Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

sarah's biology class > Organisation > Flashcards

Organisation Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

cells are …

A

the fundamental units of all living organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

tissues in the stomach

A

epithelial

glandular

muscular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Organs are groups of distinct tissues that work together to perform a specific _____.

A

function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Tissues that make up the stomach: epithelial

A

Lines the stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tissues that make up the stomach: muscular

A

Moves around the contents of the stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tissues that make up the stomach: glandular

A

Produces digestive juices that break down the contents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The digestive system is made up of:

A

stomach

large and small intestine

liver

glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

role of the stomach

A

Digests food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

role of the large intestine

A

absorbs water molecules from the remaining undigested foods, producing faeces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

role of the small intestine

A

digests food and absorbs soluble food molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

role of the liver

A

produces bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

role of the glands

A

produces digestive juices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Order the levels of organisation (in multicellular organisms) from least to most complex

A

1) , cell
2) . tissue
3) . organ
4) . organ system
5) . organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Enzyme Activity

A

The substrate binds to the active site of an enzyme, which has a matching shape. Here, its reaction is sped up. In this case, the molecule is broken down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what describes an enzymes active site

A

catalyses a reaction

binds to the reacting chemical

only fits one substrate

its shape is important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is another name for an enzyme?

A

biological catalyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does an enzyme denature?

A

Enzymes have an optimum pH (measure of acidity). If the pH changes away from the optimum, then the enzyme activity decreases. If the pH is too low or too high, then the enzyme is denatured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Calculating Rate of Reaction

A

The rate of reaction is equal to the gradient of the graph, which shows mass of the product plotted against the reaction time.
The gradient is calculated by picking two points on the graph, then dividing the change in the value on the y axis (mass) by the change in the x axis value (time), between those two points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is true of the rate of reaction?

A

dependent on the mass of the product

can be calculated

unit is g/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Increasing the temperature of a working enzyme initially increases the activity. Enzymes have an optimum temperature, and once this is reached, the activity ________. Then, past a certain temperature, the active site changes shape, and the enzyme is ________.

A

Increasing the temperature of a working enzyme initially increases the activity. Enzymes have an optimum temperature, and once this is reached, the activity DECREASES. Then, past a certain temperature, the active site changes shape, and the enzyme is DENATURED.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Equation for gradients

A

gradient= change in x/change in y

​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Factors influencing rate of reaction:

A

pH and temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Enzymes have an optimum __(measure of acidity). If the __changes away from the optimum pH, then the enzyme activity _______.

A

Enzymes have an optimum pH (measure of acidity). If the pH changes away from the optimum pH, then the enzyme activity DECREASES.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Digested molecules are used to construct new:

A

Carbohydrates

proteins

lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Bile

A

bile is an alkaline substance produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is true of bile?

A

alkaline substance

breaks fat

produced in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Emulsification

A

Bile breaks up fats (like oil) into tiny droplets, through a process called emulsification. The tiny droplets have a higher surface area than the original fat drop, which increases the rate of the reactions (catalysed by lipase) that break fats down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Enzymes in the small intestine operate best in alkaline conditions. Bile ________ hydrochloric acid from the stomach to stop these enzymes becoming denatured.

A

Enzymes in the small intestine operate best in alkaline conditions. Bile NEUTRALISES hydrochloric acid from the stomach to stop these enzymes becoming denatured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Digestive enzymes _____ (speed up) the breakdown of large, _______ food molecules into smaller, soluble molecules.

A

Digestive enzymes CATALYSE (speed up) the breakdown of large, INSOLUBLE food molecules into smaller, soluble molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When amylase breaks down starch, ______ and other sugars are produced.

A

When amylase breaks down starch, maltose and other sugars are produced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Proteases break down proteins into:

A

Amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Proteases are produced in:

A

small intestine

pancreas

stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Action sites for amylase:

A

small intestine

mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Proteases break down proteins into their constituent…

A

amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Lipase breaks lipids down…

A

into fatty acids and glycerol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

role of the digestive enzyme amylase?

A

breaks down starch into maltose and other sugars

produced in the small intestine and mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

role of the digestive enzyme lipase?

A

Break down lipids into glycerol and fatty acids

produced In the small intestine and pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

role of the digestive enzyme proteases?

