years).

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35
Q

SMART Goals

A

Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-bound. Useful acronym to remember when establishing inspiration objectives for the practice team

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36
Q

Software

A

Programs or applications that run on computers

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37
Q

Special Orders

A

Patient medications or food that is ordered by a client, typically because it is not kept in stock on a regular basis.

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38
Q

Secure login

A

A secure login page utilizes a Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) to encrypt the user name and password before passing them to the mail server so that anything that might be intercepted are in an encrypted format that will be unreadable.

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39
Q

Security Standards

A

A set of administrative, physical, and technical actions to protect the confidentiality, availability and integrity o information or data.

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40
Q

Hardware/software support

A

Assistance for technical problems with electronic devices or computer software applications. The technical support team is composed of individuals that are familiar with the ins and outs of a device and/or software application.

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41
Q

Hardware

A

The physical equipment used in a computer system.

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42
Q

Depreciation

A

Systematic allocation of the cost of a tangible asset over time.

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43
Q

Data breach risk management

A

Strategies and procedures put in place to protect confidential data from unauthorized access.

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44
Q

Firewall

A

A system (hardware, software or a combination) on your local intranet network that is designed to prevent unauthorized access to or from the network.

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45
Q

Efficiency Ratio for Accounts Payable to Sales

A

Ratios used to analyze how well a company uses its assets and liabilities internally.

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46
Q

Expired inventory

A

Inventory that has reached the end of its useful life, and cannot be sold as a finished good.

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47
Q

Desktop

A

A computer where the central processing unit (CPU) sits either on the desk or under it; not considered portable.

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48
Q

Disclaimer

A

A clause or a statement that tries to prevent the creation of a warranty or contract.

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49
Q

Economic risk management

A

The identification, assessment, and prioritization of financial risks followed by coordinated and economical application of resources to minimize, monitor, and control the probability of said risk.

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50
Q

Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) [definition only]

A

The most economical quantity of a product to order, factoring in both holding and operation costs.

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51
Q

Costs of goods sold (COGS)

A

A figure on the income statement that reflects the cost of products sold to consumers in the primary business activity of the practice

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52
Q

Controlled Drugs

A

Any drug or therapeutic agent commonly understood to include narcotics, with a potential for abuse or addiction, which is held under strict government control, as delineated by the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention & Control Act passed in 1970.

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53
Q

Consent Form

A

A form signed by a client prior to a medical procedure to confirm that he or she agrees to the procedure and is aware of any risks that might be involved.

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54
Q

Complementary Practitioner

A

A veterinarian that uses healing practices and products that work in conjunction with traditional medicine.

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55
Q

Bluetooth

A

A standard for the short-range wireless interconnection of cellular phones, computers, and other electronic devices.

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56
Q

Damaged Goods

A

A good that is unfit or reduced in value for it’s intended use due to damage of some sort.

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57
Q

Ancillary Service Provider

A

A healthcare service provider that support the work of a primary physician.

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58
Q

Client risk management

A

The process of identification, analysis and either acceptance or mitigation of uncertainty in client decision-making

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59
Q

Client portals

A

An electronic gateway to a collection of digital files, services, and information accessible over the Internet through a web browser.

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60
Q

Capital Asset

A

Property of any kind held by an assessee, whether connected with their business or profession or not connected with their business or profession. It includes all kinds of property, movable or immovable, tangible or intangible, fixed or circulating.

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61
Q

Quantity on hand (QOH)

A

Total number of inventory units currently in stock

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62
Q

Regulatory Risk Management

A

Generally defined as the risk of having the ‘license to operate’ withdrawn by a regulator, or having conditions applied (retrospectively or prospectively) that adversely impact the economic value of the practice.

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63
Q

Warranty Period

A

A defined time frame that a product or service is guaranteed.

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64
Q

Waiver

A

A form that is signed by the owner/agent of a pet stating that they decline to accept the veterinarian’s recommendations or advice

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65
Q

Volume Purchasing

A

The act of purchasing goods in multiple units or in large quantities, usually with a financial incentive for doing so.

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66
Q

Business Assessment Report Kard (BARK)

A

A strategic planning process designed to evaluate veterinary practices.

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67
Q

Business liability insurance

A

Insurance that protects the company and/or business owner in the event of a formal lawsuit or other third party claim.

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68
Q

Backup

A

The procedure for making extra copies of data in case the original is lost or damaged.

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69
Q

Back Order

A

An order placed for a product that is temporarily out of stock

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70
Q

Grief Counseling

A

A means by which an owner is assisted in coping with the loss of their pet.

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71
Q

Procedural Logs

A

Documents used to ensure that tasks have been completed in a specific manner.

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72
Q

Product Warranty

A

A guarantee that a manufacturer or similar part makes regarding the condition of its product.

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73
Q

Problem Oriented Veterinary Medical Record (POMR)

A

A veterinary medical record model designed to organize patient information by the presenting problem. The record includes the patient database, problem list, plan of care, and progress notes in an accessible format.

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74
Q

Pharmacy

A

A store where medicinal drugs are dispensed and sold.

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75
Q

PCI Compliance

A

The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) is a set of requirements designed to ensure that ALL companies that process, store or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment.

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76
Q

PEST Analysis

A

A framework using four factors to help scan the external macro-environment in which the practice operates: Political, Economic, Sociocultural and Technological.

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77
Q

Implementation

A

To put into effect. Strategic Planning can only succeed with the implementation of the plan.

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78
Q

First In - First Out (FIFO)

A

The principle by which the oldest inventory items are recorded as sold first, but do not necessarily mean that the exact oldest physical object has been tracked and sold.

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79
Q

What negative effects are seen when multiple products of the same category are carried in house?

A

> Increased dollars are spent on products
> Products sit on the shelf and have a decreased turnover rate
> Products expire and the practice loses money
> Team members need additional training to remember the functions of each product.
> Client communication and recommendations suffer because specific recommendations are not being made, ultimately decreasing client compliance

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80
Q

What is the formula for Average Inventory?

A

Beginning inventory + Ending inventory
​2

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81
Q

How many times per year should products located in the top 20% of inventory items turn?

A

12 times per year

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82
Q

What factors should be considered when determining effective reorder quantities?

A
  1. Average Daily Use
  2. Turnover Goals
  3. Product Expiration
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83
Q

What is the formula used to determine the inventory turnover rate?

A

Total units of product purchased during measured period
Average inventory

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84
Q

What is the formula used to determine the reorder quantity of a product?

A

Average daily use x Turnover goal (in days)

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85
Q

What is the formula used to calculate the reorder point of a product?

A

Lead time x Average Daily Use

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86
Q

What factors should be considered when placing a bulk order?

A
  • Quantity is based off of historical sales, within the period being measured
  • The quantity ordered must sell before the delayed billing is due
  • Product cannot have a short shelf life
  • Consider year-end tax implications (cash versus accrual reporting)
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87
Q

What formula is used to determine the quantity of a bulk order

A

Average daily use x # of working days in billing period x % of growth

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88
Q

What are ordering costs?

A

Human resource-related and basically account for all time spent preparing and maintaining an order.

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89
Q

What is the replacement cost of an item?

A

The price a practice would pay to replace an item.

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90
Q

What are the holding costs of a product?

A

facility related and account for approximately 8% to 15% of the unit cost.

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91
Q

What are the hard costs of an inventory item?

A

The costs associated with paying veterinarians when they are compensated by the production method.

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92
Q

What are the hidden ordering cost associated with inventory?

A
  • Determining reorder quantity and reorder points
  • Price Shopping
  • Visting with sales representatives
  • requesting an order
  • researching items to replace back orders
  • receiving and unpacking products and supplies
  • entering invoices into veterinary software
  • reconciling statements
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93
Q

What are the hidden holding costs associated with inventory?

A
  • Property tax paid on inventory value
  • Insurance
  • Utilities to maintain safety of product
  • Shrinkage
  • Pharmacy licensing/DEA fees
  • OSHA training and maintenance
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94
Q

What is the formula for break-even analysis (i.e. what is your minimum sales price to achieve your desired profit)

A

Unit Cost + Hard Cost + Soft Cost + (Profit x sales price)

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95
Q

What are potential causes of discrepancies in inventory counts?

A
  • Shrinkage - the loss of product inventory
  • Missed charges - items are not put in and charged out, but are sent home with a client
  • Incorrectly invoiced products - may either enter the wrong product into the computer system, or pull the wrong product to send home with the client.
  • Medical supplies
  • Free doses
  • In-House Use - Items used in house but not logged out of inventory
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96
Q

What are four ways that teams can contribute to decreasing the loss of inventoried items?

A
  1. Use a travel sheet
  2. appropriately set fees
  3. Have a structured inventory system
  4. Ensure team member accountability
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97
Q

Define Inventory Control

A

The process whereby the need to maintain sufficient inventory to meet hospital operating demands is weighed against the monetary cost of carrying inventory.

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98
Q

How much of the true cost do ordering and holding costs account for?

A

Approximately 25 to 35 percent of the total true cost.

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99
Q

What are the four functions of an inventory system?

A
  1. Control functions
  2. Forecasting functions
  3. Purchasing functions
  4. Selling Functions
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100
Q

What are the different ways to track inventory in a manual inventory management system?

A
  • Control-Card system
  • Red-Tag System
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101
Q

What things are tracked in a manual inventory system?

A
  • Item
  • Suppliers
  • Quantity
  • Reorder Point
  • Invoice Costs
  • Storage Location
  • Price to client
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102
Q

What is a purchase order?

A

A document issued by the practice to vendors to request the delivery of materials, including supplies, any other item to be placed in inventory, equipment, and the like.

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103
Q

What is one of the greatest safeguards against employee theft?

A

A perpetual inventory system

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104
Q

What are the steps used to enforce a ration-based inventory system?

A
  • Understand the system
  • Assess the Risks
  • Evaluate the Labor Costs
  • Inform Staff
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105
Q

What is selective inventory control?

A

A profit based management system that prioritizes inventory based on value and importance.

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106
Q

How is Pareto’s principle applied to inventory?

A
  • 20 percent of the items account for about 80 percent of the sales revenues
  • 80 percent of the inventory cost exists in 20 percent of the inventory
  • 80 percent of profit can be predicted to come from 20 percent of products sold
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107
Q

What is an ABC analysis?

A

A method of sorting inventory into manageable components based on cost and relative value.

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108
Q

What inventory items fall into Class A of an ABC analysis?

A

The 20 percent of SKUs that account for about 80 percent of the Annual Usage Value.

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109
Q

What inventory items fall into Class B of the ABC analysis?

A

The next 30 percent after class A. These items account for about 15 percent of the Annual Usage Value.

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110
Q

What inventory items fall into class C of the ABC analysis?

A

The remaining 50 percent of items that account for the remaining 5% of the Annual Usage Value

  • Lowest priority
  • Simplest possible control
  • weight cost-benefit relationship of micromanagement and stock savings
  • consider ordering larger quantities with bigger safety stock margins and stock savings.
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111
Q

What inventory items fall into Class AA in the ABC analysis?

A
  • Controlled substances
  • Highest risk / highest priority
  • Tightest controls
  • Frequent review and inspection by a responsible doctor or chief of staff
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112
Q

Define operating level in regards to inventory management

A

The inventory amount of an item that is expected to be used up between the point of order receipt and the time another order must be placed.

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113
Q

Define Lead Time

A

The time between the point of order and when the shipment will be received.

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114
Q

Define Reorder point

A

The time at which the purchasing manager should place a restock order with the vendor because supplies have fallen to a specified level. Reorder point is determined by the SKU quantity that will meet predicted normal operating needs until the restock supplies arrive on the premises plus the selected emergency stock quantity.

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115
Q

Define Safety Stock

A

A desired inventory cushion, in excess of lead-time quantity, to help mitigate the event of a stock outage if the shipment was delayed or if the item was placed on backorder.

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116
Q

What is the formula to calculate the average shelf life of inventory in days?

A

365 ÷ annual inventory turnover rate

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117
Q

What factors influence the timing of orders?

A
  1. The time needed for delivery
  2. The rate of inventory usage
  3. The safety stock level
  4. The effect of special manufacturer and vendor offerings
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118
Q

What are two leading causes of drug shortages?

A

Manufacturing problems and regulatory issues

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119
Q

Define Economic Order Quantity

A

The optimum order quantity by determining the point at which inventory ordering and holding costs are minimized

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120
Q

What is the economic order quantity (EOQ) formula?

A
A = Annual demand in Units
F = Fixed ordering costs incurred per order
H = Holding costs expressed on an annual basis as a percentage of unit cost
UC = Unit cost to purchase from vendor or supplier
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121
Q

Define Freight On Board Shipping point

A

The sale occurs at the vendor’s shipping dock, when the merchandise is loaded on the carrier.

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122
Q

Define Freight On Board destination

A

The title of ownership passes when the merchandise is delivered to the buyer (in this case, when the carrier unloads the shipment at the veterinary practice.)

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123
Q

Define Procurement

A

The act of obtaining or buying goods.

