Human Resources Flashcards

1
Q

Define Benefits

A

Generally indirect and non-cash compensation made to an employee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define Celebrations

A

The action of marking one’s pleasure at an important event or occasion by engaging in enjoyable, typically social activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define Coaching

A

A working partnership between managers and employees to provide structure, guidance, and support to employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define Interview Questions

A

Questions used during a formal meeting to evaluate another person’s ability to perform a job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define Job Description

A

A written summary listing the elements (tasks, duties, or responsibilities) of a particular job or occupation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define 360 Degree Evaluations

A

A system or process in which employees receive confidential, anonymous feedback from the people who work around them. This typically includes the employee’s manager, peers, and direct reports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define Accountability

A

Answerability, blameworthiness, liability, and the expectation of account-giving. Assuming responsibility for his or her actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define Action Items

A

Specific tasks frequently assigned or accepted at meetings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define Agenda

A

A list of meeting topics to be covered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define Aptitude

A

Component of competency to do a certain kind of work at a certain level, which can also be considered a “talent.” Aptitudes may be physical or mental.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

<p>Define Attendance</p>

A

<p>The action or state of going regularly to or being present in the workplace.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

<p>Define Background Screening</p>

A

<p>The process of looking up and compiling criminal records, commercial records, and financial records of an individual or organization.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

<p>Define Human Resources (HR)</p>

A

<p>The skills that people can use to produce goods and services; including Employment Practices, Organizational Development, Compensation and Benefits, and Employee Relations.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

<p>Define Interactive</p>

A

<p>Influencing or having an effect on each other.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

<p>Define Interview</p>

A

<p>An interview is a conversation where questions are asked and answers are given</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

<p>Define Interview Process</p>

A

<p>A formal meeting in which one or more persons question, consult, or evaluate another person, usually in the context of the hiring process.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

<p>Define Expectations</p>

A

<p>What the employee and employer anticipate receiving from the professional relationship. An employer may have performance expectations. An employee has the expectation of wages for time worked.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

<p>Define Expectations/Goals</p>

A

<p>The result of achievement toward which effort is directed.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

<p>Define flexibility</p>

A

<p>Willingness to change or compromise</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

<p>Define Forward Booking</p>

A

<p>Scheduling the next appointment for clients prior to their leaving the current appointment. Forward booking is strategic compliance and organizational tool.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

<p>Define Full-time equivalent (FTE)</p>

A

<p>A metric used for comparing practices based on a full-time schedule of 40 hours per week.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

<p>Define Goals</p>

A

<p>A goal is a desired result that a person or a system envisions, plans, and commits to achieve: a personal or organizational desired end-point in some sort of assumed development.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

<p>Define High-density scheduling</p>

A

<p>Refers to any scheduling system where the doctor has access to more than one examination room.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

<p>Define Horns and Halo Effect</p>

A

<p>The tendency for an impression created in one area to influence opinion in another area.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

<p>Define Emergency preparedness</p>

A

<p>Process of ensuring that an organization has complied with the preventative measures; is in a state of readiness to contain the effects of a forecasted disastrous event to minimize loss of life, injury, and damage to property; and can provide rescue.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

<p>Define Emotional Intelligence (EI or EQ)</p>

A

<p>A kind of intelligence or skill that involves the ability to perceive, assess and positively influence one's own and other people's emotions.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

<p>Define Employee grievance</p>

A

<p>Specific complaint or formal notice of employee dissatisfaction related to adequacy of pay, job requirements, work conditions, other aspects of employment, or an alleged violation of a collective bargaining agreement.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

<p>Define employee records</p>

A

<p>Employee Personnel Files are defined to include the application for employment, the records which are used or have been used to determine an employee's qualifications for promotion, compensation, termination, or disciplinary action.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

<p>Define Procedure</p>

A

<p>A fixed step-by-step sequence of activities or course of action (which definite start and end points) that must be followed in the same order to correctly perform a task.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

<p>Define Progressive discipline</p>

A

<p>The process of using increasingly severe steps or measures when an employee fails to correct a problem after being given a reasonable opportunity to do so</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

<p>Define Qualified event</p>

A

<p>A change in your life that can make you eligible for a Special Enrollment Period, usually to enroll in health coverage.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

<p>Define Registration</p>

A

<p>Making the commitment, completing the paperwork, and the payment for a continuing education class, webinar, conference, or other forms of delivery for continuing education.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

<p>Define Registry of Approved Continuing Education (RACE)</p>

A

<p>Registry of Approved Continuing Education (RACE) program develops and applies uniform standards related to providers and programs of continuing education (CE) in veterinary medicine.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

<p>Define Severance package</p>

A

<p>Pay and/or benefits that employees receive when they leave employment at a company</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

<p>Define suspension</p>

A

<p>Placing an employee, for disciplinary reasons, temporarily off duty. Usually part of progressive disciplinary action.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

<p>Define termination pay schedule</p>

A

<p>Refers to some states final paycheck laws that define a specific time frame for when a departing employee must receive their final paycheck.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

<p>Define Policy</p>

A

<p>A specific set of systems or principles that guide the decision making of the practice.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

<p>Define Positive discipline</p>

A

<p>A discipline model used by schools, in parenting, and in workplaces that focuses on the positive points of behavior, based on the idea there are no bad individuals, just good and bad behaviors</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

<p>Privacy Act 1974</p>

A

<p>Provides safeguards against invasion of personal privacy through misuse of records by the U.S. Federal Agencies.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

<p>Define Job duties</p>

A

<p>Tasks and responsibilities one must perform on a job.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

<p>Define Legal Implications</p>

A

<p>The consequences of being involved in something determined by law.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

<p>Define maximum contribution</p>

A

<p>The limit to the amount of money one can deduct from their salary to place in a retirement account.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

<p>Define Mediate</p>

A

<p>To intervene between people in a dispute in order to bring about an agreement or reconciliation</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

<p>Define Mediation</p>

A

<p>Intervention in a dispute in order to resolve it; arbitration.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

<p>Define Negotiations</p>

A

<p>A strategic discussion that resolves an issue in a way that both parties find acceptable. In a negotiation, each part tries to persuade the other to his or her point of view.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

<p>Define Open door policy</p>

A

<p>A phrase indicating that the manager's door is open to every employee. The purpose of an open door policy is to encourage open communication, feedback, and discussion about any matter of importance to an employee.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

<p>Define open enrollment</p>

A

<p>A period during which a health insurance company or HMO is statutorily required to accept applicants without regard to health history</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

<p>Define wrongful discharge</p>

A

<p>A claim in breach of contract or in tort for the ending of an employment contract by an employer, for some unlawful reasons.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

<p>Define harassment</p>

A

<p>Any unwanted or undesirable conduct that puts down, shows hostility or an aversion to another person. Harassment can come from co-workers, employers or clients.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

<p>Define hostile work environment</p>

A

<p>Exists when conduct by anyone in the workplace has the purpose or effect of creating a hostile, intimidating or offensive working environment.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

<p>Define in-house continuing education</p>

A

<p>Continuing education provided by or within the organization</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

<p>Define investigation</p>

A

<p>Researching, collecting and evaluating information with the intent of confirming the facts or truth of the situations. Examples include the investigation of a hostile work environment claim, a violation of OSHA procedures, or low inventory counts.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

<p>Define Double-book</p>

A

<p>Reserve for two different clients at the same time.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

<p>Define down-time</p>

A

<p>a time of reduced or inactivity</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

<p>Define total compensation</p>

A

<p>Is everything the practice provides in exchange for working. It can include wages and benefits such as medical benefits, paid time off, continuing education etc.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

<p>Define unemployed</p>

A

<p>Without a paid job but available to work</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

<p>Define Whistle-blowing (blower)</p>

A

<p>A person who exposes any kind of information or activity that is deemed illegal, dishonest, or not correct within an organization that is either private or public.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

<p>Define Core Values</p>

A

<p>Belief systems of the practice. The cultural values that guide team member's work for the practice</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

<p>Define Cost Benefit Analysis</p>

A

<p>A process by which business decisions are analyzed. The benefits of a given situation or business-related action are summed and then the costs associated with taking that action are subtracted.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