A

Break down proteins into amino acids

produced In small intestine and stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Tests for various food substances: sugar

A

Add Benedict’s reagent and heat for about two minutes. It will turn any of green, yellow or red if this food substance is present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Tests for various food substances: starch

A

Add iodine solution. It will turn blue-black if present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Tests for various food substances: lipids

A

Add Sudan III. If present, a red-stained oil layer will float on the water surface. Ethanol can also be added and when the solution is shaken, it turns cloudy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Tests for various food substances: proteins

A

Add Biuret solution. It will turn mauve or purple if present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Reagents used for testing food substances

A

Sudan III or ethanol
Lipids

Biuret
Proteins

Iodine
Starch

Benedict’s
sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The main types of blood vessel are:

A

Veins

Arteries

Capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

role of arteries

A

takes blood away from the heart

carry oxygenated blood (except for pulmonary artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

an example of a waste product that moves into the blood in capillaries?

A

Carbon Dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Capillaries have thin walls and pass very close to the body cells, which allows _____, _______ and _______ products to be exchanged efficiently

A

which allows food, oxygen and waste products to be exchanged efficiently.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Why do veins have valves?

A

to prevent backflow of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Artery walls have thick layers of muscle, making them strong and able to cope with the ______ pressure at which blood is pumped out by the heart.

A

Artery walls have thick layers of muscle, making them strong and able to cope with the high
pressure at which blood is pumped out by the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Therefore, veins have a thinner wall and ______ cross section than arteries. Veins also have _____ to prevent the back flow of blood.

A

Therefore, veins have a thinner wall and wider cross section than arteries. Veins also have valves to prevent the back flow of blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Veins

A

These form when capillaries join back up after passing through the body. They transport blood from the organs back to the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Capillaries

A

Arteries branch into these much smaller vessels. In these blood vessels, food, oxygen and waste products are exchanged between the blood and the body cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Arteries

A

Transport blood away from the heart to the organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does pulmonary mean?

A

means anything relating to the lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Pulmonary vein’s function

A

The Pulmonary VIEN transports OXYGENATED blood from the lungs to the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Pulmonary artery’s function

A

The Pulmonary ARTERY transports DE-OXYGENATED blood from the heart to the lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Capillaries..

A

branch out from arteries

have thin walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The chambers of the heart:

A

left and right atrium

left and right ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Blood enters the heart via the….

A

atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In the heart:

A

blood enters via the atria

the atria contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Why might someone be fitted with an artificial pacemaker?

A

Normally, a group of cells in the right atrium act as a pacemaker to control the heart’s beating.

If these cells don’t work properly, irregular heart rates can be corrected using electrical devices, known as artificial pacemakers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

function of coronary arteries:

A

The HEART RECIEVS OXYGENATED blood through these arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

function of aorta:

A

The heart PUMPS OUT OXYGENATED blood to the BODY through this artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

function of pulmonary artery:

A

The heart PUMPS OUT DE-OXYGENATED blood to the LUNGS through this artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

functions: Vena cava

A

The heart RECIEVES DE-OXYGENATED blood FROM the BODY through this vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

functions:Pulmonary vein

A

The heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through this vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

examples of arteries:

A

coronary

aorta

pulmonary artery

68
Q

examples of veins:

A

vena cava

pulmonary vein

69
Q

Which blood vessels take blood away from the heart?

A

Aorta

brachial and pulmonary artery

70
Q

what controls the pumping of the heart.

A

A group of cells in the right atrium act as a pacemaker, controlling the pumping heart.

71
Q

Which blood vessel supplies the heart muscle with oxygenated blood?

A

coronary arteries

72
Q

The heart is the ______ organ that pumps blood around the body. It has four chambers: the left and right ___ and the left and right ventricles. It also contains valves and a ________.

A

The heart is the muscular organ that pumps blood around the body. It has four chambers: the left and right atria and the left and right ventricles. It also contains valves and a pacemaker.

73
Q

A group of cells in the ____ ______ act as a ______.

A

A group of cells in the right atrium act as a pacemaker.

74
Q

Why is the human circulatory system called a double circulatory system?

A

because blood passes through the heart twice per circuit.

75
Q

Gas Exchange in the Lungs

A

1) . de-oxygenated blood arrives to the lungs from the heart
2) . The lungs oxygenate (supply oxygen to) the blood
3) . the blood goes to the heart in the pulmonary vein

76
Q

The alveoli in your lungs have a larger surface area to increase the rate of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide. What else can increase the rate of diffusion?

A

1) . The concentration gradient - the bigger the difference in concentration between 2 areas, the faster the rate of diffusion.
2) . The temperature - the higher the temperature, the faster the rate of diffusion.

77
Q

The alveoli are tiny air sacs in the ____. They are surrounded by a network of _________, allowing for oxygen and carbon dioxide to be exchanged between the blood in the capillaries and the air in the lungs.