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124
Q

Define Supply and Demand

A

The relationship between the product availability and the desire/need of consumers to purchase it.

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125
Q

Define Shelf Life

A

The period when goods can be stored and remain in optimum condition (before expiration) and suitable for sale or use.

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126
Q

Define Markup

A

An amount added to a cost price in calculating a selling price, usually expressed in a percentage

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127
Q

Define Margin

A

The difference between total sales and the cost of those sales, expressed as either a percentage or dollar amount

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128
Q

What are the duties of an inventory manager?

A

The responsibilities of an inventory manager include the separate roles listed below as well as supervising and overseeing others who perform those roles. The role of inventory manager may be a role that is played by the hospital manager, or it may be a role played by someone else and overseen by the hospital manager.

  • Inventory Researcher
  • Inventory Purchaser
  • Department Lead
  • Inventory Receiver
  • Inventory Documenter and Tracker
  • Inventory Counter
  • Bookkeeper
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129
Q

What responsibilities does an Inventory Researcher have?

A

The responsibilities of an inventory researcher include evaluating and selecting suppliers and products. Product selection criteria is also the responsibility of the inventory researcher and may include the following:

  • Evaluate products from three aspects: medical efficacy, patient or condition need, client compliance factors
  • Compare similar products and product lines
  • Choose which products will be stocked in the practice
  • Choose which products will be available for online purchases
  • Create and follow product addition guidelines to ensure overstock and product duplication is minimized.
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130
Q

What responsibilities does an Inventory Purchaser Have?

A

Identifies product purchase needs and places orders for those needs through the pre-chose suppliers chosen by the researcher. This is also known as procurement. The inventory purchaser may rely upon area leads from each department within the practice to provide product purchase needs.

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131
Q

What responsibilities does the Department Lead have regarding inventory?

A

Takes responsibility for identifying product needs in a particular department, like surgery, treatment, kennel, etc. and communicates those needs to the inventory purchaser. There may be several area leads depending on the number of departments within the practice. Assigning department leads alleviates a heavy burden from the inventory manager while elevating the people who typically work within each department who ave a keen understanding of the products they use/sell and the rate at which they typically are used/sold.

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132
Q

What are the responsibilities of an Inventory Receiver

A

An inventory receiver is someone who has been trained to unpack, account for, and stock inventory as it is delivered to the practice. There should be enough people trained to handle this role so that shipments coming in on any day at any time can be properly stored and secured.

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133
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Inventory Documenter and Tracker?

A

The movement of inventory must be documented. And while inventory sales are easily documented in the inventory management software, other movements are not as easily documented and may require tracking systems and manual entries. The inventory documented and tracker role is important in that it documents the receipt of inventory, transfers of inventory, hospital use, shrinkage, etc. so that inventory reports in the practice management software remain accurate and up to date.

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134
Q

What are the responsibilities of an inventory counter?

A

Counting inventory is part of inventory management and is a critical function for the inventory documented and tracker. All employees, at one time or another, will likely be asked to count inventory. Inventory counting ensures levels on hand match levels documented in the practice management software, and where discrepancies are found, research is done and protocols are updated to correct the issue.

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135
Q

Why would product cost be different from replacement cost?

A
  • Free goods were received as part of a purchase
  • Bulk purchasing decreased the per unit cost
  • Pricing lists from vendors are updated
  • Product discontinuation or back orders force consideration of a different product.
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136
Q

What are the most common symptoms of unctrolled inventory?

A
  • On-hand quantities do not match computer quantities
  • Products are somewhere in the practice, but cannot be found
  • Stock-outs are a common occurrence
  • Products received aren’t entered into the software. There may be stacks of invoices waiting to be entered.
  • Product duplication is common
  • Low product turnover
  • High cost-of-goods expenses
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137
Q

What are the five initial steps that need to be taken to “clean up” an inventory system?

A
  1. Print code lists. The list needs to be clean. Deletions or inactivations should be made. Reclassifications should be made so that items are classified correctly. Duplicates should be consolidated. Check the medical supplies and consumables that are entered into the software.
  2. Reprint the list and double and even triple-check the classifications, drug names, code duplciations, etc.
  3. Create a list of UNCONSOLIDATED areas where duplicate or similar products exist. Ask the veterinarians in the practice which ones can be paired down.
  4. Count inventory. These should be conducted when the inventory is not in motion. And the on-hand totals should be corrected as soon as possible.
  5. Enter/Receive inventory. Going forward, all inventory received from vendors must be entered into the software as it enters the practice.
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138
Q

What are the phases of inventory movement?

A
  1. Needs Assessment
  2. Procurement
  3. Receiving
  4. Protection
  5. Sell/Use
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139
Q

What three sets of criteria should be considered when choosing which vendors best fit with your practice?

A
  • Business Practices
  • Representative Qualities
  • Practice strategies and needs
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140
Q

What are four considerations for protecting inventory?

A
  • Segregation of inventory management duties
  • Storage solutions
  • Counting Inventory
  • Staff Pet Solutions
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141
Q

What is an acceptable variance for high-turn items?

A

1 to 4% variance

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142
Q

Which DEA form is required for federal registration

A

DEA Form 224

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143
Q

Which DEA Form is the Certificate of Registration?

A

DEA Form 223

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144
Q

How often are DEA renewals done and what form should be used?

A

Every 3 years. DEA Form 224a

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145
Q

What are the 4 steps to creating an inventory budget?

A
  1. Project Revenue.
  2. Project COG expenses
  3. Project COG subsection expenses
  4. Share the budget and communicate expectations with anyone involved with inventory management.
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146
Q

What is Merchandise Inventory

A

Products purchased for resale to clients

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147
Q

What is Medical Supply Inventory?

A

items used in the course of providing veterinary medical and surgical services.

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148
Q

What is Just In Time Inventory Practices?

A

Receiving a product just as needed versus storing the product. Can lower holding costs, and usually have no expired products, but causes higher ordering costs with a higher risk of stock outs and backorders.

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149
Q

What are the goals of inventory control and management?

A
  • The Inventory Roles are filled and responsibilities defined and training performed.
  • Products are available to treat patients when needed and clients can conveniently obtain refills
  • Quantities are controlled to minimize expenses
  • Accurate inventory reports are available
  • Regular evaluation of preferred pharmaceuticals and supplies to avoid redundancy, streamline storage, ordering and training.
  • Employees can efficiently order, stock, and dispense needed items.
  • Controlled drugs are properly maintained
  • Security, systems, and safeguards exist to ensure proper use.
  • Employees are well versed in communicating the value of products dispensed at the practice and can also confidently field client inquiries regarding online pharmacies or big box stores.
  • Fees are adjusted regularly and profit margins are set and accomplished.
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150
Q

What are some losses due to poor inventory management?

A
  • Too much product on the shelf
  • Not enough product on the shelf to meet needs of clients or patients
  • Frequent ordering
  • Shrinkage
  • Theft
  • Back orders
  • Expired product
  • Incorrect products ordered or received
  • High cost of overnight or rush shipment for products needed asap.
  • Shipping costs associated with smaller orders.
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151
Q

What are the minimum categories that should be included in an inventory system?

A
  • Imaging
  • Laboratory (in house)
  • Flea/Tick/Heartworm prevention
  • Retail/OTC
  • Diets
  • Drugs and medical supplies (can be further broken down)
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152
Q

What are Control Functions?

A

preparing and distributing written policies and procedures, creating and maintaining security and safety protocol, and regular monitoring of the system via counts and accountability. Needs to be flexible to change.

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153
Q

What is a perpetual inventory system?

A

One that can provide an accurate idea of inventory quantities at any time. When items are received they are immediately added to the inventory records and when items are used or sold they are removed from the inventory records.

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154
Q

What is a Periodic Inventory System?

A

Uses data from manual product counts at the end of every financial period.

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155
Q

What are Internal Controls?

A

All measures, systems, and protocols used to prevent errors, waste, and fraud.

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156
Q

What are Forecasting Functions?

A

The inventory system should include the ability to signal when an item needs to be reordered to avoid an outage.

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157
Q

What are Purchasing Functions?

A

The elements of an inventory system that includes purchasing details:

  • How, where, and when each item is ordered
  • How to avoid ancillary charges
  • track back-orders
  • Identifies seasonal usage
  • Identifies upcoming expiration dates
  • Invoices match requested and received products.
  • Allows for immediate assessment of increased cost from the vendor in order to pass that increase along to clients.
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158
Q

What are Selling Functions

A

The elements of an inventory system that deal with profit.

  • Price setting
  • Tracking profit margin
  • Compare inventory and supply expense to revenue generated
  • Gross Profit is the difference between the price of a product to the client and the total cost of that product to the practice.
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159
Q

What information should be included on a card using the Inventory Control Card System?

A
  • Item details
  • Supplier details
  • Quantity
  • Re-order point
  • Invoice costs
  • Storage
  • Price to client
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160
Q
A
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161
Q

1) Inventory Control is defined as the process whereby the need to maintain sufficient inventory to meet _________ ___________ is weighed against the monetary cost of carrying the inventory.

A

Operating Demands

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162
Q

Combined ordering and holding costs account for approximately what percent of the total true cost?

A

25% to 35%

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163
Q

When items received are immediately added to the inventory record, and items sold are immediately subtracted from the inventory record, it is called a ___________ Inventory System.

A

Perpetual

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164
Q

Define Gross Profit on a product

A

The difference between the price of a product to the client and the cost of that product to the practice.

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165
Q

What are the two main benefits of using a Central Supply Inventory System?

A

Reduce theft and waste, and better organization and tracking of products.

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166
Q

The ABC Inventory Analysis contains multiple steps and can be somewhat complex – if you had to define the ABC Analysis in 5 steps, what would those steps be?

A
  1. Create a spreadsheet and calculate Annual Usage Volume.
  2. Then calculate cumulative Annual Usage Volume.
  3. Then calculate the Cumulative Percentage of Annual Usage Volume.
  4. Then calculate the Annual Usage Distribution.
  5. Group items into classes A, B, C.
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167
Q

The sum of the beginning inventory (BI) and the ending inventory (EI) divided by 2 is the calculation to determine what metric (BI + EI) / 2?

A

Average Inventory on Hand (AI)

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168
Q

The higher the inventory turnover ratio, the ___________ the inventory control.

A

Tighter

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169
Q

What mathematical formula, that recognizes three specific costs including unit cost, ordering cost, and holding cost, allows calculation of ideal inventory ordering?

A

Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)

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170
Q

Regarding Mark-up and Margin pricing structures, which is a useful strategy to use where there are large differences in the end resulting price based on the size of the patient?

A

Margin Pricing Method

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171
Q

Which category of drugs is likely to have a higher mark-up; competitive drugs or drugs used to treat chronic conditions?

A

Drugs used to treat chronic conditions.

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172
Q

Itemizing the various fees potentially associated with dispensing medication (labeling, dispensing, minimum, etc.) on the client invoice helps improve perceived value of the medication. True or False?

A

False. Clients do not have a complete understanding or appreciation of the costs associated with dispensing medications.

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173
Q

Calculate the inventory variance using the following data;

  • Beginning quantity = 250
  • Amount ordered and received = 1000
  • Amount sold = 942
  • Physical count of quantity on hand = 298
  • Variance = ________________.
A

10

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174
Q

What benefits and disadvantages may be involved in Just In Time ordering?

A
  1. Benefits – low holding costs, no expired product.
  2. Disadvantages – high ordering costs, stock outs and back orders.
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175
Q

What are the two main inventory organizational techniques?

A

Zoning and Central Supply

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176
Q

A running capitol inventory list should contain what information about the equipment?

A
  • Equipment name
  • Manufacturer
  • Model/serial number
  • Purchase date, amount paid and purchase location.
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177
Q

Using the metrics below; what is the break-even number for a potential Laser machine purchase;

  • Purchase price $25,000
  • Client cost $65
  • Technician time to perform the service $15
A

500 invoices to break even

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178
Q

The practice purchased a digital radiology unit for $35,000. Shipping charges were $2,525. Installation and training costs were $2,750. The practice is planning on the equipment serving them for a minimum of 10 years. Using the formula for calculating equipment expense for profit center use, what is the estimated monthly expense you can subtract from the profit center?

a. $731.25
b. $602.50
c. $4,027
d. $335.62

A

d. $335.62

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179
Q

According to Practice Made Perfect; applying Pareto’s 80/20 rule to inventory helps in;

  1. Making organizational decisions about inventory.
  2. Prioritizing inventory time investment. Since 20 % of our products bring in 80% of our produce revenue, we should concentrate the lion’s share of our efforts on that top 20%.
  3. Creating a marketing strategy regarding inventory.
  4. Making budget decisions regarding inventory.
A

b. Prioritizing inventory time investment. Since 20% of our products bring in 80% of our product revenue, we should concentrate the lion’s share of our efforts on that top 20%

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180
Q

Ideally, the top 20% of inventory items should be ordered;

a. Monthly
b. Weekly
c. When stock is down to 1-3 units.
d. When stock is no lower than 10 – 12 units.