<p>Define cross-training</p>

A

<p>Training that covers several tasks within a department or multiple departments within an organization</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

<p>Define deadlines</p>

A

<p>The latest date or time by which a task or project should be completed.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

<p>Define Delegate</p>

A

<p>authorizing subordinates to make certain decisions.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

<p>Define department collaboration</p>

A

<p>When two or more departments are able to jointly improve, update or create a service, policy or procedure for the practice.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

<p>Define Diversity</p>

A

<p>The condition of having or being composed of different elements.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

<p>Define Communication</p>

A

<p>The act or process of using words, sounds, signs, or behaviors to express or exchange information or to express your ideas, thought, feelings, etc., to someone else.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

<p>Define compensation budget</p>

A

<p>An estimate of salary or wage expenditures for a set period of time</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

<p>Define confidentiality</p>

A

<p>Restricting the dissemination of information</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

<p>Define Continuing Education (CE)</p>

A

<p>On-going training of staff through refresher courses, journals and texts, conferences, educational programs, and self-study courses.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

<p>Define Team Building</p>

A

<p>The use of different types of interventions that are aimed at enhancing social relations and clarifying team members' roles, as well as solving tasks and interpersonal problems that affect team functionality.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

<p>Define System</p>

A

<p>A set of detailed methods, procedures and routines created to carry out a specific activity, perform a duty, or solve a problem</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

<p>Define Support Staff/DVM Ratio</p>

A

<p>Refers to how many support staff members are on duty compared to number of doctors on duty at a time. Six support staff for two doctors would be a 3:1 ratio.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

<p>Define staff meeting facilitation</p>

A

<p>The act of planning and conduction a staff meeting.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

<p>Define Results-oriented</p>

A

<p>A term used to describe knowing what results are important, and focusing resources to achieve them.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

<p>Define Expense Reimbursement Policy</p>

A

<p>A written policy that outlines what forms to use, when to submit them, the need to retain all receipt and when the reimbursement will be made.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

<p>Define training</p>

A

<p>Teaching skill sets to employees</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

<p>Define Time off Requests</p>

A

<p>Requests for time periods when you are not required to work</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

<p>Define To-do lists</p>

A

<p>A systematic way to record items that need to be completed</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

<p>Define Team Interviews</p>

A

<p>A type of employment interview involving the participation of two or more current employees</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

<p>Define employement status</p>

A

<p>The legal status and classification of someone in employment as either an employee or someone working on their own account (self-employed).</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

<p>Define empowerment</p>

A

<p>To give power or authority to; authorize, especially by legal or official means.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

<p>Define Essential Functions</p>

A

<p>Those functions that the individual who holds the position must be able to perform unaided, or with the assistance of reasonable accommodation.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

<p>Define Employee Benefits Review</p>

A

<p>A process by which an organization reviews and measures their employee benefits as a competitive factor for attracting employees.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

<p>Define employee surveillance</p>

A

<p>The use of various methods of workplace surveillance to gather information about the activities and locations of staff members.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

<p>Define employee retention</p>

A

<p>The ability of an organization to retain employees and reduce staff turn-over ((#of positions retained)/(# of positions in the organization))x100</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

<p>Define Corrective Action</p>

A

<p>Process of communicating with employees to improve unacceptable behavior or performance and setting standards and consequences for not meeting those standards.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

<p>Define documentation</p>

A

<p>Materials that provide official information or evidence that serves as a record</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

<p>Define due process</p>

A

<p>The legal requirement that the state must respect all legal rights that are owed to a person</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

<p>Define contribution</p>

A

<p>A gift or payment to a common fund or collection</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

<p>Define Continuing Professional Development</p>

A

<p>Another term for continuing education</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

<p>Define conuting education policy</p>

A

<p>A written policy, typically within the practice Hospital Employee Handbook, that includes but isn't limited to; details on what courses are acceptable, expenses that will and will no be reimbursable, and the process for scheduling.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

<p>Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985 (COBRA)</p>

A

<p>Allows for limited continuation of group health benefits to covered employees who leave their employment under certain circumstances.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

<p>Define Constructive Discharge</p>

A

<p>Occurs when an employee resigns as a result of an employer creating a hostile work environment.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

<p>Define Continuing Education Allowance</p>

A

<p>A specific amount set aside per employee, usually annually, to be spent on continuing education expenses.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

<p>Define Continuing Education Credit</p>

A

<p>A measure used in continuing education programs that are earned upon completion of that program. Many professional licenses or certifications require a specific amount of credits in order to renew the license or certification.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

<p>Define Audits</p>

A

<p>Systematic inspection of records for accuracy and compliance. Typically done for medical records, financial records, tax records, safety records.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

<p>Define Benefits Waiting Period</p>

A

<p>The period of time before an employee is eligible for a benefit</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

<p>Define Code of Conduct</p>

A

<p>A set of rules outlining social norms, and rules and responsibilities of, or proper practices for an individual or organization.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

<p>Define Confidential</p>

A

<p>Limited to persons authorized to use information, documents, etc.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

<p>Define Conflict Resolution</p>

A

<p>Process of resolving a dispute or disagreement</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

<p>Affordable Care Act 2010 (ACA)</p>

A

<p>U.S. Federal statute mainly designed to expand access to health care insurance, decrease rising costs, and focus on prevention and wellness.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

<p>Define Arbitration</p>

A

<p>A form of settlement negotiation facilitated by a neutral third party.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

<p>Define Motivation</p>

A

<p>It is the process of stimulating people to actions to accomplish the goals.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

<p>Define Onboarding</p>

A

<p>The planned and executed process of welcoming, orienting and training a new employee.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

<p>Define Participation</p>

A

<p>The action of taking part in something</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

<p>Define Working Interview</p>

A

<p>To have an applicant prove their job skills to you by having them perform the duties of the job alongside their future co-workers. This is also an opportunity to ensure that they are a good fit for the organization.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

<p>Define Workflow</p>

A

<p>The progression of steps (tasks, events, actions, etc.,) that comprise a work process. A repeatable pattern of activity.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

<p>Define Wage Review</p>

A

<p>The assessment or review of the salary paid to an employee, where decisions are taken on whether the employee's pay should be increased, etc.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

<p>Define Vision Statement</p>

A

<p>A statement that defines and clarifies the direction in which an organization needs to move</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

<p>Define Vendor appointments</p>

A

<p>Specific times scheduled with an outside party related to products and supplies for the business.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

<p>Define Role-Playing</p>

A

<p>The changing of one's behavior to assume a role, usually in the context of training sessions.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

<p>Define Learning Styles</p>

A

<p>The way, or ways, in which an individual prefers and is most successful at learning. Examples include: visual, auditory, kinesthetic, tactile and analytical.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

<p>Define Management Style</p>

A

<p>The method of leadership that an administrator usually employees when running a business.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

<p>Define Patient Scheduling</p>

A

<p>The act of communicating with a client to define a specific time for them to visit the hospital.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

<p>Define Protected Class Awareness</p>

A

<p>A protected class is a group of people with a common characteristic who are legally protected from employment discrimination on the basis of that characteristic.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

<p>Define prioritizing</p>

A

<p>To determine the order in dealing with or completing tasks according to their relative importance.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

<p>Define Pre-Adverse Action and Adverse Action</p>

A

<p>Adverse action means a denial of employment, or any other decision for employment purposes, that adversely affects any current or prospective employee. The employer must provide a notice to the applicant prior to taking the adverse action.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

<p>Define Performance Improvement Plan (PIP)</p>

A

<p>A plan aimed at improving an employee's performance and/or behavior. Use a PIP to identify a performance problem(s) and look for ways to improve the performance of a staff member.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

<p>Define Performance Evaluation</p>

A

<p>A system used to determine and report how well an individual employee has performed during a period of time.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

<p>Define Peer Evaluations</p>

A

<p>The evaluation of creative work or performance by other people in the same field in order to maintain or enhance the quality of work, or performance in that field.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

<p>Define Mission Statement</p>

A

<p>A statement of the role, or purpose by which a practice intends to serve its stakeholders.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

<p>Define Exit Interview</p>

A

<p>Interview between an employer and a departing employee, conducted in part to determine why the employee is leaving the employment, regardless of circumstances.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