A

The alveoli are tiny air sacs in the lungs. They are surrounded by a network of capillaries, allowing for oxygen and carbon dioxide to be exchanged between the blood in the capillaries and the air in the lungs.

78
Q

______ and carbon dioxide move between the air and blood by diffusion in the tiny air sacs in the lungs called alveoli.

A

Oxygen and carbon dioxide move between the air and blood by diffusion in the tiny air sacs in the lungs called alveoli.

79
Q

What would happen if blood didn’t pass through the heart twice per circuit?

A

blood would either not be oxygenated

or wouldn’t be pumped around the body

80
Q

________ blood arrives at the lungs from the heart via the pulmonary artery.

A

Deoxygenated blood arrives at the lungs from the heart via the pulmonary artery.

81
Q

The lungs _________ the blood before it returns to the heart with the pulmonary ____.

A

The lungs oxygenate the blood before it returns to the heart with the pulmonary vein.

82
Q

How are alveoli adapted for their function?

A

They are very close to capillaries, so the distance for gases to diffuse is small.

They have a large moist surface area.

They have a rich oxygen supply.

83
Q

The Components of Blood

A

Blood is made up of a fluid called plasma which has red blood cells, white blood cells
and platelets suspended within it.

84
Q

What is the function of platelets?

A

triggering blood clotting

They are small cell fragments that do not have a nucleus.

85
Q

what component of blood are small cell fragments that do not have a nucleus.

A

platelets

86
Q

Blood is a ______, which means it is a group of similar cells that act harmoniously to perform a similar function.

A

Blood is a tissue, which means it is a group of similar cells that act harmoniously to perform a similar function.

87
Q

what is blood plasma?

A

a tissue

88
Q

What would happen if red blood cells had a nucleus?

A

there would be less room for haemoglobin and oxygen

89
Q

Red blood cells have a _______ shape that creates a large ______ area and allows for the rapid diffusion of ______.

A

Red blood cells have a biconcave shape that creates a large surface area and allows for the rapid diffusion of oxygen.

90
Q

Haemoglobin in Whales

A

Red blood cells contain haemoglobin, which binds with oxygen in the lungs.

Whales need to store lots of oxygen because they don’t breathe when they dive underwater.

Whales have 2x as much haemoglobin in their blood as humans.

91
Q

Why do white blood cells change shape?

A

To squeeze through the walls of blood vessels into body tissues and to engulf harmful microorganisms.

92
Q

RBC adaptations

A

binocave shape

haemoglobin

no nucleus

small size

93
Q

what are white blood cells responsible for ?

A

White blood cells are responsible for defence against infection.

94
Q

red blood cell : binocave shape

A

This creates a large surface area and allows for the rapid diffusion of oxygen.

95
Q

red blood cell : contains haemoglobin

A

It contains haemoglobin, which binds with oxygen in the lungs.

96
Q

red blood cell: no nucleus

A

It does not have a nucleus, which frees up room for haemoglobin.

97
Q

red blood cell: small size

A

It is small in size, which guarantees passage even through tiny capillaries.

98
Q

WBC characteristics?

A

can change shape

defends against infection

has a nucleus

99
Q

Types of disease

A

Non-communicable
Cannot spread between organisms

Communicable
Spread between organisms

100
Q

Why is HIV dangerous?

A

It can suppress the immune system and makes people more susceptible to catching other infectious diseases.

101
Q

Disease can negatively impact upon an individual’s _____ health, and ______ can be triggered by an immune reaction to pathogens or other substances.

A

Disease can negatively impact upon an individual’s mental health, and allergies can be triggered by an immune reaction to pathogens or other substances.

102
Q

What are allergies triggered by?

A

triggered by an immune reaction to pathogens or other substances

103
Q

Factors affecting health

A

Diet

Stress

Life situations

104
Q

Viruses occupying cells can stimulate ______, e.g. ___ can stimulate cervical cancer.

A

Viruses occupying cells can stimulate cancers, e.g. HPV can stimulate cervical cancer.

105
Q

what is true of disease interactions?

A

diet can impact on mental health

HIV suppresses the immune system

viruses occupying cells cause cancers

106
Q

_______ and ________ organisations track cases of diseases, to inform their _______ decisions.

A

Governments and health organisations track cases of diseases, to inform their policy decisions.

107
Q

Risk factors relating to health:

A

substances (chemicals from smoking.)

Lifestyle (Unbalanced diet.)

108
Q

Diseases and their proven risk factors are

A

Brain damage in babies
Excessive alcohol drinking during pregnancy

Cancer
Ionising radiation, which can damage cells

excessive alcohol consumption
Liver and brain damage

109
Q

Why is it important for scientists to scrutinise the links between risk factors and the probability of getting certain diseases?