A

a. Monthly

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181
Q

To maintain tight internal controls the role of Inventory Purchaser should always be a separate individual from (multiple choice)

a. The Inventory Receiver
b. The Inventory Counter
c. The Inventory Documenter and Tracker
d. The Inventory Researcher

A

a. The Inventory Receiver
c. The Inventory Documenter and Tracker

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182
Q
  1. The Tax Act of 2003 provided what increased benefits to small business owners (Multiple Choice);
  2. Significantly increased the amount of eligible property that can be written off in the first year.
  3. Gave an additional deduction of 50% of the remaining balance of the equipment purchased that is above the $139,000.
  4. The remainder of the purchases can also be depreciated on a straight line depreciation schedule.
A

All answers are correct.

  1. Significantly increased the amount of eligible property that can be written off in the first year.
  2. Gave an additional deduction of 50% of the remaining balance of the equipment purchased that is above the $139,000.
  3. The remainder of the purchases can also be depreciated on a straight line depreciation schedule.
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183
Q
  1. Practices should plan to reinvest around ___% of gross revenue for replacing or acquiring equipment annually.
    1. 5%
    2. 3%
    3. 1%
A

c. 1%

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184
Q
  1. Is the digital radiography unit in your practice considered Capital Inventory?
    1. If it is valued at $1,500 or higher.
    2. If it is valued at $15,000 or higher.
    3. Yes, if it is in useable condition.
A

c. Yes, if it is in useable condition.

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185
Q

What is the formula to calculate annual usage value?

A

Volume used in a year x Average cost

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186
Q

What information should a Hospital Formulary contain?

A
  • Product
  • Use/treatment regiment
  • Species Use
  • Typical Dosages
  • Contraindications
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187
Q

What goals should a completed hospital formulary accomplish?

A
  • Consolidation of existing inventory to a tight manageable supply that increases profitability and decreases product on the shelf.
  • Creation of a physical inventory map
  • Reorganization of the practice management databse.
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188
Q

What are strategies to minimize inventory costs?

A
  • Delayed billing
  • Quantity discounts may be beneficial if the product is salable and if the storage costs do not neutralize the savings
  • Do not take discounts, bulk prices, or delayed billing into account when pricing products for client sale.
  • If holding costs and risk of shrinkage is high and inventory turns are low on a specific product, it may make more financial sense to offer that product on an online pharmacy or other suppliers
  • Make sure short dated stock is identified and sold first or returned
  • Price increases should be passed onto clients immediately.
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189
Q

Define dispensing fees

A

Fees added after the markup has been determined. These fees cover the staff time used in counting, preparing, packaging, labeling and the supplies involved in doing so.

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190
Q

Define Labeling Fees

A

Applied to products sold in the original container that do not require a team member to count. These fees cover staff time to prepare and label the supplies.

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191
Q

Formula for Aging Inventory Pricing Model

A

Product Cost + Markup + Dispensing Fee

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192
Q

Formula for Modern Inventory Pricing Model

A

Product Cost + Hidden Costs + Profit + DVM Pay

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193
Q

Formula for Regular Pricing

A

Total product cost + 50% profit + 15% DVM Pay

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194
Q

Formula for Competitive Pricing

A

Total Product Cost + 20% Profit + 10% DVM Pay

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195
Q

Formula for Online Pricing

A

Product Costs + Labor Costs + 30% Profit

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196
Q

What is a break even analysis?

A

An analysis that is used to determine when your business will be able to cover all of its expenses and begin to make profit.

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197
Q

What is a break even point?

A

The amount of revenue that covers all fixed and variable costs, without generating either profit or loss.

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198
Q

What are the options for disposing of expired drugs?

A
  • Return to vendor if possible
  • Dissolve expired tablets in wafter, add to cat litter and dispose of in trash (injectable drugs treated the same)
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199
Q

What things should be considered when purchasing new equipment?

A
  1. Is the equipment new to the practice or replacing existing equipment? If it is a replacement, what benefits does it have over the existing equipment?
  2. How will the equipment be paid for: cash, lease, finance?
  3. What will the client be charged, and where is the break-even?
  4. Cash is typically the smartest, most economical way to purchase.
  5. Perform a break even analysis prior to purchase
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200
Q

What considerations should be made when financing equipment?

A
  • What is the interest rate and terms of the loan, and is it the best you can find?
  • Develop cash flow projections of revenue and expenses, including a reasonable payback plan
  • Equipment loan lengths should not exceed the expected lifespan of the equipment (normally 5 to 7 years)
  • Credit lines are not recommended for equipment purchases since they often must be paid back within 12 months. Credi lines are best left for emergency withdrawals if needed.
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201
Q

What are the 3 C’s that lenders are interested in?

A
  • Cash flow of the project purchase
  • Credit history of the business or owners (owners will often need to co-sign the loan to the business)
  • Collateral
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202
Q

What considerations should be made when leasing equipment?

A
  • Thoroughly research different equipment
  • Interest is often higher for leases than loans
  • Balloon payments can be necessary at the end of the lease in order to keep the equipment
  • The option of returning the equipment at the end of the lease may leave the practice without needed equipment
  • If a piece of equipment has a short life span before it is obsolete, leasing may be a wise strategic option.
  • Lease payments may be 100% deductible on income tax returns
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203
Q

Define ATC

A

Total revenue over a period of time divided by the total number of transactions during that same period; this represents the average amount spend by clients each time they visit the practice. (Average transaction charge)

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204
Q

Define KPI

A

Key metrics (financial and operational) used to measure performance of an organization.

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205
Q

Define Practice Information Management System (PIMS)

A

The software system used by the practice for client invoicing, medical records, inventory, metric analysis, tracking of accounts receivable, and other revenue-related activities.

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206
Q

How much of total gross revenue does vaccination revenue account for in a companion animal general practice?

A

7 to 8%

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207
Q

What percentage of total gross revenue does diagnostic services (laboratory, imaging, and other) account for in a typical companion animal general practice?

A

18 to 20%

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208
Q

What percent of total growth revenue does dentistry revenue account for in the typical practice range?

A

2.5 to 5.0%

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209
Q

What is the typical percentage range of total gross revenue that is accounted for in revenue from product sales (prescriptions drugs, HW prevention, flea and tick products, food, and OTC)

A

28 to 34%

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210
Q

How do you determine revenue ratios?

A

By dividing a particular revenue or expense amount by total gross revenue.

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211
Q

Equation for Total Practice Revenue

A

Revenue = Number of transactions x ATC

Total practice revenue divided by the number of full-time-equivalent doctors of veterinary medicine helps evaluate the productivity of the practice as a whole.

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212
Q

Equation for total doctor revenue

A

Doctor Revenue = Number of doctor transactions x Doctor ATC

Includes revenue for all medical and surgical services

Does not include revenue for ancillary services (boarding, grooming, OTC product sales)

Usually 85 to 90% of total practice revenue

Total doctor revenue divided by the number of full-time-equivalent veterinarians helps evaluate medical productivity of the practice.

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213
Q

What are conditions that cause changes in revenue KPIs?

A
  • Fee increases
  • Change in transactions (number of clients or number of visits per client)
  • Change in recommendations made to and accepted by clients
  • Change in support staff (number, competency)
  • Equipment additions
  • Change sin the demographics of pet owners visiting the practice
  • Range and mix of services
  • Changes in economy
  • Discounts and missed charges
  • Efficiency
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214
Q

What things should be considered when moving towards a more logical fee schedule?

A
  • Cost of providing services
  • Perception of value
  • Similar products should be priced at similar amounts unless there is a value component that will differentiate them.
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215
Q

Define Actual Value

A

Actual value is obtained from real performance. Actual values are either current for the time period being studied, or they may be historical from an earlier time period.

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216
Q

Define Bottom Line

A

Typically, a synonym for profit, referring to the bottom line in financial statements that indicates net profit or loss.

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217
Q

Define Favorable in accounting

A

Historically, people described budget variances as “under budget” or “over budget”. These characterizations created confusion because sometimes being under budget was a good thing sometimes it was a bad thing. In lie of these characterizations, the term favorable should be used. A favorable results is always a desirable result.

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218
Q

Define Operating Budget

A

The most common budget format encompasses a 12-month period of operations. Operating budgets typically include those items found on a profit-and-loss statement, bu not usually items found on a balance sheet or cash-flow-statement

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219
Q

Define Projected Value

A

Projected value is your best guess for anticipated future performance. For example, if last year the practice generated $1000 and the next year it expects to generate $1,100 the practice’s projected value is $1,100.

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220
Q

Define unfavorable in accounting

A

An unfavorable result is always an undesirable result. For example, if the practice projected $1,000 in revenue and only produced $900, the result is a $100 unfavorable variance.

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221
Q

Define Variance

A

Variance is the difference between the projected value and the actual value for each line item in the budget. For example, if the practice’s projected value for the current year was $1,100 and the actual value generated is $1,150, the variance is $50

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222
Q

Define Top Line

A

Typically a synonym for revenue, income (or turnover in some countries), referring to the top line in financial statements that indicates income received by the business.

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223
Q

What factors determine how much product sales contribute to practice revenue and profitability?

A
  • Display space and location
  • Appropriate markups
  • Marketing and sales training of support staff
  • Use of point-of-purchase sales material, signs, and so on.
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224
Q

What are steps that can be followed to increase revenue from laboratory testing?

A
  1. Establish circumstances under which the test will be recommended to clients.
  2. Develop a protocol for recommending the test to clients.
  3. Introduce protocols at staff meetings, and review the benefits associated with the test and its implementation
  4. Implement the program and measure its success. Review results with staff at your next staff meeting.
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225
Q

Define Chart of Accounts

A

Systematic listing of all categories used to group payments in a practice’s accounting system.

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226
Q

Define Cost of Professional Services

A

Group of direct costs associated with producing a product or service; in veterinary medicine, these costs generally include drugs and medical supply expense, laboratory expense, dietary product expense, and other similar items. Employee labor costs are not included here.

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227
Q

What is the first step in monitoring expenses?

A

Ensure that the person paying the bills understands the categories to which expenses should be assigned, and consistently puts expenses in the appropriate categoreis.

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228
Q

What are the two broad categories that veterinary expenses are divided into?

A

Cost of professional services (direct costs of patient care and product retailing, like drugs and professional supplies and laboratory fees) and general and administrative (G&A) expenses.

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229
Q

Define Accrual Basis Accounting

A

Accounting method that recognizes income when it is earned and expenses when they are incurred, regardless of when cash is received or disbursed. The accrual method in its purest form provides a very close matching of assets consumed (G&A costs expended) with revenue generated for the period of time under consideration.

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230
Q

Define Capital Asset

A

A cost that has utility over more than one accounting period; for example, a computer printer

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231
Q

Define Common Cost

A

A cost incurred to support a variety of practice activities and objectives, but cannot be traced to them individually. For example,the salary cost of a veterinarian or technician is a common cost to all of the clients seen and patients treated, but in most cases cannot be purely attributed and allocated to specific patients.

232
Q

Define cost

A

An exchange price at an acquisition date to obtain a present or future benefit

233
Q

Define Direct Expense (Cost)

A

An expense (cost) that becomes an integral part of a specific patient’s care or client sale, that can be physically and conveniently traced to it.

234
Q

Define Expense

A

A measured outflow of services and/or goods, matched to the revenue generated for that outflow.

235
Q

Define Fixed Expense (Cost)

A

An expense (cost) that remains relatively constant in dollar amount within a relative range of practice activity; for example, real estate tax expense.

236
Q

Define G&A Expense

A

All executive, organizational, and clerical expenses associated with the general management and operation of a practice, rather than with delivery of patient care, ancillary services such as pet boarding and grooming, or product/pharmacy sales.

237
Q

Define Modified Income Tax Basis - Cash

A

A method of accounting for income and expenses in accord with US tax laws, which, in general, results in the reporting of revenues as payment is received from clients and o expenses as the practice makes payment to outside parties.

238
Q

Define Operational Revenues

A

Increases in owner’s equity resulting from veterinary professional activities and sales entered into for the purpose of earning income.

239
Q

Define Variable Expense (Cost)

A

An expense (cost) that increases or decreases as a dollar amount in direct relation with the volume of practice activity; for example, office supply expense.

240
Q

Define Cost of Goods Sold

A

Variable expenses associated with revnue

241
Q

Define Operating Expenses

A

Also known as “fixed expenses.” These expenses are less likely to go up and down directly related to sales.

242
Q

Define Professional Salaries

A

Compensation paid to owner, associate, and relief veterinarians. In the case of owner compensation, it includes any monies received out of the practice due to ownership, whether they are from veterinary salary, owner bonuses, return on investment, management fees, or division of profits.

243
Q

Define Revenues

A

All sales of the practice for goods and services.

244
Q

Define Variable Expenses

A

Variable expenses vary with the amount of business being conducted.

245
Q

Define Remote Rate

A

A different hourly wage for working remotely compared with working in the hospital. Some practices pay the same rate, others pay less (believing that remote work is an employee convenience), and others pay more to offset the employee’s office expesne.