<p>Define Mentoring</p>

A

<p>Informal relationship where, on an ongoing basis, a more experienced individual offers guidance and/or career advice to a less experienced colleague.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

<p>Define Minutes</p>

A

<p>Written or recorded documentation used to inform attendees or non-attendees what was discussed at the meeting. Minutes frequently include attendees, agenda, decisions, action items, and due dates.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

<p>Define Leadership</p>

A

<p>The art of guiding people in a manner that commands their respect, confidence, and whole-hearted cooperation</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

<p>Define Job Satisfaction Survey</p>

A

<p>A survey given to employees where the intent of the questions is meant to help determine the level of contentment or satisfaction with their position or specific tasks.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

<p>Define Knowledge Gaps</p>

A

<p>An area of knowledge or training that is absent in an individual, department, or company. The purpose of identifying Knowledge Gaps is to then fill in those gaps with appropriate training.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

<p>Define Relief Veterinarian (DVM)</p>

A

<p>A veterinarian who works for a veterinary hospital on a temporary basis.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

<p>Define Regency Error</p>

A

<p>Inaccuracy of flaw in performance appraisal or job interview, caused by the evaluator's or the interviewer's reliance on the most recent occurrences of the employee's or the applicant's behavior.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

<p>Define Reference Checks</p>

A

<p>Contacting previous employers of a job applicant to determine his or her job history.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

<p>Define Reasonable Accommodation</p>

A

<p>As defined by the U.S. Department of Justice, "any modification or adjustment to a job or the work environment that will enable a qualified applicant or employee with a disability to participate in the application process or to perform their job."</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

<p>Define Skill Sets</p>

A

<p>A person's range of skills or abilities.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

<p>Define Employee Turnover</p>

A

<p>Employee turnover refers to the percentage of workers who leave an organization and are related by new employees.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

<p>Define Employment Manual</p>

A

<p>Manuals explaining the terms and conditions employees must operate under while working for a given business.</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Federal law that protects employees over 40 years of age from discrimination in employment practices based on the employee’s age

A

Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Five Areas of HR function

A
Basic workplace policies
Staffing
Compensation and Benefits
Training, Developing, and Retaining Employees
Regulatory Issues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Four Disciplines Necessary for effective performance management

A
  1. Hold all employees accountable for their local performance outcomes
  2. Teach all employees to identify, deploy, and develop their strengths
  3. Align all performance appraisals and review systems around identifying, deploying, and developing employee strengths.
  4. Design and build each role to create world-class performers in the role
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Moral Distress

A

When you know the ethically appropriate action to take, but you are unable to act upon it, and you act in a manner contrary to your personal and professional values, which undermines your integrity and authenticity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

The 4 A’s to rise above moral distress

A
  1. Ask - reflect on your present feelings and ask yourself questions to determine whether moral distress is present.
  2. Affirm - Make a commitment to address the moral distress
  3. Assess - Contemplate readiness to act, considering the risks and benefits
  4. Act - Implement strategies to initiate changes and manage any resulting setbacks. Also where you preserve your integrity and authenticity.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Symptoms of compassion fatigue

A
Resulting behaviors that become recognized as resulting from compassion fatigue
Bottled-up emotions
Impulse to rescue animals in need
Isolation from others
Sadness and Apathy
Need to voice excessive complaints about management and coworkers
Lack of interest in self-care practices
Reoccurring nightmares and flash backs
Persistent physical ailments
Difficulty with concentrating
Mental Fatigue
Proneness to accidents.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Three levels of minimizing compassion fatigue

A
  1. The professional must take care of their own self-needs, use the opportunity to rest and relax and recharge and putting their personal needs at the bottom of the list.
  2. Be mindful to treat our colleagues well, to provide mentoring and support and have the conversations about the negative feelings that can arise while caring for others.
  3. Organization’s responsibility to care for its workers, to create a culture where compassion is emulated and rewarded.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Five types of records needed in employee files

A
Personnel Files
Medical Records Files
Equal Employment Opportunity Data
I-9
Paryoll and Benefits
142
Q

At-Will Employment

A

Unless a specific provision in an employment contract states an agreed-upon duration of employment, employees may quit and employers may terminate “at-will” according to their own preference.

143
Q

ABCDEF Formula for Corrective Action Meetings

A
A = Awareness - explain problem clearly
B = Behavioral Expectations - Explain needed improvement and acceptable behavior
C = Consequences - Know what consequences you will give the employee
D = Decision Confirmed - Ask employee if willing to change behavior - employee makes commitment
E = Employee Involvement - Employee makes action plan
F = Follow Up - set a time frame and meet with the employee to discuss progress.
144
Q

Three basic steps of hiring a new employee

A

Recruitment, Screening and Selection

145
Q

Sources of Information about Candidates

A

Letter of Qualification, Resume, Letters of Reference, Telephone Calls to references, Internet Searches

146
Q

Mediums to Place Help Wanted Ads

A
Placement Services
Employment Agencies
Professional Recruiting Agencies
Temporary Services
High Schools and Trade Schools
Professional Schools
Current Employees
Personal Contacts
Other Practices
Vendor Reps and Salespeople
Professional Networking
Clients
Newspaper Advertising
Professional Journal
Publication Ads
Assocation Newsletters
Other Newspapers/Letters
Marquis Advertising
Web/Internet Advertising
147
Q

Parts of a Job Description

A
Position Title
Summary
List of Duties and Responsibilities
Description of Necessary Skills and Qualifications
Description of Accountability
148
Q

Two key ingredients in a complete plan for staff acquisition

A

Budget and Job Description

149
Q

Job Description

A

Outlines of the duties and responsibilities of each position in the hospital

150
Q

Three Components of a Message

A

Verbal (The Words Used) 7%
Paraverbal (Tone of Voice) 38%
Nonverbal (Eye contact, facial expressions, posture) 55%

151
Q

The 12 C’s for team building

A
Clear expectations
Context
Commitment
Competence
Charter
Control
Collaboration
Communication
Creative Innovation
Consequences
Coordination
Cultural Change
152
Q

Emotional Intelligence

A

The ability to identify, assess, and control one’s emotions

153
Q

Empower

A

To give power or authority to; to authorize; to enable or permit

154
Q

Expectancy Theory

A

The theory that motivation is increased when employees believe that increased effort leads to desired results

155
Q

Chart of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

A
Self Actualization (top)
Esteem Needs
Relationship Needs
Safety Needs
Physiological Needs (bottom)
156
Q

Compensation

A

Total monetary pay given to employees for their work during a period. Can represent both monetary and non-monetary amounts paid to employees.

157
Q

Objectives of a compensation system

A

Attract, retain, and motivate high performers
maintain internal consistency in how people are paid
recognize and reward performance

158
Q

Steps to develop a compensation system

A
  1. Identifying positions in the practice and critical skills and attributes for each position
  2. Identify community pay scales
  3. Communicate expectations to employees
  4. Evaluate performance based on expectations
  5. Determine Pay
159
Q

SIMPLE IRA

A

Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees

  • Allows eligible employees to set aside part of their pre-tax compensation to contribute to the plan
  • Employer required to match dollar for dollar or a specified percentage nonelective contribution to all eligible employees
160
Q

Hiring Cycle

A
  1. Identify Need for a hire
  2. Determine skills/level of personnel
  3. Can someone in-house be promoted?
  4. Write/review job description
  5. Determine where to source candidates
  6. Develop screening process
  7. Create ad and place
  8. Respond to applicants in a timely manner
  9. Evaluate candidates
  10. Make offer
  11. Obtain signature accepting position
  12. Inform new hire of orientation schedule
  13. Develop training schedule
  14. Have mentor program in place
  15. Set feedback timeline
161
Q

Behavioral interviewing

A

A job interview technique in which the applicant is asked to describe past behavior and experiences to help determine appropriateness for the current position.

162
Q

The Four C’s of Onboarding

A

Compliance
Clarification
Culture
Connection

163
Q

70/20/10 Rule

A

Lombardo and Eichinger
70% of learning within an organization should come from on-the -job training
20% from coaching and mentoring
10% from courses, lectures, formal training

164
Q

Employment Development

A

Helps improve the vision, empowerment, learning and problem solving abilities of team members

165
Q

Mission

A

The purpose of the hospital; the fundamental reason that the practice exists

166
Q

Vision

A

The desired future of the practice

167
Q

Values

A

Guiding principles that are not to be compromised during change; providers ethical guidance and will not be violated

168
Q

Organizational Development

A

The development, improvement, and effectiveness of an organization that include culture, values, system, and behaviors.