A

To ensure that it is actually the risk factor that is causing the disease and not something else altogether.
Finding causal mechanisms is the way to prove a link.

110
Q

Data counted for risk graphs:

A

incidence of a risk factor

incidence of the disease

111
Q

Which organs can be damaged by excessive alcohol drinking?

A

brain and liver

112
Q

When considering risk factors, scientific data uses ____.

A

When considering risk factors, scientific data uses samples.

113
Q

an impact of obesity ?

A

increased risk of the other diseases

reduced lifestyle options

financial cost for the NHS

114
Q

common types of graphs used for plotting risk factors?

A

bar charts and scatter graphs

115
Q

Types of Heart Valve Disease

A

Valves that don’t fully open
Obstruct blood flow

leaky valves
Allow back-flow of blood

116
Q

Coronary arteries can become narrowed as a result of a build-up of fatty deposits. As a consequence, _______ _____ is reduced, leading to a ____ ___ _____ being supplied to the heart muscle.

A

Coronary arteries can become narrowed as a result of a build-up of fatty deposits. As a consequence, blood flow is reduced, leading to a lack of oxygen being supplied to the heart muscle.

117
Q

What procedure may be necessary in the case of heart failure?

A

transplant of a donor heart

118
Q

Artificial hearts may not be ideal because they can result in long and _______ stays in hospital as well as blood clots. These blood _______ can potentially lead to _______.

A

Artificial hearts may not be ideal because they can result in long and expensive stays in hospital as well as blood clots. These blood clots can potentially lead to strokes.

119
Q

features of artificial hearts:

A

risk of blood clots and strokes

unlikely to be rejected

120
Q

Treatments for coronary heart disease:

A

statins

stents

121
Q

What are the potential disadvantages of using transplanted organs to treat heart disease?

A

need immunosuppressant drugs

may be rejected

122
Q

___________ drugs are used to stop the patient’s ______ system from rejecting a new donor organ.

A

Immunosuppressant drugs are used to stop the patient’s immune system from rejecting a new donor organ.

123
Q

Advantages and Disadvantages of Heart Treatments: drugs

A

Advantages
Cheap
No surgery

Disadvantages
Side effects
Patients need to remember to take

124
Q

Advantages and Disadvantages of Heart Treatments : Mechanical devices

A

Advantages
Used when donor isn’t available

Disadvantages
Power supply
Can wear out and need replacement

125
Q

Advantages and Disadvantages of Heart Treatments : Transplants

A

Advantages
Don`t wear out
Function as the replaced organ

Disadvantages
Require suitable donor
Immunosuppressants

126
Q

When a stent is inserted, it ______ the fatty deposit and keeps the _____ open. Over time, the stent _______ the artery wall, so the artery can begin to ______ again as scar ______ builds up.

A

When a stent is inserted, it compresses the fatty deposit and keeps the artery open. Over time, the stent irritates the artery wall, so the artery can begin to narrow again as scar tissue builds up.

127
Q

Cancer is a group of ________, where changes in cells lead to _______ growth and _______ of cells.

A

Cancer is a group of diseases, where changes in cells lead to uncontrolled growth and division of cells.

128
Q

Which types of cancer have the following characteristics?

A

Malignant
Spread throughout the body in the blood, leading to the creation of more secondary tumours.

Benign
Stay in a specific part of the body, often within a membrane.

129
Q

The categories of risk factors for cancer are:

A

lifestyle

genetic

130
Q

What is cancer?

A

a group of diseases

131
Q

Why should we always wear sun cream on the beach?

A

Because increased UV exposure (e.g. through lots of sunbathing) has been identified to increase the risk of some cancers.

132
Q

The types of tumour are:

A

malignant and benign

133
Q

Some cancers have an increased risk of being ______ from your parents. For example, some genes can cause increased susceptibility (vulnerability) to some types of breast cancer

A

Some cancers have an increased risk of being inherited from your parents. For example, some genes can cause increased susceptibility to some types of breast cancer

134
Q

Examples of plants organs:

A

1
Stems

2
Leaves

3
Reproductive structures

4
Roots

135
Q

What are the four main components of plant leaves?

A

epidermal tissue

stomata

strong mesophyll

palisade mesophyll

136
Q

Stomata

A

Gaps that facilitate (make easier) the diffusion of gases in and out of the leaf, if they are open.

137
Q

Epidermis

A

Tissue that covers the outer surface of leaves (as well as the rest of the plant).