246
Q

Define Holding (Carrying) Costs

A

All costs associated with maintaining inventory on the premises

247
Q

Define Just-in-Time Inventory

A

Receiving product as it is needed, rather than storing product as inventory

248
Q

Define Ordering Costs

A

Costs associated with employee time used for shopping, ordering, receiving, and documenting purchased products.

249
Q

Define Safety Stock

A

Inventory remaining past the reorder point.

250
Q

Define Shortage Costs

A

The costs of not maintaining sufficient inventory so that the sale is lost when consumers go elsewhere.

251
Q

Define Shrinkage

A

The loss of product from inventory not resulting from sale; this includes product lost to employee theft, shoplifting, administrative and paperwork errors, and vendor errors/issues

252
Q

How many times per year on average should inventory “turn”

A

8 to 12 times each year, such that product is not sitting on the shelf for more than 30 to 45 days (Keep in mind that your hospital’s A products will more more and have more turns that your B and C products)

253
Q

Define Accounts Receivable

A

Money owed to a practice for services rendered or products sold that is not paid at the time of service or wen the product is dispensed.

254
Q

What percent of gross fees should your accounts receivable fall at or under?

A

1% or less

255
Q

Define Commodity

A

Product that is interchangeable with another product of the same type. The price is a function of supply and demand.

256
Q

Define benefit schedule

A

Summary of covered services, benefit limitations, and applicable co-payments provided in an insurance policy

257
Q

Define Indemnity Insurance

A

System of health insurance in which the insurance carrier reimburses the insured individual fo medical expenses after care has been provided.

258
Q

Define managed care

A

Healthcare system under which healthcare professionals are organized into a group or “network” to manage the cost, quality, and access to healthcare.

259
Q

When should discussion about pet health insurance take place with pet owners?

A

As early as possible (typically when pets are around 8 weeks old)

260
Q

Define Driver

A

An aspect of a business that leads to change in other aspects of a business, usually in a positive fashion.

261
Q

What is the goal of third-party financing?

A

To help pet owners to be able to afford the care their pets need and allowing veterinarians to focus on the delivery of excellent healthcare with minimal involvement in financing.

262
Q

Define Internet of Things (IOT)

A

Physical devices containing hardware, software, and sensors that are connected to a network, enabling these objects to connect and exchange data.

263
Q

Define Blockchain

A

A digital ledger in which transactions for cryptocurrencies are recorded publicly and chronologically.

264
Q

Define Hedging

A

A risk management strategy used in limiting or offsetting the probability of loss from fluctuations in the process of cryptocurrencies. Hedging employs various techniques, but it basically involves instantly exchanging cryptocurrencies into the preferred currency used.

265
Q

Define Mining

A

Cryptocurrencies are made through a very interesting self-limiting system called cryptocurrency mining, and the people who mine these coins are called miners. This involves commanding a computer, or a network of computers, to work around the clock to solve “proof-of-work” problems.

266
Q

True or False: You should only make medical recommendations that fit a client’s financial situation.

A

False, you should always make appropriate medical recommendations for the pet regardless of the client’s financial situation. Never assume a client does not desire or have the ability to pay for services.

267
Q

Who should a veterinary practice extend credit to?

A

The simple answer is no one. To maintain the financial health of the practice, veterinary services should be paid for at the time of service.

268
Q

What are the most common forms of discounting?

A
  • Coupons
  • Bundled Services
  • Reduced fees on service
  • Free services or products
  • Matching Prices
269
Q

Define Amortization

A

Systematic allocation of the cost of an intangible asset over time

270
Q

Define Cash Payback

A

The amount of time necessary between the capital expenditure and the complete recovery in cash (net after expenses) of the amount invested.

271
Q

Define Depreciation

A

Systematic allocation of the cost of tangible asset over time.

272
Q

Define Incremental Cash Flow

A

The change in the practice’s NCF attributable to the capital investment.

273
Q

Define Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

A

The proposed capital investment using the present value concepts to compute the rate of return from the NCFs expected from the investment.

274
Q

Define Managerial Accounting

A

Includes both historical and estimated data that management can use to conduct daily operations, planning future acquisitions, and developing business strategies.

275
Q

Define Net Cash Flow (NCF)

A

Revenues less expenses plus noncash expenditures (depreciation and amortization expenses)

276
Q

Define Net Present Value (NPV)

A

The value of an investment calculated by comparing the initial cash outlay with the present value of the future NCFs by using a management-determined interest rate of return

277
Q

Define Opportunity Cost

A

Amount of income foregone from an alternative to a proposed use of cash or its equivalent

278
Q

Define Section 179

A

An election to expense up to a certain dollar value of qualifying property in the year o acquisition. Qualifying property generally is tangible personal property acquired by purchase for use in the active conduct of a trade or business. A 50% first-year special depreciation allowance was instituted with the 2003 Tax Act. If you acquire depreciable property with a recovery period fo 20 years or less, you may be able to claim an additional 50% first-year depreciation allowance.

279
Q

How much money should a practice set aside for asset replacement or purchase?

A

Approximately 1% of the gross revenue for the year

280
Q

Equation for Payback Period

A

Purchase Price
NCF (Net Cash Flow)

281
Q

When discussing the average rate of return is it better to have a lower or higher ARR?

A

The higher the ARR the more desirable the asset.

282
Q

Equation for Average Rate of Return (ARR)

A

Average Investment = Cost of Asset
2

ARR = _(_Estimate Average Annual Income ÷ Average Investment) x 100

283
Q

Define Amortization Schedule

A

Uses the terms of a loan to provide due dates of payments, and the payment amount detailed by the principal and interest expense portions.

284
Q

Define Balloon Payment

A

Large lump-sum payment scheduled at the end of a series of considerably smaller periodic payments.

285
Q

Define Capital Lease

A

Lease that includes contract provisions that result in treating the leased asset as a purchased asset in the accounts.

286
Q

Define Cosignatory

A

Individual who is not the borrower but who has equal and immediate liability to pay the loan in accord with its terms in the event the primary borrower does not. Generally required of a borrower who has inadequate financial strength to qualify for a loan. The lender evaluates the cosigner’s credit rating, financial statements, and income in combination with those of the primary borrower to document a stronger debt-to-income ratio that enables loan qualification. Somewhat more risky than functioning as a guarantor.

287
Q

Defien Guarantor

A

Similar to a cosigner, an individual who guarantees an obligation and has a legal duty to fulfill it. Common in commercial loans where the primary borrower is the business entity and shareholder or owner personally backs the loan. Unlike the case of a cosigner, the lender must first exhaust all means of collections gainst the primary borrower before the guarantor’s income and assets are attached.

288
Q

How long should equipment loans be mad for?

A

Five to seven years the expected useful life of the equipment.

289
Q

How long should practice purchase loans be made for?

A

10 years

290
Q

How long are real estate and construction loans usually made for?

A

15 to 25 years

291
Q

What are the 5 C’s of a credit rating?

A
  • Character (integrity)
  • Capacity (sufficient cash flow to service the obligation)
  • Collateral (assets to secure the debt)
  • Capital (net worth)
  • Conditions (of the borrower and overall economy)
292
Q

Define Money Factor

A

Term used in leasing that is similar to, but not the same as, interest on a loan. It determines how much you will pay in finance charges over the life of the lease. The lower the number, the lower the total final payment. To convert the money factor amount into an equivalent interest rate, simply multiply the money factor number by 2,400.

293
Q

Define Net capitalizatin cost

A

The amount that is actually being financed by a lease - the retail price minus any discounts and customer down payments.

294
Q

Define Operating Lease

A

A true lease is generally for a short term, and ownership of the asset (the object being leased) remains with the lessor at the end of the lease.

295
Q

What is the residual value of a piece of equipment

A

The value of the equipment at the end of the lease term.

296
Q

What is the primary purpose of using a cash flow budget?

A
  • Predict your practice’s ability to generate a positive cash flow strictly from operations
  • Gauge your practice’s ability to create enough internal resources necessary for expansion
  • Rate your practice’s ability to provide a salary, management fee, and return of capital investment to the practice owner(s)
  • Predict cash flow gaps requiring potential utilization of external resources
  • Discover unfavorable trends and/or financial/operational policies requiring correction.
297
Q

What are the four primary steps of creating a cash flow budget?

A
  1. Preparing a sales forecast is the first step to generating inflows that will drive the other factors in your cash flow budget.
  2. Projecting anticipated cash inflows involves incorporating the cash inflows derived from eh sales forecast previously calculated
  3. Projecting your anticipated cash outflows involves projecting your expenses and other cash outflows over a certain epriod
  4. Consolidating projected cash inflows and outflows to arrive at the practice cash flow (positive or negative)
298
Q

What are the categories of cash outflows?

A
  • Cost of retail goods sold
  • Operating expenses
  • Major purchases
  • Debt payments
299
Q

What is a cash flow gap?

A

A period where cash outflows exceed cash inflows

300
Q

Equation for Average Collection Period

A

Current Accounts Receivable Balance
Annual Sales ÷ 360

301
Q

Equation for Accounts Receivable to Sales Ration

A

Accounts Receivable
Monthly Sales

302
Q

What is the Check 21 Act

A

The Check 21 Act, signed into law in 2003 and effective October 28, 2004, was created by Congress and supported by the Federal Reserve Bank to further automate the American check-processing system. Checks impacted by Check 21 include consumer checks, business checks, cashier checks, teller checks, Treasury checks, and travelers’ checks. By using electronic transmissions and a substitute check, the process can be reduced to hours. Banks are required to accept a substitute check from other banks in place of traditional checks while continuing to accept traditional checks as the system evolves. A substitute check effectively documents the electronic processing of a check. Check 21 does not apply to direct deposits, automatic teller machines, or point-of-sale transactions, or to noncash items such as passbooks or certificates of deposit. It essentially mandates that veterinary practices employ stricter cash management procedures to eliminate any possibility of payment without sufficient cash to cover that payment,as payments could clear a payee’s bank that very same day.

303
Q

Define Goods and Services Tax (GST)

A

A tax paid by consumers on goods and services sold for domestic consumption. The tax is remitted to the government by the business selling the goods and services.

304
Q

Define Value-Added Tax (VAT)

A

An indirect tax on consumption of goods and services in which the tax is incrementally added at each stage where value is added to the supply chain, from production to sale.

305
Q

What are the differences between Value added tax and the sales tax model?

A
  • With the sales tax model, there is a burden on raw goods suppliers and manufacturers to verify that a retailer is not the final consumer, so that taxes do not need to be charged. No such burden exists with VAT since incremental taxation occurs throughout the value chain.
  • With the sales tax model there is a burden on retailers to comply with local, state, and federal sales tax differences. No such burden exists with VAT.
306
Q

Define Imprest System

A

A financial accounting system, most commonly used for petty cash, in which a fixed amount is reserved and then replenished at the end of the period or when circumstances require. So, if the period begins with $100 in the petty cash “float” and by the end of the period $75 has been spent from petty cash, then $75 is replenished and credited to the cash account, and the debits go to the appropriate expense accounts based on the petty cash receipts.

307
Q

Who owns medical records?

A

They are the property of the practice and the practice owners.

308
Q

What are the minimum requirements of a medical record?

A
  • name, address and telephone number of the owner
  • name, number, or other identification of the animal or group
  • species, breed, age, sex, and color of the animal
  • immunization record
  • beginning and ending dates of custody of the animal
  • a short history of the animal’s condition as it pertains to its medical status
  • physical examination findings and any laboratory data
  • provisional or final diagnosis
  • treatment and medication administered, prescribed, or dispenesed
  • surgery and anesthesia
  • progress of the case
  • radiographs and laboratory results pertaining to a given patient
309
Q

What are the three primary functions of patient and procedure logs?

A
  • They allow for the convenient storage of important data
  • They improve the quality of patient care and customer service by helping to standardize how procedures are performed.
  • They help facilitate charge capture and auditing processes.
310
Q

Define continuity of care

A

A broad term that encompasses all aspects of medical recordkeeping and corresponding communications.

311
Q

Define Economic Value Added

A

Monetary value of an entity at the end of a time period minus the monetary value of that same entity at the beginning of that time period; that is, after-tax earnings minus the opportunity cost of capital.

312
Q

What three activities should be analyzed when performing a value-added analysis?

A
  • Client value-adding activities (CVAs)
  • Medical value-adding activities (MVAs)
  • Nonvalue-adding activities (NVAs)
313
Q

What is the equation to determine ROI?

A

(Return ÷ Investment) x 100

314
Q

What is a client value-adding activity?

A

Those activities that provide value to clients

315
Q

What is a medical value-adding activity?

A

those activities that are medically necessary from a medical or hospital perspective

316
Q

What is a nonvalue-adding activity?

A

Those activities that are neither medically necessary nor perceived as adding value from the perspective of the client.

317
Q

What is the equation for economic value added (EVA)

A

NOPAT - (Capital x Cost of Capital)

NOPAT = net operating profit after taxes

318
Q

What is the goal of Continuous Quality Improvement?

A

Improve processes for both internal stakeholders (employees) and external stakeholders (clients and patients)

319
Q

Define Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)

A

Method of continuously examining processes and making changes to them to make them more efficient and effective. It is a team approach to improving quality.

320
Q

What is the FOCUS-PDSA model for Continuous Quality Improvement?

A
  • F: Find a process to improve
  • O: Organize a team for the improvement project
  • C: Clarify the problem and current knowledge of the process
  • U: Understand process variations
  • S: Select improvements
  • P: Plan
  • D: Do
  • S: Study
  • A: Act
321
Q

What does the PDSA cycle do?

A

It is a method to test a change to a process that has been targeted for continual quality improvement.

322
Q

Define Workflow Dynamics

A

How the flow of work is organized to occur at the business place/hospital. This may o r may not be the most efficient; the status quo is often evaluated to come up with a process that might lead to better efficiencies or better customer service.

323
Q

What are the three Cs that banks look at when they are determining whether to finance a projected purchase?

A
  • Cash flow of the projected purchase
  • Credit history of the business and/or the owners.
  • Collateral
324
Q

What percent do banks like to see a debt load at?

A

35% or less

325
Q

What percent of gross revenues should be earmarked for replacing or acquiring new technology equipment yearly?

A

1%

326
Q

Define Debt Service Coverage Ratio

A

A capital structure ratio that measures the ability to pay both the principal an interest with available net cash flow

327
Q

Define Present Value

A

Today’s value for a series of NCFs over a period of time. The principle is to aid in determining if purchasing the equipment will give you positive cash flow for the investment.

328
Q

Define Pro-Forma budget

A

Budget that charts a course of future action for the practice by outlining and defining the plans of the practice in financial terms.

329
Q

What is one of the largest budgeted items in a Pro-forma budget?

A

Equipment and fixtures

330
Q

In the Tax Act of 2003, what are the benefits that IRS improved for small business owners?

A
  • Section 179 increased the amount for eligible property that can be written off in the first year of up to $500,000 with a bonus first-year depreciation of 50% in 2017
  • Eligible property is machinery, equipment, furniture, fixtures, off-the-shelf computer software, and certain other items.
331
Q

What is internal control?

A

The means by which a hospital’s resources are directed, monitored, and measured

332
Q

Define cycle counting

A

An inventory management tool in which select products are counted on a periodic basis to detect inventory errors for continuous quality improvement, so process problems can be detected before official inventory counts or audits.

333
Q

Define Perpetual Inventory

A

System of inventory control in which the number and value of inventory items can be determined directly by stock records and are updated directly as transactions occur. By adhering to perpetual inventory principles, such as the cycle of ordering, receiving, selling, and cycle counting, practices can develop an accurate quantity on hand within an automated inventory system, such as through your PIMS.

334
Q

Define stockout

A

a stockout, or out-of-stock event, is a situation in which the demand for an item cannot be met from the supply in inventory; the amount on hand is insufficient for the amount needed or wanted.

335
Q

What is one of the single most important tools to incorporate in a successful inventory plan?

A

A budget

336
Q

What qualifications should an inventory leader possess?

A
  • Ability to look creatively at the big picture
  • Ability to differentiate between major and minor issues
  • Have a supportive and encouraging attitude toward the inventory team
  • Willingness to do what it takes to get the job done
  • Computer skills that include, but are not limited to, the inventory function of the PIMS, spreadsheet programs, and the internet.
337
Q

Define First In, First Out

A

Method whereby items first placed into inventory are the first taken out of inventory or sold.

338
Q

Define Holding cost of Inventory

A

The cost a business incurs over a certain period of time, to hold and store its inventory.

339
Q

Define compounding

A

Customized manipulation of an approved drug(s) by a veterinarian or pharmacist to meet the needs of a particular patient.

340
Q

Define Extra-Label Drug Use

A

The use of an approved drug in a manner that is not in accordance with the approved labeling

341
Q

Define Generic Drugs

A

Generic drugs are US FDA approved, which requires a demonstrated of bioequivalence of safety and efficacy with the pioneer drug product.

342
Q

Define Legend Drug

A

A drug thtatt can be dispensed to a client only with an order from a properly authorized individual (such as a veterinarian). Legend drugs are often more commonly referred to as prescription drugs.

343
Q

How far ahead should you run an expired drug report?

A

Generate the report monthly for three months ahead.

344
Q

What are the five rights of medication administration?

A
  • Right patient
  • Right drug
  • Right dose
  • Right route
  • Right time
345
Q

What are the most common reason for mistakes in the veterinary pharmacy?

A

Latent errors

346
Q

How long can medication refills be filled/

A

One year from the last veterinarian-client-relationship visit

347
Q

What is the difference between generic and compounded drugs?

A

Generic drug products are FDA approved, which requires a demonstration of bioequivalence of safety and efficacy to the legend drug of the same form and indications. A compounded drug is a medication that has been created by combining or altering ingredients for an individual patient and must be done by a licensed veterinarian or pharmacist.

348
Q

Which act sets the guidelines for when a human generic product drug can be used?

A

The Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act of 1994.

349
Q

When should compounded drugs be used?

A

They should be reserved for circumstances in which there is not an FDA-approved product to relieve the animal’s suffering.

350
Q

When does Extralabel Drug Use occur?

A

When a veterinarian uses a drug other than in accordance with US Food and Drug Administrationr regulations, such as for an unapproved species or disease indication, or at an unapproved dose, frequency, or route of administration, but pursuant to conditions set forth in the Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act of 1994 (AMDUCA)

351
Q

What are the requirements for Extra Label Drug Use?

A
  1. No approved drug for such species-condition exists
  2. No on-label drug with the same active ingredient in require dosage and concentration exists
  3. An on-label drug exists for the species, condition, and in the required dose but will not prove clinically effective for the intended use.
352
Q

What conditions must be met to bypass having to register as a producer under FIFRA?

A
  1. Ensuring the repackaged pesticide is registered by the EPA for a use consistent with the use for which the pesticide is prescribed, and the EPA registered use is nonrestricted
  2. Complying with six labeling conditions (common or registration number, use directions for use prescribed name and address of veterinarian, antidote statement, directions for disposal of pesticide and package dispensed to the client, humans safety precautionary statements including but not limited to “For application to animals only,” “Keep out of reach of children,” and “In case of an accident, contact a local physician immediately”, which must be “physically attached” to the package or, if there is not enough room, to supply the human precautionary statements physically attached to the container
  3. Putting the pesticide in a child-resistant package unless eh veterinarian finds no reasonable possibility a child will gain access
  4. Prescribe and dispense to the client for treatment of a specific pest problem, on a case-by-case basis, as part of the veterinarian’s normal practice.
353
Q

Define Acuiqsition Cost

A

The unit cost at which a product or service can be purchased. Includes any delivery fees and/or taxes.

354
Q

What is a Category I Drug?

A

These drugs do not require a withdrawal period when used in a food-producing species.

355
Q

What is a Category II drug?

A

These drugs require a withdrawal period when used in food-producing animals and are regulated on a “no-residue” basis

356
Q

What is a Combination Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD) Drug?

A

An approved animal drug that is intended for use in or on animal feed in combination with at least another animal drug under the professional supervision of a licensed veterinarian. Animal feed containing a combination VFD drug must be authorized by a lawful VFD order.

357
Q

Define Medically Important Antibiotics

A

Antibiotics that are used in both veterinary and human medicine and are characterized by the World Health Organization and the FDA as important for therapeutic use in humans.

358
Q

What is a Type A Medicated Article?

A

This is a drug in its most concentrated form and is intended for creation of another type A article or mixture into a type B or C mediated feed.

359
Q

What is a Type B Medicated Feed?

A

This feedstuff contains an animal drug that is mixed with vitamins, minerals, and/or other nutritional ingredients by weight.

360
Q

What is a Type C Medicated Feed?

A

This is a complete feed that is mixed from type A or type B feed and is ready to directly feed “free-choice” or “top dress” another feed.

361
Q

What is a Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD) Drug?

A

A drug intended for use in or on animal feed that is limited by an approved application to use under the supervision of a licensed veterinarian. Use of animal feed bearing or containing a VFD drug must be authorized by a lawful VFD order

362
Q

What is a Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD) Order?

A

A written (nonverbal) statement issued by a licensed veterinarian in the course of the veterinarian’s practice that orders the use of VFD drug or combination VFD drug in or on an animal feed. This written statement authorizes the client (owner or caretaker) to obtain and use drug to treat the client’s animal(s) only in accordance with the conditions for use approved by the FDA

363
Q

Define Feasibility Study

A

Feasibility studies aim to objectively and rationally uncover the strengths and weaknesses of an existing business or proposed venture, opportunities, and threats as presented by the environment, the resources required to carry out the entire, and ultimately the prospects for success

364
Q

Define Pros/Cons Analysis

A

A decision-making tool that weighs the advantages (pros) and disadvantages (cons) of a contemplated change. Weighting may be assigned to various pros and cons.

365
Q

Define Talent Acquisition

A

The process of finding and acquiring skilled human labor for organizational needs and to meet any labor requirement.

366
Q

Define Compassion Fatigue

A

A phenomenon defined as the emotional, social, and spiritual cost of caregiving leading toa decline in the desire, ability, and energy needed to empathize with and care for others that ultimately results in the loss of satisfaction in both the professional and personal life of the caregiver.

367
Q

Define Hospice

A

A philosophy or program of care that addresses the physical, emotional, and social needs of animals in the advanced stages of a progressive, life-limiting illness or disability. Provided to the patient from the time of a terminal diagnosis through death, inclusive of death by euthanasia or by hospice-supported natural death. Addresses the emotional, social, and spiritual needs of the human caregivers in preparation for the death of the animal and the grief experience. Animal hospice care is enhanced when provided by an interdisciplinary team approach.

368
Q

Define Palliative Care

A

Treatment that supports or improves the quality fo life (QOL) for patients and caregivers by relieving suffering; this applies to treating curable or chronic conditions as well as EOL care.

369
Q

What is the EPA Regulation 40 CFR 261

A

The regulation that lists the categories of hazardous waste

370
Q

Define Hazardous Waste

A

Waste products harmful or toxic to humans, animals, or the environment. Chemotherapy drugs fall under this category.

371
Q

Define Radioisotopes

A

Versions of an element that have a greater atomic weight due to additional neutrons. Unstable isotopes that emit ionizing radiation are known as radioisotopes

372
Q

Define Regulated Medical Waste (RMW)

A

A subcategory of solid waste covering biohazardous or infectious waste produced by the diagnosis, treatment, or vaccination of an animal.

373
Q

Define solid waste

A

A term defined by the US EPA that covers a broad range of solid and liquid waste products. Most of the waste that is produced by a veterinary hospital is categories and subcategories.

374
Q

Define Universal Waste

A

A subcategory of hazardous waste that includes, but is not limited to, pesticides, mercury-containing equipment, fluorescent bulbs, and batteries. Most veterinary hospitals fall under the federal designation for small-quantity handlers of this material.

375
Q

What act designates categories for hazardous waste?

A

The Federal Resource Conservatin and Recovery Act (RCRA)

376
Q

What are the three categories that define the amount of waste that is generated in a veterinary facility?

A
  1. Conditionally exempt small-quantity generators
  2. Small-quantity generators
  3. Large-quantity generators
377
Q

At what level of the government is the handling of Regulated Medical Waste regulated?

A

At the state level and sometimes by more than one agency.

378
Q

What requirements must be followed in practices that handle radioactive materials?

A

US Nuclear Regulatory Commission requirements.

379
Q

Define mixed waste

A

A combination of hazardous waste and radioactive waste

380
Q

What government agency regulates mixed waste?

A

The Nuclear Regulatory Commission and the Environment Protection Agency

381
Q

What are the two reasons to limit the production of hazardous wast in a veterinary facility?

A
  1. Reduce the regulatory burden and expense of dealing with large quantities of hazardous waste.
  2. To reduce the negative effects on the environment
382
Q

Define Data Architecture

A

Models, policies, rules, or standards that govern which data are collected and how it is stored, arranged, integrated, and put to use in data systems and in organizations.

383
Q

Where do most compliance issues come from?

A

Compliance issues often stem from gaps in client education.

384
Q

Define Thin Client

A

Computer or a computer program that depends heavily on some other computer (its server) to fulfill its traditional computational roles

385
Q

What should be a key priority when it comes to a computer system?

A

The safety and security of your computer system

386
Q

What is the primary reason to use financial software?

A

To retrieve consolidated information from it and to use that information to manage the hospital.

387
Q

What are the advantages of cloud-based software?

A
  • You do not have to keep reinvesting in software for each upgrade
  • Upgrades are completed for you by the software vendor
  • You can access the software anywhere there is Internet access
  • Reduced cost, allowing you to not have to purchase expensive software all upfront
  • Hardware requirements generally do not change because the software is not being stored on the computer
  • Information technology needs lessen because all software updates and server updates are completed remotely.
388
Q

Define Client Lifetime Value

A

A prediction of the net profit attributed to the entire future relationship with a customer

389
Q

Define Customer Acquisition Cost

A

This is the total cost of acquiring a client.

390
Q

What is an information system?

A

A collection of elements that provide accurate, timely, and useful information.

391
Q

What are the three categories a computer can be classified in?

A
  • Mainframes
  • Minicomputers
  • Microcomputers
392
Q

What are the three different types of computers that may be considered for use in the practice?

A
  • Desktop
  • Laptop
  • Tablet
393
Q

What is the average life of a computer system

A

3 to 5 years

394
Q

What are disadvantages of computerized medical records?

A
  • Possibility of server crashing
  • Records can be lost or altered through computer corruption
  • Computer-generated records can lack medical details.
395
Q

What is a problem-oriented medical record?

A

The medical record format most commonly used by veterinary health care teams. Each entry follows a distinct format: the defined database, the problem list, the plan, and the progress section.

396
Q

Define Local Backup

A

A backup that occurs on a local device such as flash drives or external hard drives

397
Q

Define Cloud Backup

A

A backup that is transmitted through the internet to a remote server, and therefore stored offline.

398
Q

What key features should be considered when choosing a backup software?

A
  • Ability to work on your operating system
  • Ease of restoring data
  • Ease of creating backups
  • Automation capabilities
  • Ability to create local backup
  • Ability to create remote backup
  • Mirror image backup
  • 24/7 technical support options
399
Q

What are the three key elements that make up an effective e-mail newsletter?

A
  1. Informational
  2. Educational
  3. Promotional
400
Q

What are the rules for virtual training?

A
  1. Put your training on a diet
  2. Gain attention from the start
  3. Establish relevance
  4. Present information with a twist
  5. Ask compelling questions
  6. Conduct realistic demonstrations
  7. Provoke discussions
  8. Employe interactive activities
  9. End with a bank
  10. Prepare, Prepare and prepare some more
401
Q

What are long term goals of the medical record?

A
  • Perfectly integrated
  • Can be located instantaneously from any location
  • Are secure and confidential
  • Provide enough detail to prevent care gaps
  • Still allow for team efficiency in completing tehm
  • Meet any regulatory requirements
  • Suffice to defend against malpractice claims
402
Q

What is the primary use of medical records?

A

Specific Patient Care

403
Q

What are secondary uses of medical records?

A
  • Better management through analysis
  • Analysis of practice trends
404
Q

What is the starting point for any effective and efficient medical record system?

A

Careful planning

405
Q

What criteria should apply to all examination and treatment records of veterinary services provided to animals?

A
  • Separate record should exist for each patient examined
  • The record should provide readily retrievable information about the patient
  • The individual records should be well organized and should follow accepted standards for scientific writing with the correct medical terminology and learn and objective language
  • The record must be composed as a legal document that will be admissible in a court of law
  • The record must be accurate and legible.
406
Q

What are benefits of using abbreviations in medical records?

A
  • Improve record accuracy
  • increase legibility
  • Reduce time spent writing or typing
407
Q

Define prognosis

A

A medical prediction of the course and outcome of a disease. The prognosis changes with time as the disease or medical condition takes its course, as treatment occurs, and as treatment is modified.

408
Q

What are the three ways that medical records are organize?

A

Source, problem or combination of the two

409
Q

What is the source-oriented medical record?

A

Data is entered on the record and grouped by the information source and then ordered chronologically within these categories.

410
Q

What is the problem-oriented medical record?

A

Uses a protocol of chronologically numbering identified patient health problems. Usually organized into four sections:

  1. The defined database
  2. The problem list
    1. the major problem list
    2. the minor problem list
    3. a medication table
  3. The plan section
  4. The progress section
    1. SOAP
411
Q

What is a disadvantage of the POMR?

A

The extensive time required to compose each complete entry

412
Q

What is the most efficient way to organize the medical record for private veterinary practice?

A

A combination of the SOMR and POMR

413
Q

How does the combination POMR and SOMR medical record work?

A

In a combination method, the medical record includes a major problem list and a vaccination history and organizes the initial examination into the SOAP format. The major identified problems follow, with a source-oriented format, until the appearance of a new, significant issue. At that time, a complete and thorough SOAP write-up may occur.

414
Q

What is the main disadvantage of an alphabetical filing system?

A

The employee doing the filing must be able to spell accurately and recognize when files are out of alphabetic sequence.

415
Q

What is the primary disadvantage of a numerical filing system?

A

The primary disadvantage is the need for an alphabetic cross-reference file.

416
Q

What are the three most paramount purposes of logs in veterinary practice?

A
  1. They are kept to comply with legal requirements, such as those mandating that records must be kept on the use of controlled substances
  2. They provide evidence in the event of a malpractice claim
  3. They are convenient for quick data analysis and auditing
417
Q

What is the name of the FDA safety information and adverse reporting service?

A

MedWatch

418
Q

What is the doctrine of owner consent based on?

A

The need for clear communication with the legally and financially responsible owner of an animal to avoid misunderstanding about care and commensurate cost.

419
Q

What is a veterinarian’s best defense against a client’s allegations of professional negligence or malpractice?

A

A complete, accurate, and legible medial record

420
Q

What are the different types of data input methods that may be used to electronically record doctors’ notes to the computer?

A
  • Transcription
  • Typing
  • Templates
  • Assistant
  • Dictation
  • Sound Files
421
Q

What is the most common argument gainst computerized medical records?

A

The EMR can be altered subsequent to the original input, leading to potential legal problems in the event of a claim.

422
Q

What is the smallest size a paper medical record can be?

A

8.5” x 11”

423
Q

What are the advantages of computerized medical records?

A
  • Easier to capture missed charges
  • Accessibility from any computer station
  • Can use database to create a target market for specific services
  • Efficient
  • Legible
  • Client perception of higher standards of care
  • Computers take up less space than hard files
  • Ecofriendly
424
Q

What are the disadvantages of computerized medical records?

A
  • Risk of server crashing and loss of access to records
  • Potential computer corruption and data loss
  • Can be less detail in computer generated records
425
Q

What are the minimal items that should be documented int eh medical record?

A
  • Name, address and phone number of the owner
  • Patient or group (herd) identification (name, number, etc) and
    • Species, breed, age, sex, and color
    • Immunization record
    • Beginning and ending dates of custody of the patient
    • Physical examination and diagnostic (laboratory, radiograph, etc) findings
    • Patient history regarding medical status
    • Pending or final diagnosis
    • Treatment and medication administered, prescribed, or dispensed
    • Surgery and anesthesia notes
    • Progress of the case
  • Communicating between veterinarian and client
  • Authorization and waiver forms and estimates.
426
Q

What are common examples of license board violations in veterinary medicine?

A
  • Lack of complete patient and client identification
  • Lack of complete system-by-system description with annotated exam notes
  • Lack of tentative diagnosis
  • Lack of prognosis
  • Lack of treatment specified and especially lack of clients waiver or denial of recommendations for a specific treatment or procedures
  • Illegible entries
  • Alterations or deletions of record after a reasonable contemporaneous period
427
Q

What would an ideal medical record include?

A
  • Detailed client and patient information - updated at each visit
  • Previous medical history if the patient has been seen by another veterinarian
  • Vaccination history, including dates and types of vaccines and where they were adminsitered
  • The primary complaint the client presented with
  • Physical examination results
  • Diagnosis or possible diagnosis
  • Laboratory reports, including normal, abnormal, and any consults
  • Treatment recommendations and medications
  • Prognosis, communicated to the client and documented in the record. The prognosis can change with diagnostic results
  • A surgical report in detail, including drugs, duration, suture material size and type, patient monitoring, and initials of all involved medical staff
  • Treatment plans and consent forms.
428
Q

What are common errors of incomplete medical records?

A

Usually include lack of:

  • Lab-work interpretation
  • Pre-operative physical exam notes
  • Anesthetic drugs
  • Initials of employees who are writing in the medical record
  • Hospitalized patient documentation
  • Neglecting to document conversations with owners about prognosis of the patient
  • Documentation of informed consent.
429
Q

What things should be looked at when auditing a medical record?

A
  • Date of entry
  • Initials of all team members writing in the record
  • a complete SOAP format
  • All authorization forms signed by the client
  • Missed charges
  • Recheck and recall compliance
  • Compliance with practice medical standards
  • Medical services compliance
430
Q

What is the most significant drawback to paper medical records and why?

A

Most significant drawback is poor legibility which can lead to patient care mistakes and confusion. Illegible records will also likely work against the practice if ever needed in a court case.

431
Q

How do you make a type or mistake correction on a paper medical record?

A

In the case of a written mistake, correction fluid cannot be used on any medical record, release, or authorization form. A correction should consist of a one-line strike-through with the author’s initials.

432
Q

Electronic medical records should have an automatic ___________ time frame after back-up has been completed and any following entries to the record will be documented as an addendum

A

Software should have an automatic lock-out time frame after a backup has been completed. Entries post back-up will be documented as an addendum

433
Q

Illegible medical records are equal to what?

A

An incomplete, illegible record can be considered an admission of professional incompetence and imply that the care provided was sub-standard.

434
Q

Can a veterinarian still be cited fo medical record violation even if the client complaint did not concern medical records and the veterinarian was acquitted of the client complaints?

A

Although a client complaint is rarely about records, it is the records that the board will investigate to rule on the complaint. Even if the veterinarian is acquitted of a client’s complaint, they could still be cited for medical record violations if they do not meet the minimum standards.

435
Q

In the medical record, only abnormal results are recommended to be documented in the patient medical record. True or False?

A

False

436
Q

Medical documentation must include name of medication, _______, dose given, and route administered.

A

Medication documentation must include name of medication, strength, dose given, and route administered.

437
Q

Define SOAP

A

S - Subjective

O - Objective

A - Assessment

P - Plan

438
Q

What are the possible applications of technology in the veterinary practice?

A
  • On-line continuing education
  • Computerized appointment system
  • Consultation with specialists and experts
  • Digital photographs and digital radiographs
  • Credit Card processing
  • E-mail reminders
  • Electronic medical records
  • Online office procedural manuals
  • Supply purhcase
  • Webpage design and maintenance
439
Q

The system or program the computer follows is called ________.

A

Software

440
Q

______ and ______ purchases will show a greater return on investment than any other capital expense. Why will these things show such returns?

A

Software and hardware purchases will show greater return on investment than any other capital expense in veterinary medicine due to increased efficiency in every department.

441
Q

When considering new software for the practice, if you have employees who lack experience or comfort with technology, what might be an important element when considering the various software benefits?

A

Training provided by the company should be a strong consideration with new software, especially if you have employees less comfortable with computers.

442
Q

Which details below are considered a benefit of using logs in veterinary medicine? (multiple choice)

a. To comply with legal requirements such as controlled substances log.
b. Provide evidence in the event of a malpractice claim
c. Convenient for quick data analysis and auditing.

A

a. To comply with legal requirements such as controlled substances log
b. Provide evidence in the event of a malpractice claim
c. Convenient for quick data analysis and auditing

443
Q

The state Veterinary Practice Act defines minimum medical record documentation for each state. What other entity defines minimal requirements of veterinary medical records?

A

The AVMA Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics

444
Q

What is the most common medical record format?

A

Problem Oriented Medical Record (POMR)

445
Q

Software and Hardware purchases will show greater return on investment than any other capital expense in veterinary medicine due to increased efficiency in every department, True or False?

A

True

446
Q

True or False: Hardware and software are both examples of Information Systems

A

True.

447
Q

Ideally no less than ______ of on-site training should accompany any major software conversion.

A

1/2 day

448
Q

In order to comply with _______________ always ask clients to sign a medical records release form (MULTIPLE CHOICE)

a. HIPAA
b. The Privacy Act of 1974
c. Both a & b

A

b. The Privacy Act of 1974

449
Q

Assets = Liabilities + Equity is more commonly known as what equation?

A

Basic Accounting Equation

450
Q

Which generation can be described as born between 1925 and 1945 and are known to be frugal, work long hours, and strictly adhere to rules?

A

Traditionals

451
Q

The 3 Value Disciples are 3 ways businesses deliver superior value to their customers. The 3 value disciplines are what?

A
  1. Customer intimacy
  2. Product Leadership
  3. Operational Excellence
452
Q

There are two common reasons for complaints from pet owners regarding veterinary referrals, what are they?

A
  1. Failure to mention the availability of specialty care.
  2. Proscrastinating so long in the treatment process that a specialist can no longer help
453
Q

When it comes to negligence or malpractice cases, plaintiffs must prove that a reasonably close causal connection exists between the conduct of the doctor or practice and the occurrence of the injury. What is the term for this element of the cause?

A

Proximate Cause

454
Q

What entity enforces employees rights under teh FMLA?

A

US Department of Labor

455
Q

The FMLA applies to private employers with _____ or more employees working within 75 miles of the employee’s worksite

A

50

456
Q

True or False. Theory X assumes that people prefer to be directed, are not interested in assuming responsibility, and are motivated primarily by money, benefits, and threat of punishment.

A

True. Theory Y believes employees can be self-directed and creative at work if they are properly supported and motivated. So Theory X believes employees want to be directed and Theory Y believes YES employees can be self-directed.

457
Q

The method of recognizing revenue when goods are delivered or services are provided, regardless of when cash is received is:

A

Accrual Accounting

458
Q

What are the different parts of the management process?

A

Planning, organizing, directing and evaluating

459
Q

What are the two biggest areas of weakness in veterinary management?

A

Strategic planning and evaluation of progress

460
Q

What are the steps of the strategic planning process?

A
  1. Defining the Practice’s Vision and Mission
  2. Evaluating the Practice’s Situation
  3. Establishing goals
  4. Implementing Strategy
  5. Evaluation and Control
461
Q

What is the difference between a vision statement and a mission statement?

A

A vision statement gives an inspirational, public-facing perspective of the practice’s vision and commonly held values, the mission statement presents an internally facing and motivational definition of key measures of the practice’s success in accomplishing its purpose and objectives.

462
Q

Define core values?

A

The ultimate standards, those which the owners consider to be inviolate. They steer the veterinary practice as guiding principles of practice conduct, and they are the basis for the rules by which the principals and the rest of the practice team live and make daily decisions.

463
Q

What costs should be considered when pricing laboratory testing?

A
  • The time it takes the team members to draw and prepare the samples
  • The cost of supplies used to obtain the sample if the lab does not provide them. Supplies may include a syringe and needle, formalin if purchased by the gallon, and slides used for cytological analysis.
  • Some laboratories may add a fuel surcharge to the monthly statement
  • Shipping fees if samples are submitted to labs other than those used for general analysis.
464
Q

Define Liaison

A

A person who establishes and maintains communication between mutually beneficial enttities.

465
Q

Regarding financial statements which is more detailed and provides the greatest level of assurance?

a. Compiled
b. Audited
c. Reviewed

A

B. Audited

466
Q

As it relates to tax planning, what is Safe Harbor?

a. A system of calculating this year’s projected tax based on last year’s tax
b. A system created by the IRS that will hold businesses harmless for low-level tax miscalculation
c. Safe Harbor refers to a retirement vesting schedule and income tax deferral

A

A. A system of calculating this year’s projected tax based on last year’s tax.

467
Q

True or False: A liaison is a broad term that refers to the person who maintains communications with any other entity involved with the business of running the practice.

A

True

468
Q

How many diseases are currently known to be zoonotic?

A

1400

469
Q

What is the first step in creating a business contingency plan?

A

A risk assessment

470
Q

In regards to a medical malpractice lawsuit; if a client fails to confine a dog after surgery, or there is proof of any degree of medical negligence by the client, it may eliminate financial recovery for the client in a lawsuit. What term supports this theory?

A

Contributory Negligence

471
Q

Which of the four phases of Strategic Planning is focused on how the practice will get from point A (now) to point B (the future)?

A

Development

472
Q

Leadership Fatigue can be experienced by both owners and managers and usually results from a lack of communication, lack of delineation of job duties, and feeling that they are constantly haggling with the team to carry out policies and procedures. Which element of the strategic plan addresses this dynamic?

A

Organizational design

473
Q

How long can it take to prepare a team member for a leadership position?

A

12 to 36 months

474
Q

True or False: In reference to disease transmission; fleas, ticks, and mosquitoes are considered vectors?

A

True

475
Q

Why is it recommended to have a steady and ongoing relationship with an attorney?

A

This strategy avoids the urgent and crisis-oriented circumstances and maintains more of a preventative relationship for the practice.

476
Q

The role of Liaison for a practice manager involves more than relationships with vendors, what are some examples?

A

The role of liaison is a full time responsibility involving staff, vendors, authorities, professional peers and advisors, independent contractors, clients, practice owners or stock holders, consultants to the practice, and any other relationship involving the practice.

477
Q

What separates CPAs from bookkeepers or accountants?

A

A CPA is a college-trained accounting professional who has attained certification via a comprehensive exam and maintains the certification with continuous continuing education.

478
Q

What considerations should be made when choosing an accounting professional?

A
  • Expect to interview several candidates and do your research about the candidates and their firm
  • Check online reviews and standing with the IRS and state boards
  • Do they have veterinary experience, and how do they stay abreast of veterinary trends. Do they belong to or follow any veterinary associations or periodicals.
  • Check licenses and credentials on-line
  • Match people whose philosophies and personalities are compatible with the practice
  • Obtain referrals from at least two of their long term clients
  • Make sure the candidate’s experience, education, and interests match the role you’re seeking to fill.
  • Beware of a large ego that can get in the way of good service. No one knows everything.
  • Choose an advisor who is busy, they are busy for a reason.
  • How do they structure their fees?
  • Avoid a firm that is too small, in the event of illness or death a small firm may not be able to continue service uninterrupted.
479
Q

To get the most efficiency from a CPA at tax time, it is best to have obtained their services for tax planning prior to the end of the calendar year and to have all accounting records to the CPA by when?

A

The third or last week of January

480
Q

What are the potential benefits of maintaining healthy relationships with vendors?

A
  • Vendors are typically highly educated and well trained by their companies and can often provide you with the most cutting edge information available as to new products, client/owner concerns, and upcoming backorders
  • Vendors have a wide range of experience inside various practices and can offer valuable feedback on how you’re doing, and/or share some good ideas from other practices.
  • Vendors have a wide network within the veterinary community and may know when a practice is coming up for sale, employees who may be looking for work, and may also offer employee training.
481
Q

When implementing control methods for zoonotic disease, treatment or programs are generally focused on reservoirs and shots. Define reservoirs and hosts in this context

A
  • Reservoir - a place where an infectious organism survives and replicates
  • Host - the living organism that provides the environment for the maintenance of the organism but may not be necessary for the organism’s survival
482
Q

What is the most common bacteria present in dog and cat bites?

A

Pastuerella

483
Q

When treating a patient with chemotherapeutic drugs, why is it critical to have detailed and thorough communication with the client?

A

Some chemotherapeutic agents are eliminated in the urine and feces of the pet and can potentially expose family members.

484
Q

In regards to gas anesthesia, what are the three types of gas scavenger systems, and which provides the best protection for employees?

A

Active scavenger system provides the best protection

Passive system

Absorption system

485
Q

Name two steps that should be taken anytime a pregnant woman is working around anesthetic gases

A

Wear an anesthetic monitoring badge

Proper PPE

486
Q

Once a VCPR is established treatment must continue until what conditions are met?

A
  • The animal recovers
  • The practitioner has agreed toa ll the treatment that was agreed upon
  • The animal dies
  • The client terminates the VCPR
  • The responsibility for treatment is transferred to another practitioner with the consent of the client.
487
Q

What are the five strategies to reducing the potential of malpractice lawsuit?

A

Continuing eduction
Maintaining thorough medical records
Practicing informed consent
Staff Training
Referrals

488
Q

What is the Risk Assessment Equation?

A

Hazards + Vulnerabilities = Risk

489
Q

What are the four priorities of general emergency management and what is the brief definition of each?

A
  1. Mitigation - strategies and actions that reduce the likelihood and impact of a threat
  2. Preparation - planning and training action steps that develop the capacity to respond to threats
  3. Response - actions taken in the face of an emergency situation
  4. Recovery - The process of returning to normal after an emergency event. This could be a lengthy process.
490
Q

A relationship-centered practice is defined as utilizing empowered veterinary team members who share veterinary knowledge to develop long-lasting relationships with clients and patients. Which element of strategic planning best addresses this dynamic?

A

Organizational design

491
Q

Lack of follow-through from management, “push” form of learning versus “pull”, and negative peer pressure from team members who have plateaued, are all common reasons for what?

A

Resistance to learning

492
Q

Which phase of strategic planning includes the development of the Mission, Vission, and Values, and why are they so important?

A

The Formulation Phase. The MVVs are critical because they represent the goals of the organization and every decision made for the business, employees, clients, or patients must support the goals, and there for the MVVS.

493
Q

What are examples or routine attorney tasks for a veterinary practice?

A
  • Minimizing liability exposure
  • Review of consent forms, handbooks, waivers, contracts, letters of intent, etc.
  • Conduct practice risk audits and form review two to three times a year
  • Buy/sell agreements
  • Shareholder agreements
494
Q

What is a Certified Public Accountant CPA?

A

College trained accounting professional who has attained certification via a comprehensive exam, and maintains the certification with regular continuing education.

495
Q

What are examples of services an accountant can provide?

A
  • Providing financial statements
  • Audited financial statemetns
  • reviewed financial statements
  • compiled financial statements
  • income planning and tax returns
  • management consulting
496
Q

What is an audited financial statement?

A

A very detailed and lengthy process that uses a sampling of historical financial data to provide the highest level of assurance that the financial statements present a fair documentation of the business’s financial position.

497
Q

What is a reviewed financial statement?

A

Consists of inquiries of practice employees and analytical procedures applied to the financial data. It is a significantly less detailed service than the audit and is focused on confirming that the practices financial statements are in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles, or the CPA will identify the modifications that must be made to successfully conform.

498
Q

What is a compiled financial statement?

A

Provide the most basic level of assurance that the accountant provides after obtaining a rudimentary knowledge of the veterinary industry and the services provided. The accountant will determine if there are any obvious departures from GAAP

499
Q

What are the pros and cons of having only the inventory manager involved with vendors?

A

Pro - Keeps the practice owner and veterinarians from investing time with the vendors

Con - The inventory manager may develop an unfair bias for or against specific vendors.

500
Q

Regarding Zoonoses, define direct transmission.

A

Requires close contact between the reservoir of the disease and the susceptible host

501
Q

What are physical hazards that may be found in a veterinary clinic?

A
  • Animal behavior and restraint
  • Electrical safety
  • Ergonomics
  • Indoor Air Quality
  • Lifting
  • Moving Equipment
  • Noise Hazards
  • Fire Safety
  • Toxicities due to cleaning supplies, chemotherapy agents, x-ray developer and medications
  • Workplace Violence
  • Wet Floors
502
Q

Per OSHA, nosie levels over what level require noise measurement, noise protection, and hearing testing?

A

85 decibels.

503
Q

A practice with how many employees is required to have a fire prevention and response plan?

A

10 or more employees

504
Q

What things should be included in a fire prevention plan?

A
  • Monthly walk-through inspections
  • Fire codes and inspections
  • Exit signs
  • Emergency lighting
  • Fire extinguishers
  • Emergency action plan
  • Blocked entries must be cleared at all times
  • conduct fire drills annually
505
Q

What Chemical Hazards are present in a veterinary clinic?

A
  • Ethylene Oxide
  • Formaldehyde
  • Glutaraldehyde
  • Radiology Chemicals
  • Chemotherapy Agents
  • Anesthetic Gases
  • Anesthetic Agents
506
Q

What are the two classes of anesthetic agents?

A

Nitrous Oxide and Halogenated agents

507
Q

What is an active scavenger system?

A

It provides a means of energetic collection such as a fan that creates an active vacuum. These systems, when functioning properly, provide the best protection for team members.

508
Q

What is a passive exhaust system?

A

Channels waste anesthetic gas through a tube to an acceptable location for evacuation. This system is only good for short distances because the only means of expelling the gas I s the patient’s lung pressure and the rate of flow of the gas.

509
Q

What is an absorption scavenger system?

A

Uses charcoal to remove all halogenated gases but does not absorb nitrous oxide. Charcoal canisters must be replaced after 20g of absorption or the waste gases will overflow into the room.

510
Q

How often does OSHA expect practices will have their anesthetic machines professionally serviced?

A

Every 3 to 12 months

511
Q

What are the two basic types of insurance coverage in a veterinary practice?

A

Liability coverage and property insurance

512
Q

What is liability coverage?

A

Covers damages that the veterinarian causes to other persons, pets or property. A liability policy will contain multiple provisions, with separate limits, for personal injury and property damage caused to others.

513
Q

What is property insurance?

A

Covers damage to the insureds own property.

514
Q

Define malpractice

A

classified legally as a tort (a civil wrong or wrongful act, whether intentional or accidental, from which injury occurs to another) that requires proof of four essential elements, and if any of the elements cannot be provided by a preponderance of the evidence then the cause of actions fails.

515
Q

What are the four essential elements of a malpractice suit?

A
  1. Duty - the duty to practice within the standard of care is typically established at the creation of a VCPR
  2. Breach of Duty - failure to act in accordance with the standard of care.
  3. Proximate Cause - the connection between the negligent act of the practitioner and the harm to the patient or client.
  4. Damages - Harm incurred to patient or client as direct results of the negligent act of the practitioner.
516
Q

Once a VCPR is established, treamtnet of a patient must continue until what parameters are met?

A
  1. The animal recovers
  2. The practitioner has completed all the treatment that was agreed upon
  3. The animal dies
  4. The client terminates the VCPR
  5. The responsibility for treatment is transferred to another practitioner with the consent of the client.
517
Q

Define Contributory Negligence

A

When the defendant in a malpractice action may be able to show that the client was also negligent in the care of their animal. Proof of any degree of negligence may serve to eliminate recovery by the client.

518
Q

Define Comparative Negligence

A

Similar to contributory negligence, except the client’s recovery is determined by the percent of negligence on the part of the client. If the client is found to be 25% negligent, then they will recover only 75% of the total damages. Typically, if the client is found to be over 50% negligent the client cannot recover any damages.

519
Q

Define the assumption of risk legal defense.

A

The defense theory is often used in animal bite cases. The defendant in the case will claim there was an assumption of risk of getting bit and cannot recover damages.

520
Q

What are the possible recoverable damages in litigation?

A
  • The reasonable cost of veterinary care caused by the negligence
  • Transportation cost to another veterinarian such as a specialty practice
  • Lost wages incurred when seeking veterinary care due to previous negligence
  • The fair market value of the animal if it ultimately dies
  • Cost of bringing a replacement animal to the status of the animal that died, including vaccines, specialty training, etc.
  • Loss of income from the deceased pet such as future litters.
521
Q

Define business contingency plan

A

A plan to keep the practice functioning in the face of adverse conditions and to recover quickly from disaster.

522
Q

What should the business contingency plan address?

A
  • Hazards - any threat that could have a negative impact.
  • Vulnerability - a resource threatened by a hazard
  • Risk - the level of danger to a business, individual, or community based on an analysis of threat versus vulnerability
523
Q

What are examples of potential hazards, vulnerabilities, and risks?

A
  • Community or regional hazards
  • Focal hazards
  • secondary impacts
524
Q

What are examples of community or regional hazards?

A
  • Flooding, wildfires, and landslides
  • Drought and severe weather such as a tornado, blizzard, hurricane
  • Disease outbreaks
  • Man-made hazards such as chemical, radiological, HAZMAT accidents
  • Infrastructure failures such as bridges, utilities, communication, or roads
  • Intentional threats such as cyber-attack, terrorism, biological, chemical, explosives.
525
Q

What are examples of focal hazards?

A
  • Structure fire or structure failure or system malfunction such as sewer, plumbing, electrical, roof, walls, etc.
  • Criminal acts such as vandalism, burglary, employee theft, computer hackers
  • Regulatory Compliance failure such as DEA, OSHA, building or fire codes
  • Biosecurity hazards such as zoonotic threats or contamination such as anthrax, salmonella, influenza, etc.
526
Q

What are examples of Secondary Impacts

A
  • Loss of clientele
  • Local, regional, or national economic damage
  • Loss of product availability or supply chains
  • Major foreign animal disease emergencies that can impact local agriculture and economics, or availability of veterinary personnel
527
Q

What is the first step in creating a business contingency plan?

A

Risk assessment

528
Q

What are the 4 priorities of general emergency management?

A
  1. Mitigation - strategies and actions that reduce the likelihood and impact of a threat
  2. Preparation - planning and training action steps that develop the capacity to respond to threats
  3. Response - actions taken in the face of an emergency situation
  4. Recovery - the process of returning to normal after an emergency event.
529
Q

Selection of insurance coverage and benefits, and types of coverage include what?

A
  • Comprehensive business liability, property coverage, general and professional liability
  • Business interruption continuing expenses.
  • Extra expense coverage for relocation and overtime expenses
  • Professional extension - covers the loss, injury, o death of patients in the practice’s care.
  • Loss of income for brick and mortar or mobile practice
  • Personal property
  • Fire and water damage
  • Flood/Earthquake insurance
  • Debris removal and clean up
  • Civil ordinance coverage
  • Comprehensive building and structure replacement
  • Workers compensation
530
Q

What considerations should be made when evacuating?

A
  • Evacuate people outside to a safe place and assign specific responsibilities to employees
  • Evacuate animals whenever safely possible but do not allow people back into a potentially hazardous situation to rescue animals. Local fire departments may assist with appropriate policies
  • Maintain client contact information and ask clients to provide a 24 hour contact number as well as an alternate number.
531
Q

What steps should be taken to validate a response plan?

A
  • Communicate yoru plan to all practice personnel
  • Practice the plan via drills
  • Review and revise the plan
  • Repeat the process at least annually
  • Assign response tasks to specific personnel and assign backup personnel.
532
Q

Who all should be on the recovery team?

A

Ownership, all staff, insurance, government emergency management services.

533
Q

What considerations should be made when creating an identity theft policy?

A
  • Detection of red flags such as someone new to the neighborhood
  • Suspicious looking photo ID
  • presenting a written credit card number instead of the actual card
  • Discrete intake of information - turn computer monitors away from clients viewing range, do not leave sign-up sheets that allow anyone to read personal information
  • A policy to deter identity thieves by using a locked and password protected and secure data storage system for client and employee personal data
  • Limit keyed access to the building, files, computers, and other areas containing personally identifiable infromation
  • Perform regular background checks on all workers, including seasonal and part-time workers
  • Regularly train and update employees on your clinical security procedures
  • Dispose of information that contains any personal data by shredding prior to placing in the outside bins.
534
Q

What are the phases of the business life cycle?

A
  • Introductory - vision, innovation, and energy
  • Growth - efficiency, discipline, and talent development and critical
  • Maturity - manage risks, problem solve, search for continuous opportunity for growth.
  • Decline - decreased demand for services. Revisiting the strategic plan for revitalizing the practice is vital.
535
Q

What are the phases of strategic planning?

A
  1. Formulation
  2. Development
  3. Implementation
  4. Evaluation
536
Q

What tasks are performed during the Formulation phase of strategic planning?

A
  • Development of MVV that represents the goals of the organization and the basis for how every decision is made. Every member of the team must embrace the MVV of the practice.
  • SWOT Analysis - Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats
  • Gap Analysis - Compare current performance with potential or desired performance and leads to the development phase of the strategic plan,
537
Q

What tasks should be completed during the development phase of strategic planning?

A
  • Use the results o the MVV, the SWOT and the GAP to create a plan to achieve the desired goals. Consider:
    • Team members
    • Clients
    • Patients
    • Budget
538
Q

What does the Implementation phase of strategic planning outline?

A
  • Intent is translated into specific plans of action.
  • Allocate resources to the right initiatives, communicate them to team members, manage them effectively.
  • Education, team knowledge, skills, and abilities, and appropriate staffing are all necessary to achieve the goal
  • Incorporate Systems Thinking where consideration is given to how each department affects another
  • Create a plan of action
    • List specific objectives and how the success will be measured
    • How will the objectives be obtained and what resources will be needed
    • What is the time frame for the objectives to be completed.
539
Q

What should be completed during the Evaluation phase of strategic planning?

A
  • Evaluate the success of the original objectives created during the development phase.
  • Consider a balance scorecard that illustrates the state of the practice
    • Client satisfaction
    • financial status
    • learning and development progress
540
Q

Define organizational design

A
  • The methodology identifies aspects of workflow, procedures, roles, and systems and aligns them to fit current business realities and goals.
  • Clearly defines roles within the practice and should empower team members due to clear responsibilities, clear goals, and effective communications.
541
Q

Define Learning Organization

A

A learning organization is characterized by the ability to adapt to change and respond quickly to environmental/consumer changes

542
Q

What are common reasons for failure of organizational development?

A
  • Leadership did not support or commit to change
  • Wrong message or message did not resonate with the team
  • Changes were forceful instead of collaborative
  • Lack of clear communication
  • Change does not align with MVVs
543
Q

What is the adult learning theory?

A

Adult Learning theory states that, for adults, new information must be used immediately to be retained. Adults have three learning styles for best retention - sight, hearing, and touch.

544
Q

What is push learning?

A

Lecture delivery, pushed to the student

545
Q

What is pull learning?

A

Students research data and pull information to themselves. In adult learning theory, pull learning increases retention.

546
Q

Define workforce planning.

A

What team members will be needed to achieve the practice goals from now and forecasting 5 - 10 years from now.

547
Q

What considerations should be made when workforce planning?

A
  • Understand supply and demand
  • Talent Acquisition
  • Talent management
  • Succession planning
  • Employee engagement
  • Integrating technology
  • Budget planning
  • Marketing plan
548
Q

What information should be considered when thinking about future workforce needs?

A
  • Average number of current employees
  • Average practice growth in percent
  • Average employee attrition rate
  • Number of years the strategic plan encompasses.
549
Q

What are the stages of workforce planning?

A
  • Acquisition - hire the right team members is important to strategic goal achievement
  • Talent Management - building the team to deliver the strategic goals that have been put in place
  • Succession Planning - identifying and fostering the growth of high performing employees and preparing them o fill critical positions within the practice in the future.
550
Q

What are the ingredients of practice cultures that support employee engagement?

A
  • Leadership supports innovation and creative thinking
  • Leadership uses high level and clear communication
  • Open book management
  • Support team members emotional well being (physical and psychological health and connectedness of team members)
  • Wages play a large role in employees happiness
  • Team members need to know that leadership cares about them.
551
Q

What areas should be considered for a routine internal audit?

A
  • Human Resources
  • End-of-day reconciliation
  • Controlled substances
  • Financial
  • Data recovery
  • The strategic plan
552
Q

Define future value

A

The monetary value of some define investment at some point in the future, given a specified rate of return.

553
Q

Define internal rate of return

A

The calculated rate of return, given the cost and future value of an investment.

554
Q

Define Net Present Value

A

The net return on a project, given all costs and revenues, in terms of current monetary value

555
Q

Define Present Value

A

The current monetary value of some define investment return, given a specified rate of return.

556
Q

Define Rate of Return

A

The amount an investment appreciates or depreciates over time, often expressed as a decimal or a percentage

557
Q

Define Rule of 72

A

A simple method for estimating the time it would take for an investment to double in value, given a fixed compounding annual rate of interest.

558
Q

What is the equation for Net Present Value?

A

Present Value of all revenus - Present value of all costs

559
Q

What is the equation for Future Value?

A

Present Value x (1 + rate of return)time

560
Q

What is the primary purpose of the balance sheet?

A

to provide a snapshot view of the assets, liabilities, and owners equity at a specific moment in time.

561
Q

Define EBITDA

A

Earnings before interest, tax, depreciation, and amortization. It is profitability measure used by financial analysts of large publicly traded entities

562
Q

What is the business life cycle?

A

The four major phases that describe a business from the time it is formed until the time it is closed: startup, growth, plateau, and decline.

563
Q

What are the most common Productivity KPIs?

A
  • Revenue per FTE veterinarian
  • Revenue per FTE staff members
  • Revenue per open hour
  • Revenue per square foot
564
Q

Define community pricing

A

Establishing a price for a good or service based on the prices charged by others.

565
Q

What are the disadvantages of markup pricing?

A
  • Applying a fixed markup percentage to the acquisition cost has uneven effects depending on the acquisition cost
  • Veterinarians may use markups for commodities that are significantly higher than those used by retailers for the same or similar items, potentially making veterinary prices seem artificially higher than competitors.
  • Markups tend to amplify the cost of products or services that tend to be more expensive or used to treat larger animals while minimizing the cost of less-expensive goods or services or those used to treat smaller animals, unrelated at all to value delivery
  • Markups applied to acquisition costs tend to work best on moderately priced goods and services in which there is minimal variability in price, to when different markups are used in a tiered fashion, based on the acquisition price
  • Paying employed veterinarians ac commission on such items to be marked up forces the final retail price to be even higher to the consumer without providing additional value than was gained from the office visit
  • Using markup enables the easy determination of a retail price, but additional calculations would be necessary to determine indirect costs and profit margins.
566
Q

What all is included in a practice’s overhead?

A

All basic expenses associated with offering services or total expenses minus the cost of professional and paraprofessional staff and the costs associated with materials that typically would be used up in the process of offering services.

567
Q

Define cost driver

A

Quantifiable measure used to assign costs to activities; reflects the consumption of costs by activities.

568
Q

Define cost object

A

Any activity for which a separate measurement of costs is desired

569
Q

Define defalcation

A

Misappropriation of money or funds by someone entrusted with their care or management

570
Q

What are the two broad types of internal accounting controls?

A
  • Prevent controls - procedures designed to prevent an error or fraud at a single transaction level
  • Detect controls - policies and procedures designed to monitor the attainment of relevant processes, including identifying errors or fraud applied to groups of transactions.
571
Q

How do you calculate ROI?

A

Dividing net income by the average operating assets of the company and expressing the result as a percentage

572
Q

Define ATC

A

Total revenue over a period of time divided by the total number of transactions during that same period; this represents the average amount spent by clients each time they visit the practice.

573
Q

What are conditions that cause changes in revenue KPIs?

A
  • Fee increases
  • Change in transactions
  • Change in recommendations made to and accepted by clients
  • Change in support staff
  • Equipment additions
  • Changes in the demographics of pet owners visiting the practice
  • Range and mix of services
  • Change in economy
  • Discounts and missed charges
  • Efficiency
574
Q

What is the first step in monitoring expenses?

A

Ensure that the person paying the bills understands the categories to which expenses should be assigned, and consistently puts expenses in the appropriate categories.

575
Q

What are the four categories of cash outflows?

A
  • Cost of retail goods sold
  • Operating expenses
  • Major purchases
  • Debt payments