169
Q

Human Skill

A

The ability to understand people and what motivates them and to be able to direct their behavior through effective leadership

170
Q

Technical Skill

A

The ability to apply leadership, skill, and knowledge of equipment, procedures, and hospital policies to team members in an effective ambitious manner

171
Q

Conceptual Skill

A

The ability to sense how the leadership style affects the practice and to make change in a positive way.

172
Q

The Four R’s of Team Management

A

Responsibility - A duty or obligation that a team member is expected to uphold
Respect - Consideration or esteem given to another person
Rapport - Mutual Trust or emotional relationship that exists among team members
Recognition - achievement

173
Q

SMART Goals

A
S:  Specific
M:  Measurable
A:  Agreed/Achievable/Action-Oriented
R:  Realistic
T:  Time Bound
174
Q

Six step approach to effective coaching for the exam room

A
  1. Preparation - be prepared before client arrival
  2. Approach - Greeting clients/how you enter the room
  3. Diagnosis - diagnosis of the client, effective listening and questioning
  4. Recommendation - connect pet owners’ concerns to a product, service, or program
  5. Addressing concerns - Acknowledge, clarify, answer, verify, close
  6. Commitment & Follow - Up - Summarize key points complete records, verify and schedule rechecks
175
Q

True or Fals: It is important for managers to remember that reviews are about performance and not goals

A

False - It is important fo rmanagers to remember that reviews are about performance and not blame.

176
Q

Employee performance reviews should include:

A
  • Clarity about goals and direction
  • Addressing team member accomplishments
  • Address concerns over policy and procedure
177
Q

Productive staff meetings need to have _________ decided in advance

A

Goals

178
Q

What are some ways to engage team members at a staff meeting?

A
  • Publicly praise work well done and celebrate success
  • Do not allow meetings to turn into gripe sessions
  • Share important information, changes, and progress towards goals so people want to be at the meeting and not miss out on the announcements
  • Learning games or ice breaker exercises.
179
Q

True or False: Staff Meetings are a good way to create team bonding and introduce new policies, or products but they rarey show a financial return on investment.

A

False

180
Q

What are the benefits of cross-training include:

A
  • Employee knowledge of the practice as a whole, and the roles of others in the practice
  • When team members are ill or absent, client service and wait times do not have to decline.
  • Places another level of employee accountability into the system, helping to reduce the occurrence of fraud and theft.
181
Q

When it comes to management, daily work assignments ______ and _____ are the keys to a successful veterinary practice.

A

Delegation and Empowerment

182
Q

What are the Four 4’s of team management

A

Responsibilty
Respect
Rapport
Recognition

183
Q

In Dense Scheduling, how long are the appointments for wellness care?

A

15 minutes

184
Q

Regarding the practice client schedule, what is the definition of an emergency.

A

Where no doctor is immediately available and one must be pulled from another client

185
Q

What type of scheduling makes the best possible use of the facility space and team?

A

Dense Scheduling

186
Q

True or False: The foundation of successful individual development plans consist of creating a culture where coaching is expected and appreciated

A

False - establishing a learning environment and a practice culture where training is a continuous event for all employees is the foundation for this program.

187
Q

When it comes to individual development plans, what are the three main details that should be addressed?

A

Development, training, and career management

188
Q

_____ is the planned and executed process of welcoming, orienting, and training a new employee

A

Onboarding

189
Q

A pre-adverse action letter should be used when?

A

When considering not hiring a candidate due to details revealed in a pre-employment background check

190
Q

_____ refers to the degree to which the test actually measures what it claims to measure

A

Validity

191
Q

What are the 5 key factors in considering when to hire?

A
Veterinary Staff Ratio
Veterinary Production
Team Member Production
Staff Payroll Percentages
Hospital Workflow
192
Q

Employee Life Cycle

A

Acquisition to
Orientation and Training to
Performance Feedback and Evaluation to
Leave the Practice

193
Q

Reliability

A

How dependably or consistently a test measures a characteristic

194
Q

Three Main parts of an individual development plan

A
  • Training - An ongoing process that focuses on the employee’s current job and it’s related knowledge skills, and abilities
  • Development - Focuses on skills, knowledge, and abilities that are not necessarily focused on their current job
  • Career Management - Serving as a career coach for employees and supporting them through the employment cycle
195
Q

Role of a meeting facilitator

A

Starting and ending the meeting on time
Controlling topics
Preventing negativity from overcoming the team
Prioritizng topics
Tactfully preventing a team member from dominating the meeting

196
Q

Three most common types of reviews

A
  • 360 Peer Review - A system or process in which employees receive confidential, anonymous feedback from the people who worked around them. Typically includes managers, peers, and direct reports.
  • Self Review - A system that asks team members to give their objective assessment of their performance within a specific time frame
  • Job Satisfaction Survey - Created to assess the team members true job satisfaction
197
Q

Four disciplines necessary for effective performance review.

A
  1. Hold all employees accountable for their local performance outcomes
  2. Teach all employees to identify, deploy, and develop their strengths
  3. Aligh all performance appraisals and review systems around identifying, deploying, and developing employee strengths
  4. Design and build each role to create world class performers in the role.
198
Q

In regards to changing organizational culture, there are five key steps in making a culture change within a practice. What are those 5 steps, and of those 5 steps, which step states that “The bottom line is that if a leader wants to create a different culture within the hospital, the leader has to go first?

A
  • Define the cluture
  • Align Behaviors with the desired culture
  • Commit to the change*
  • Support the shift
  • Grow the team
199
Q

Emotional Intelligence is often described by five levels of competence in which to focus on personal improvement. What are those 5 levels.

A
Self-awareness
Self-Control
Self-Motivation
Empathy
Effective Management of Relationships
200
Q

Four steps of the management process

A

Planning
Organizing
Directing
Evaluation

201
Q

Onboarding

A

Implementing and using a plan to start a new employee out effectively with a prepared welcome, orientation, and training schedule

202
Q

Three basic approaches to employee performance evaluations

A

Formal performance reviews
Coaching coversations
corrective-action discussion

203
Q

Employers Responsibilities under OSHA laws

A
  • Provide a workplace, insofar, as possible, free from recognized or unnecessary hazards
  • Set and enforce safety rules in the workplace and to communicate those rules to staff members in a clear and concise manner
  • Provide PPE and proper instructions for its use so that staff members can perform tasks safely.
  • Provide training and instructions for staff members to understand the hazards associated with their jobs and the steps necessary to protect themselves.
204
Q

OSHA

A

Created to enact and enforce safety rules for American workplaces. These rules are known as standards and are published in Title 29 of the Code of Federal Regulations

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

205
Q

The four elements to OSHA’s compliance and safety program

A

Administrative Tasks
Evaluation and control of facility or procedural hazards
The use of PPE
Staff Training

206
Q

Information found on MSDS sheets

A
  • Identity of the chemical
  • Physical and chemical characteristics
  • Health hazards
  • Permissible exposure limits
  • Whether it is a carcinogen
  • Emergency first aid procedures
  • Specific hazards (fire, health, reactivity, special hazard, PPE)
207
Q

Hazardous Material List Items

A
Injectable Medications
Pesticides
Antiseptics
Disinfectants
Sanitizers
Laboratory Reagants
Radiographic Chemicals and Supplies
Disinfectants and hospital sanitizers (including bleach but not routine cleaners)
Compressed gases
208
Q

What items/information should new employees need immediate awareness of.

A
  • Location of first aid kit, eye wash stations and emergency exits
  • Location of PPE and instructions on use
  • Location of mandatory posters
  • Location of hospital safety manual
  • Copies of all applicable OSHA standards
209
Q

Three elements created to help motivate employees to their highest potential

A

Autonomy
Mastery
Purpose

210
Q

Herzberg’s Motivator Hygiene Theory

A

The theory that meeting basic needs results in motivation and increased performance

211
Q

What are phase training lists and what are 4 benefits of using them

A

Outlines the progressive steps in training for a specific position within the practice.

  1. Helps ensure team members are trained properly
  2. Aids in titrating information/instruction to the employee to avoid overloading them early in the process
  3. Provides a resource for training prep for the trainer
  4. Provides reference and review material for the new employee and phase training can accommodate a new employee that already has some experience.
212
Q

Bonafide Occupational Qualification BFOQ

A

To establish the defense of BFOQ, the employer has the burden of proving that a particular class of employees would be unable to perform the job safely or efficiently and the BFOQ is reasonably necessary to the operation of the business.

213
Q

Four necessary elements to hold working interviews

A

Must be on payroll
Must be eligible to work in U.S.
Must be paid at least minimum wage
Must be covered under WC

214
Q

What are the federal retention laws for applicant documents such as resumes and employment applications?

A

One year form filling the position unless you suspect the applicant is over 40 years of age. Title VII - ADA - Age Discrimination and Employement Act - EEOC enforces

215
Q

Federal law that prohibits discrimination in employment practices based on an employee’s disability.

A

Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

216
Q

Federal law that establishes minimum wage, overtime pay, recordkeeping, and child labor standards affecting full-time and part-time workers

A

Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)

217
Q

Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)

A

Federal law that allows certain employees to take up to 12 weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave each year for the birth and care of a child, for placement with the employee of an adopted or foster child, for the employee’s own serious health condition which causes them not to be able to work, or to care for a serious health condition of a child, spouse, parent or next-of-kin military service member

218
Q

Immigration Naturalization form to confirm employment eligibility in the United States

A

I-9 Form

219
Q

Federal Law that prohibits discrimination in the workplace based on an employee’s sex, race, religion, color, veteran status, marital status, genetic information, age, disability, or national origin

A

Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act

220
Q

Culture

A

The sum of all the characteristics that describe “the way we do things around here”. It is the set of rules, procedures, processes, attitudes, communication methods, training protocols, or work styles that set the tone for a practice.

221
Q

What are the four perspectives essential in any practice

A
  • Financial-most frequently used to evaluate a practice’s success or failure
  • Customer/Client
  • Internal business processes
  • Learning and growth
222
Q

What is the team model that is used to facilitate full disclosure discussions surround medical records and medical record errors.

A
T = truth, teamwork, and transparency
E = empathy
A = apology and accountability
M = management
223
Q

What are the steps of the Change Curve for organizational culture

A
Define the culture
Align the behaviors with the desired culture
Commit to the change
Support the shift
Grow the team
224
Q

A practice without conflicts could indicate what type of practice dynamic, and what are potential negative side effects of those dynamics?

A

a. Staff members may be afraid to speak up. The practice culture is one where team members are trained to do what they are told. The team all thinks so much alike that there is little creative tension to promote innovation or change.
b. This type of environment can sap the team’s enthusiasm and initiative. It can also encourage passive resistance because open conflict and difference of opinions isn’t tolerated.

225
Q

What are the potential risks of delaying a discussion once an issue is known?

A

a. May result in additional conflict.

b. May be interpreted that management is not interested in the problem.

226
Q

What is the four step method for successful intervention regarding conflict management?

A

1 - Confront The Behavior – call the 2 employees into your office (if 2 departments, call in the supervisors), explain that their behavior isn’t acceptable and that you expect them to turn it around.
2 - Talk It Out – explain that they are professionals and you expect them to listen to one another and work out a solution. Parties take turns talking and listening without interrupting, which should begin to discover solutions.
3 - Hold Team Members Accountable For Solutions – once they have heard each other out, tell them you have confidence in them to find a solution, and give them 1 or 2 days and meet again to hear their solution.
4 - Follow-up and Feedback – hold short, weekly check-ins where you ask each team member in front of the other how things are going. Gradually phase out the meetings as the conflict resolves, and compliment them when you see evidence of cooperation.

227
Q

Define the ideal witness to a termination.

A

a. The same gender, and in a supervisory position, not a direct peer of the employee being terminated

228
Q

What are the express exceptions to At-Will employment.

A

a. Collective bargaining agreements.
b. Specific contracts that indicate a specific length of employment.
c. Dismissals based on race, sex, color, national origin, or religion, prohibited by Title VII of The Civil Rights Act.
d. Dismissal because of pregnancy, prohibited by the Pregnancy Discrimination Act.
e. Dismissal based on age if over 40, prohibited by the Age Discrimination in Employment Act.
f. Dismissals because an employee refuses to work in a workplace they consider unsafe, or because they have exercised their rights under the Occupational Safety and Health Act.
g. Dismissal due to bankruptcy, prohibited by the Bankruptcy Reform Act.
h. Dismissal because of service on a federal jury, prohibited by federal law.

229
Q

What is the suggested protocol for an employee who is performing poorly due to a short term personal life stressor?

A

a. They should be advised that it is unsatisfactory, and that if not for these problems, they would be terminated, but will be given the opportunity to improve once the short term problems are resolved. Re-evaluate at that time.

230
Q

Which plan enables employees to make their medical insurance premium payment before taxes are deducted from their paycheck, and can also mean substantial pretax savings for employers?

A

a. Section 125 Plans.

231
Q

Regarding evaluating medical insurance plans; what are the ingredients that should be included when creating a checklist to aid evaluation.

A
  1. Basic type of plan (PPO, HMO, POS).
  2. Details of coverage.
  3. Size of the providers and related services and facilities within the network.
  4. Cost to employer, employees, dependents, and deductibles and co-pays.
  5. Employee eligibility.
  6. Simplicity of administration.
232
Q

What common veterinary employee benefit does the IRS require be reported as taxable, and what percent is the cut off for not reporting it?

A

a. The employee pet health discount policy that discounts services at greater than 20%. All discounts after 20% need to be reported as taxable.

233
Q

Which documents should be included in a personnel file

A
  1. Employment application, resume, interview notes, background checks.
  2. Job description.
  3. Offer of employment letter.
  4. Performance evaluations, education, and training.
  5. Disciplinary documents.
  6. Emergency contact information.
  7. Tax withholding forms (W-2)
  8. Copy of degrees, diplomas, certifications.
  9. Contracts, agreements, non-compete agreements.
  10. Employee action forms such as change of wage, position, and department.
  11. Leave of absence and attendance records (except FMLA).
234
Q

What should not be included on an employment application?

A

• Any question that asks personal details instead of professional details.

235
Q

Types of Interviews

A
Telephone Pre-Screen
Direct one on one interview
Panel interview
Video interview
Working interview
236
Q

What is the halo effect when conduction interviews?

A

Having a bias for a candidate - allowing good qualities to overshadow areas where they lack experience

237
Q

What is pre-employment screening and when would you use it?

A

Used to gain a deeper understanding of behavior.

238
Q

Checking Professional References

A

Should be checked before, not after extending offer of employment.
• Reference checking procedures should be applied uniformly.
• All questions should be job related.
• Collect facts, don’t offer opinions.
• Do not write reference notes on application or resume.

239
Q

Backgrounds Investigations

A

Only after a contingent offer has been made.
• Outsourced.
• Fair Credit Reporting Act notifications, authorizations and requirements.
• Examples; criminal history, social security trace, motor vehicle records, confirm qualifications, drug testing.
• When results have a negative effect on the hiring process;
o Pre-adverse action letter to inform candidate adverse action is possible.
o Adverse action letter to inform candidate adverse action is immanent.

240
Q

What is a reasonable training investment?

A

1-2% of the hospital’s annual revenue

241
Q

What are the three most common reasons why staff members leave the practice and leave the profession?

A
  1. Lack of positive feedback.
  2. Lack of training opportunities.
  3. Failure of management to include them in the larger strategic vision of the practice.
242
Q

Three main ingredients of individual development palns

A

• Training – an ongoing process that focusses on the employees’ current job and its related
knowledge, skills, and abilities.
• Development – focuses on skills, knowledge, and abilities that are not necessarily focused
on their current job.
• Career Management – serving as a career coach for employees and supporting them
through the employment cycle.

243
Q

Two goals of an effective appointment schedule

A
  1. To eliminate client wait time.
  2. To maximize the efficiency of the doctors, the support staff and the facility by minimizing
    downtime between clients or patient procedures.
244
Q

Considerations when making an appointment schedule

A
  • The number of doctors available during any particular period.
  • The relative efficiency of the doctors.
  • The time allotted to each appointment.
  • The number of patients presented by each client.
  • Types of cases seen.
  • The number of exam or consult rooms.
  • The hours of hospital operation, including the hours for scheduled and nonscheduled activities.
  • Favored client times for veterinary care.
  • Veterinary technician appointments.
245
Q

Ways to prevent potential appointment problems

A

• Appointment cards should always be given to clients who make the appointment while in the clinic.
• Proper hospital protocols that prepare the team for unexpected appointment challenges.
• Advanced reminders within 24 hours of the appointment is considered best practice. Any of these
are acceptable;
• Phone calls.
• Text.
• Automated services.
• E-mail.

246
Q

What are benefits of a well-designed staff schedule

A

Maximize practice productivity via consistent customer service and patient care.
• Schedule flexibility is one of the most desired employee benefits, therefore it is an important
component in staff morale, productivity and retention.

247
Q

Staff leveraging

A

assigning or scheduling the number of support staff needed to enable the
doctors to perform as efficiently as possible.
The ultimate profitability of a veterinary practice depends on the successful leveraging of
veterinary skills over its non veterinary staff.
Leveraging is critical because the veterinarians time and availability comprise the limiting factor,
or bottleneck, in the delivery of veterinary services.

248
Q

Cross-Training

A

Training that covers several tasks within a department or multiple departments
within an organization.

249
Q

Benefits of Cross-Training

A

• Employee knowledge of the practice as a whole, and the roles of others in the practice,
grows.
• When team members are ill or absent, client service and wait times do not have to decline.
• Places another level of employee accountability into the system, helping to reduce the
occurrence of fraud and theft.

250
Q

The most successful employee performance review programs typically combine four elements:

A
  1. Regular informal feedback by supervisors.
  2. Performance goals that are set by the employee and the supervisor.
  3. Action Plans to address performance or disciplinary problems.
  4. Formal reviews that document the “big picture”.
251
Q

Potential pitfalls of employee reviews

A
  • Spending more time on performance review than performance planning.
  • Be careful comparing employees.
  • Forgetting the review is about performance and not blame.
  • Stopping reviews when pay is not longer tied to the review.
  • Believing the manager is in a position to accurately assess team members.
  • Thinking all employees and all jobs should be assessed the same way.
  • Cancelling or postponing reviews.
  • Measuring the trivial.
  • Surprising a team member during the review.
252
Q

The top 3 issues that cause conflict in the workplace environment

A
  • Gossip.
  • Lack of training.
  • Lack of communication.
253
Q

Conflict Management

4 Step Method for Successful Intervention:

A

1 - Confront The Behavior – call the 2 employees into your office (if 2 departments, call
in the supervisors), explain that their behavior isn’t acceptable and that you expect them
to turn it around.
2 - Talk It Out – explain that they are professionals and you expect them to listen to one
another and work out a solution. Parties take turns talking and listening without
interrupting, which should begin to discover solutions.
3 - Hold Team Members Accountable For Solutions – once they have heard each
other out, tell them you have confidence in them to find a solution, and give them 1 or 2
days and meet again to hear their solution.
4 - Follow-up and Feedback – hold short, weekly check-ins where you ask each team
member in front of the other how things are going. Gradually phase out the meetings as
the conflict resolves, and compliment them when you see evidence of cooperation.

254
Q

Just Cause Employment Relationship

A

form of employment in which
the employee can only be disciplined or terminated for a sufficient reason
(some examples are misconduct, negligence or theft). In a few states and
in some situations an employer must show “just cause” for the discipline
of an employee or the court can order the employer to compensate the
employee/former employee.

255
Q

Some strategies to minimize the potential for a wrongful discharge claim

A

• Written employment evaluations should be completed on a regular basis.
• When an employees performance is unsatisfactory, regular raise increases should be withheld until
performance improves to justify a raise.
• Contracts and employment manuals should specify that employees may be terminated by the
employer on two weeks notice, with or without cause.
• Employees should be educated on the details of all policies, such as tardiness and absenteeism,
and the policies should be applied to all employees equally.
• No employment decisions should ever be made for reasons related to any protected class.
• If an employee is performing poorly due to a short term life stressor such as family death or illness,
they should be advised that it is unsatisfactory, and that if not for these problems, they would be
terminated, but will be given the opportunity to improve once the short term problems are resolved.
Re-evaluate at that time.

256
Q

Examples of necessary and appropriate reason for termination

A

• Unsatisfactory performance of duties.
• Excessive tardiness or absenteeism.
• Practice finances call for the elimination of a position(s), in which case
the employee is being laid-off for business reasons.
• Chronic insubordination.

257
Q

Examples of grounds for immediate termination

A

• Professionally dishonest or unethical behavior.
• Criminal activity within the hospital such as stealing.
• Criminal activity outside the hospital that has been substantiated by a
criminal investigation. Example; drug abuse.
• Improper use of personal protection equipment.

258
Q

How To Handle Future Reference Calls

A

• Ideally you should have a plan in place for future reference calls on a
terminated employee. Case law and precedent rapidly change what is
and is not legally appropriate to for employers to say.
• Only provide information that is true and has been documented in the
employee file in order to avoid defamation liability.
• To avoid liability of claims of negligent referral, do not misrepresent the
qualifications or character of a former employee if you have knowledge of
that employee’s propensity for violence, or illegal behavior.

259
Q

Factors to consider when creating a benefits plan;

A

• The practice budget – what can the practice consistently afford to offer.
• Definition of full-time Vs part-time employee. Full-time employees typically
accrue benefits at a faster rate than part-time employees, so the practice
needs to define accrual rates for the various employee schedules.
• The IRS considers employee benefits taxable unless specific regulations
state differently.

260
Q

Fee For Service Plans

A

patients visit the physician of their choice and are

reimbursed. These plans are largely obsolete now.

261
Q

Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)

A

patients visit physicians and
facilities within the HMO “network”. Typically the plan requires the patient
to visit their primary care physician first, who will then refer them to others
in the network when appropriate.

262
Q

Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)

A

PPO’s are a blend of Fee For
Service and HMO’s. They do not require a visit to a primary care provider
prior to visiting a specialist, although they do have a network of preferred
providers and it is more costly to go outside that network.

263
Q

Point Of Service Plans (POS)

A

similar to HMO’s except patients are not

required to see their primary care physician prior to visiting a specialist.

264
Q

Section 125 plans

A

a tax savings plan for both the employee and the
employer. A Section 125 allows employees to pay certain expenses,
including their portion of the medical premium or other contribution before
taxes are deducted from their paycheck. These accounts can equal
substantial savings in payroll taxes for employers.

265
Q

Health Savings Account (HSA)

A

to be used in conjunction with high deductible health plans for individuals or families. A HSA can be used to
pay for a variety of medical services and supplies. Your HSA is owned
by you.

266
Q

Flexible Spending Accounts (FSA)

A

Also can be used to pay for a
variety of health care services and supplies. The FSA is owned by your
employer

267
Q

Patient Protection And Affordable Care Act (PPACA)

A

• Typically applies to businesses with 50 or more full-time employees.
• Requires businesses to provide group insurance or be penalized.
• If your practice does not provide group medical insurance (under 50 fulltime
employees), employees will need to obtain insurance individually or
pay a penalty.
• The Act also places certain caps and conditions on Health Savings
Accounts and Flexible Spending Accounts.

268
Q

401K Plans:

A

• Also established by employers to allow employees to contribute pre tax dollars to the
plan.
• Employers are not required to contribute to the plan.
• There can be an added profit sharing component.
• Requires a professional administrator and can be costly to administer.

269
Q

Simple Employee Pension Plans (SEPs)

A
  • Similar to profit sharing plans
  • Funded by tax deductible employer contributions.
  • Employees cannot contribute.
270
Q

What should not be included in personnel files

A
  • Any document that cannot be legally used to make a decision in hiring, firing, promotion, demotion or any other employment decision.
  • Documents that contain information about an employees gender, race, religion, veteran status, disability or national origin.
  • Garnishment orders or credit reports.
  • Investigative documents for any potential criminal action until the case has been concluded.
271
Q

Personnel file retention

A

Federal and state laws have specific requirements for retention of personnel records, and state law is often more conservative and should always be researched prior to creating a records retention policy.
Recommended number of years to keep personnel file documents time frame given is from date of employee termination unless otherwise noted):
3 years – Basic employee information such as I-9, hiring records, results from tests, employment actions such as hires, separations, re-hire, demotion, lay-off, etc.
4 years (rolling 4 year basis not related to termination date) – Tax records, payroll records such as social security number, pay rate, pension payments, payroll deductions and overtime.
5 years – Job related injuries or illness.
30 years – Medical exam findings, toxic exposure records, and blood borne pathogen exposure records.
All discarded personnel file records should be shredded.

272
Q

Common Elements of an Employee Manual:

A
•	Practice Mission, Vision and Values.
•	Laws of importance (ADA, EEOC, FMLA, sexual harassment policy, pregnancy safety and confidentiality.
•	Define full-time Vs Part-time employees.
•	Employment policies - too numerous to list in entirety, but examples include:
o	Appearance, uniforms, dress code
o	Code of Conduct
o	Social Media policy
o	Drug free workplace
•	Compensation; over-time, personnel records, payroll schedule.
•	Benefits offered.
•	Non-compete agreement.
•	Jury Duty.
•	Training procedures.
•	Safety.
•	Termination.
•	Signature page.
273
Q

What documents can be found in an employee’s medical personnel file?

A
Health and Life insurance forms
Physician notes
Return to work notice
Limited duties notice or accommodations
Insurance or Worker's Compensation Claims
Physical exam results
FMLA documentation
274
Q

True or False: Job descriptions are required by federal law

A

False

275
Q

What element of a job description can help you avoid hiring someone who is unable to perform the essential duties of the position?

A

Listing what is considered an impediment to satisfactory performance results such as being afraid of aggressive pets.

276
Q

What 3 purposes do hospital manuals serve?

A
  1. A reference tool for standards of care and practice guidelines
  2. Training and instructional tool
  3. Define a standard to which employees can be held accountable to reach
277
Q

What specifics should be included in the accountability section of a job description?

A
  • Where does this position reside in the hierarchy of the practice
  • Who do they report to
  • Who evaluations their performance
  • How much authority does this position have?
278
Q

Explain the difference between the hospital operations manual and procedure manual, and the employee policies, procedures, and guidelines manual.

A

The hospital operations and procedure manual is a comprehensive text that details every aspect of specifically how you want work to be done. An employee policies, procedures, and guidelines manual details and clarity and purpose to the practice mission and values, and also details, expectations, compensation and benefits, legal disclaimers, and other details surrounding employee-specific policy and procedures.

279
Q

How often should job descriptions be evaluated for accuracy, and what changes to the practice management indicate a change is necessary.

A

Job descriptions should be evaluated for accuracy annually (more often in the case of staff reduction or growth)

280
Q

The most successful employee review programs typically combine what four elements?

A
  1. Regular informal feedback from supervisors
  2. Performance Goals that are set by the employee and the supervisor.
  3. Action plans to address performance or disciplinary problems
  4. Formal reviews to document the big picture.
281
Q

Where is it recommended to keep the hospital safety manual

A

A central location

282
Q

List the pitfalls regarding employee reviews.

A
  1. Spending more time on performance review than performance planning. More time should be spent preventing performance problems.
  2. Be careful comparing employees
  3. Forgetting the review is about performance, not discipline.
  4. Stopping reviews when pay is no longer tied to the review.
  5. Believing the manager is in a position to accurately assess team members.
  6. Canceling or postponing reviews
  7. Measure the trivial
  8. Surprising a team member during the reviews
  9. Thinking all employees and all jobs should be assessed the same way.
283
Q

What are the three most common types of employee performance reviews?

A

360 Peer Review
Self-Review
Job Satisfaction Survey

284
Q

What are the four disciplines necessary for an effective employee review

A
  1. Hold all employees accountable for their local performance outcomes
  2. Teach all employees to identify, deploy, and develop their strengths
  3. Align all performance appraisals and review systems around identifying, deploying, and developing strengths.
  4. Design and build each role to create world-class performers in the role.
285
Q

What six elements should be included in an employee performance review

A
  1. Conversation about mission, values, and vision.
  2. Clarity about goals and direction.
  3. Addressing team member accomplishments
  4. Address concerns over policy and procedures
  5. Address potential conflict with team members or management
  6. Address any lapses in standards or judgments.
286
Q

What renders an employee performance review useless?

A

Lack of clear performance expectations in the job description because without them, team members cannot be held accountable.

287
Q

What details should be included in meetings minutes?

A
  1. Record decisions and assignments
  2. Designate responsible parties
  3. Record the deadline agreed upon during the meeting
  4. Who was present
  5. What topics, if any, will be revisited at the next meeting.
288
Q

Employee reviews should be developed from the ________?

A

Job Description

289
Q

What are seven ways to engage employees during a staff meeting

A
  1. Using visual aids
  2. Tasteful appropriate humor
  3. Publicly praise work well done and celebrate successes
  4. Do not allow meetings to turn into gripe sessions
  5. Share important information, changes, and progress towards goals.
  6. Request/require team members to present topics
  7. Learning games or “ice breaker” exercises
290
Q

What is the best way to end a staff meeting?

A

On a positive note.

291
Q

What are 5 responsibilities in the role fo the facilitator in a staff meeting?

A
  1. Starting and ending the meeting on time.
  2. Controlling topics
  3. Preventing negativity from overcoming the team
  4. Prioritizing topics
  5. Tactfully preventing a team member from dominating the meeting.
292
Q

It is vital that staff meetings stay on track, and _________ can help facilitate this.

A

Agendas

293
Q

Ultimately, the _____ is responsible for the efficiency, function and flow of the practice.

A

Manager

294
Q

List and define the four R’s of team management.

A
  1. Responsibility - duty or obligation a team member is expected to uphold
  2. Respect - Consideration or esteem given to another person
  3. Rapport - A mutual trust or emotional relationship that exists among team members.
  4. Recognition - Achievement. Team members should be recognized for a job well done as soon as it is warranted.
295
Q

When it comes to staff scheduling _____ is one of the most desired benefits; therefore it is an important component in staff morale, productivity, and retention

A

Flexibility

296
Q

Name and define the five potential employee scheduling options

A
  1. Rotating Schedule: the staff, their duties, and shifts rotate.
  2. Hybrid: A mix of fixed and variable days.
  3. Skill Based: Based on the known skill set of the employee and the needs of the practice.
  4. Split: When an employee works for more than one business within a single workday
  5. Per Diem: Scheduled one day at a time as needed by the practical Most common among relief vets.
297
Q

What are three ways to try to avoid appointment problems with clients?

A
  1. Appointment cards should always be given to clients who make the appointment while in the clinic.
  2. Proper hospital protocols that prepare the team for unexpected appointment challenges.
  3. Advanced reminders within 24 hours of the appointment.
298
Q

Name different factors to consider regarding appointment scheduling criteria for making appointment schedules.

A
  1. The number of doctors available during any particular period.
  2. The relative efficiency of the doctors.
  3. The time allotted to each appointment
  4. The number of patients presented by each client
  5. Types of cases seen
  6. The number of exam consult rooms
  7. The hours of hospital operation, including the hours for scheduled and non-scheduled activities.
  8. Favored client times for veterinary care.
  9. Veterinary technician appointment.
299
Q

What are symptoms of conflict in the practice

A
  1. Avoidance of the other person
  2. Personal Attacks
  3. Hurtful gossip
  4. Barbed Humor
  5. Lack of cooperation
300
Q

Define Preferred Provider organization plan

A

A plan that is a blend of fee for service and HMO medical plans. They do not require a visit to a primary care provider prior to visiting a specialist, although they do have a network of preferred providers and it is more costly to go outside that network.

301
Q

Which addition to medical insurance is owned by the employer?

A

Flexible Spending Account

302
Q

The Patient Protection and ACA requires employers with _____ or more employees to provide group medical insurance or receive a penalty.

A

50 Full-Time Employees

303
Q

What are employee medical records/documents stored separately from their main personnel file

A
  • While it is sometimes appropriate or necessary for a direct supervisor to see some personnel records, there is rarely a reason for them to see medical records.
  • The ADA and FMLA require that medical records be stored separately
304
Q

Which entity or entities require employers to keep detailed payroll and benefits data?

A

The internal revenue Code
Fair Labor Standards Act

Access should be limited and ideally stored separately.

305
Q

At the core of any safety plan or manual is the _______ law.

A

Right to Know

306
Q

True or False: A section on Chemotherapy should be included in every veterinary health safety manual regardless of whether that practice performs chemotherapy.

A

True

307
Q

One way to begin to create an operations and procedure manual is to refer to the ______ of the practice.

A

Job Descriptions

308
Q

What are four elements necessary to hold working interviews

A
  1. Must be on payroll.
  2. Must be eligible to work in the US.
  3. Must be paid at least minimum wage.
  4. Must be covered under Worker’s Comp
309
Q

True or False: Information revealed in the background check can be helpful with hiring decisions and should be conducted on all candidates who make it to the final hiring pool to choose from.

A

False - background checks should only be made after a contingent employment offer has been made

310
Q

Define Bona Fide Occupational Qualification.

A

To establish the defense of bonafide occupational qualification, the employer has the burden of proving that a particular class of employees would be unable to perform the job safely or efficiently and that the BFOQ is reasonably necessary to the operation of the business.

311
Q

What is a reasonable budget to spend on training annually?

A

1-2% of annual revenue of the practice.

312
Q

What are phase training lists and what are the benefits of them?

A

They outline the progressive steps in the training for a specific position.

Benefits:

  1. Helps ensure team members are trained properly
  2. Aids in titrating information/instruction to the employee to avoid overloading them early in the process.
  3. Provides reference and review material for the new employee and phase training can accommodate a new employee that already has some experience.
313
Q

New employees must have immediate knowledge of what 5 safety details

A
  1. Location of the first aid kit, eyewash stations, and exits.
  2. Location of all PPE and instructions on proper use prior to first use.
  3. Location of mandatory posters
  4. Location of the hospital safety manual
  5. Copies of all OSHA standards.
314
Q

List the 3 most common reasons a staff member leaves a practice.

A
  1. Lack of Positive feedback
  2. Lack of training opportunities
  3. Failure of management to include them in the larger strategic vision of the practice.
315
Q

The _____ and _____ of the practice help define the core competencies that should be expected of employees

A

Mission and Values

316
Q

What is an Employee Performance Planning Program?

A

An employee development system based on a mutual commitment between practice leadership and its staff members.

317
Q

List and define the 3 main ingredients of a professional development plan.

A
  1. Training - an ongoing process that focuses on the employee’s current job and its related knowledge, skills, and abilities.
  2. Development - focuses on skills, knowledge, and abilities that are not necessarily focused on their current job.
  3. Career management serving as a career coach for employees and supporting them through the employment cycle.
318
Q

70/20/10 Learning and Development Model

A

70% of learning within an organization should come from OTJ training
20% from coaching and mentoring
10% from actual courses, lectures, and formal training

319
Q

An effective appointment system should have what two goals?

A
  1. To eliminate client wait time.
  2. To maximize the efficiency of the doctors, the support staff, and the facility by minimizing downtime between clients or patient procedures.
320
Q

An unusual number of established clients arriving early or late to the appointment may be a sign of what?

A

Ongoing appointment scheduling and time management problems at your hospital.

321
Q

In the instance of Dense scheduling list the breakdown of the three five-minute sections for a 15-minute annual wellness appointment?

A
  1. The first 5 minutes is the technician check-in period for patients and history and vitals.
  2. The doctor is present for the next 5 minutes to perform the physical exam, answer questions, gather information, and discuss preventative care.
  3. In the remaining five minutes the technician and/or doctor may collect lab samples, fill prescriptions or vaccinate.
322
Q

True or False: An employment contract that details a specific length of employment is an exception to at-will employment?

A

True

323
Q

What is a negligent referral?

A

Misrepresenting the qualifications or character of a former employee if you have knowledge of that employee’s propensity for violence or illegal behavior.

324
Q

In what type of employment relationship can an employee only be disciplined or terminated for a sufficient reason?

A

Just Cause

325
Q

After meeting with 2 team members who are experiencing conflict and you have told them that you have confidence them to find a solution, how much time do you give them before you meet again to hear the solution?

A

One or Two Days

326
Q

What are the top 3 causes of conflict in the workplace environment?

A
  1. Gossip
  2. Lack of training
  3. Lack of communication
327
Q

What is organizational development?

A

The development, improvement, and effectiveness of an organization and includes the culture, values, system, and behaviors of such practice.

328
Q

Define Hard Skills

A

Competencies that are required of the position or could be learned through training

329
Q

Define Soft Skills

A

Competencies that cannot be taught and are generally developed in individuals as they mature.

330
Q

What components should all job descriptions have?

A

A position Title

A summary

Duties and responsibilities

Description of required skills and qualifications

Accountability

331
Q

What are the five key factors that managers should evaluate when deciding if they need to hire additional team members?

A

veterinary/staff ratio, veterinary production, team member’s production, hospital flow, and staff payroll percentages.

332
Q

What questions should be asked when evaluating hospital flow and if any hiring needs to be made?

A

How many times does the phone ring before it is answered? Once answered, how long do clients have to wait on hold?

How long does it take for a client to get an appointment?

How long are clients waiting before they enter the exam room?

How long are clients waiting before they are seen by the veterinarian?

Are patient care standards being met?

Are client service standards being met?

333
Q

What is a standard of care?

A

Guidelines and treatment protocols that have been established allowing the highest quality of medical care to be recommended for every patient.

334
Q

To support a full-time-equivalent veterinarian, how many active clients are needed per year?

A

800 to 1200

335
Q

What are three different types of compensation for veterinarians?

A

Pro-sal, Production only, Salary only

336
Q

Define Compassion Fatigue

A

The effects and characteristics that result from the long-term caring (emotionally and physically) for pets and clients. The cost of caring for others in emotional need.

337
Q

What are the three factors that affect good and bad stress?

A

Choice, Control and Consequences

338
Q

What are the stages of stress?

A

Alarm, adaptation, exhaustion and death

339
Q

What are some risk factors for addiction?

A

Genes, chronic pain, sociocultural factors and environment.

340
Q

What is a drug intervention?

A

A process that helps a drug addict recognize the extent of his or her problem.

341
Q

What are the steps of drug intervention?

A

Time the drug abuse intervention. Plan to talk with the addict when he or she is unimpaired.

Be specific. Tell the co-worker that you are concerned about his or her drug or alcohol abuse and want to be supportive in getting help.

State the consequences.

Listen.

342
Q

Define burnout

A

Physical or emotional exhaustion, especially as a result of long-term stress.

343
Q

What are some common physical symptoms of burnout

A

ulcers, fatigue, overeating, gastroenteritis, cardiac abnormalities, backaches, and nausea.

344
Q

What behavioral issues are associated with burnout

A

Withdrawal increased alcohol intake, agitation, depression, distraction, and increased spending.

345
Q

What are the different types of signs and symptoms of compassion fatigue?

A

Cognitive Signs

Emotional signs

Behavioral signs

Spiritual signs

Somatic signs

Interpersonal signs

Work-related signs.

346
Q

What are the four steps to managing compassion fatigue?

A

Recognize triggers and stressors of CF

Reduce the triggers and stressors once they have been identified.

Restore - practice balancing life and work.

Repeat - Curing CF is not an option; however, managing it with the R’s just listed and repeating the cycle can greatly decrease the effects.

347
Q

What are the five commitments of a leader?

A
Challenge the Process
Inspire a shared vision
Enable Others to Act
Model the way
Encourage the Heart
348
Q

Define Adaptive Leadership

A

This framework incorporates change by challenging the status quo and adapting leadership styles to yield success

349
Q

Define Leadership Fatigue

A

An extreme experience of stress associated with managing expectations regarding policies and procedures in the hospital.

350
Q

Considerations when determining a policy for paid holidays

A

Which holidays will the pracitce close
When will an employee be eligible
Calculations for non hourly employees