138
Q

Palisade mesophyll

A

Row of cells located below the upper epidermis. They are exposed to a lot of sunlight and so have lots of chloroplasts.

139
Q

Spongy mesophyll

A

Contains many air spaces, which help with gas exchange throughout the leaf.

140
Q

Transpiration transports:

A

water

minerals

141
Q

Factors increasing the rate of transpiration:

A

decreased humidity

increased temp, air flow and light intensity

142
Q

A higher temperature will make more water _______. This will increase the rate of _________.

A

A higher temperature will make more water evaporate. This will increase the rate of transpiration.

143
Q

what is transpiration (Water Transport)?

A

Transpiration transports water and the minerals dissolved in it through the plant. Water moves in one direction only - from the roots to the leaves.

144
Q

Increased temperature and light ______ makes water evaporate faster, so it increases the rate of transpiration.

A

Increased temperature and light intensity makes water evaporate faster, so it increases the rate of transpiration.

145
Q

Factors affecting the rate of transpiration:

A

temp

air flow

humidity

light intensity

146
Q

Measuring the Rate of Transpiration

A

The set-up for a potometer is shown here. It is used to measure the rate of transpiration.

As water is lost through the plant’s leaves, the air bubble moves.

The speed of the bubble’s movement shows the rate of water uptake.

This is only an estimation (guess) as a small amount of the water taken up by the shoot is used in the leaves.

147
Q

When measuring the rate of transpiration with a potometer, why is the calculation only an estimate?

A

A small amount of the water taken up by the shoot is used in the leaves and is not transpired.

148
Q

When measuring the rate of transpiration, the speed of the bubble’s ______ measures the rate of _____ uptake.

A

When measuring the rate of transpiration, the speed of the bubble’s movement measures the rate of water uptake.

149
Q

What apparatus is used to calculate the rate of transpiration?

A

potometer

150
Q

When water is lost through the plant’s leaves in a transpiration experiment, the air ______ in the ________ moves.

The speed that the bubble moves indicates the rate of water ______ by the plant.

A

When water is lost through the plant’s leaves in a transpiration experiment, the air bubble in the potometer moves.

The speed that the bubble moves indicates the rate of water uptake by the plant.

151
Q

what is translocation?

A

Translocation is the process by which food produced in photosynthesis is transported from the leaves to the growing regions of plants and storage organs.

152
Q

Translocation happens through:

A

phloem tubes

153
Q

How do transpiration and translocation differ?

A

Unlike water transport (transpiration), translocation is bidirectional (movement is both up and down the plant).

154
Q

Xylem cells have no end walls, meaning that successive cells form a long ____ for ease of transport.

A

Xylem cells have no end walls, meaning that successive cells form a long tube for ease of transport.

155
Q

How does lignin help xylem cells perform their function?

A

Lignin in the cell wall strengthens and waterproofs the elongated cells.

156
Q

Root hair cell adaptions:

A

mitochondria

long projections

157
Q

Adaptations of xylem cells:

A

dead cells

no end walls

lignin

158
Q

If water is moving via osmosis, in which direction will it flow?

A

from a dilute solution to a concentrated one

159
Q

Xylem cells are dead, meaning that the tubes are _____ and, therefore, their resistance to water flow is low.

A

Xylem cells are dead, meaning that the tubes are hollow and, therefore, their resistance to water flow is low.

160
Q

Root hair cells absorb water from the soil using osmosis (the movement of water from a dilute solution to a concentrated solution). Mineral ions are taken up by active _____.

A

Root hair cells absorb water from the soil using osmosis (the movement of water from a dilute solution to a concentrated solution). Mineral ions are taken up by active transport.

161
Q

When water is _______ (lots available) the plant can afford to lose water, so it opens the ______ to allow gases for photosynthesis to move freely in and out of the leaf.

A

When water is abundant (lots available) the plant can afford to lose water, so it opens the stomata to allow gases for photosynthesis to move freely in and out of the leaf.

162
Q

The _____ cells can open the stomata by taking up lots of water, causing them to swell.

A

The guard cells can open the stomata by taking up lots of water, causing them to swell.

163
Q

The state of stomata (open or closed):

A

balances allowing gases in and conserving water

164
Q

Stomata are gaps in the lower _________ of leaves that facilitate (make easier) the _______ of gases, including evaporated water, in and out of the leaf.

A

Stomata are gaps in the lower epidermis of leaves that facilitate (make easier) the diffusion of gases, including evaporated water, in and out of the leaf.

165
Q

To _____ the stomata, the guard cells lose water and return to a limp state.

A

To close the stomata, the guard cells lose water and return to a limp state.

sarah's biology class (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions